Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PANCE - B > PANCE Prep- Neuro > Flashcards

PANCE Prep- Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Management of Normal pressure Hydrocephalus

A
  1. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the term for impaired performance of rapidly alternating movements and what does it mean

A

dysdiadochokinesia

*cerebellar pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CN VII: ____ (S/M/B?)
Test by: ___
Abnormalities could mean: ___

A

CN 7: facial: B
Test: M: facial expression, S: taste anterior 2/3 of tongue
Abnormalities: Bells palsy, CN 7 palsy, Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tx of Tension Headache

A
  1. tx like migraines- 1st NSAIDS, ASA, acetaminophen

2. Anti-migraine meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the following associated with:

1. Lewy bodies

A
  1. Lewy bodies= Parkinson disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The ability to put three words together, feed oneself well with a spoon and build a tower of seven cubes are milestones for what age?

A

24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 main Clinical manifestations of Myasthenia Gravis

A
  1. Ocular Weakness (usually 1st presenting sx and more severe)
    - EOM involvement, Diplopia***, ptosis (more prominent w/ upward gaze)
    - Pupils are SPARED
  2. Generalized muscle weakness w/ repeated muscle use– relieved w/ rest
    - Bulbar (oropharyngeal) weakness w/ prolonged chewing
    - Respiratory muscle weakness may lead to resp. failure= myasthenic crisis
  • MC in young women
  • *MUSCLE WEAKNESS WORSENED W USE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Management of TIA

A
  1. FIRST LINE: Aspirin +/- dipyridamole or plavix
    * *Thrombolytics contraindicated!!
    * *avoid lowering BP unless >220/120
  2. Management of RF:
    - carotid endartectomy if ICA stenosis > 70%
    - oral anticoagulation for a-fib or LV thrombus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Symptoms of Restless Leg Syndrome (Willis-Ekbom Disease)

A
  1. uncomfortable itching, burning, paresthesias in the leg that creates an urge to move
  2. worse at night and prolonged period of rest/inactivity
  3. improved with movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Myerson’s sign

A

tapping the bridge of nose repetitively causes a sustained blink
*often seen in Parkinson Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common and most aggressive of all the primary CNS tumors in adults

A

Glioblastoma (glioblastoma multiform) = Grade 4 astrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Lhermittes sign

A

Neck flexion causing lightening shock type pain radiating from the spine down the leg
*seen in MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What makes up the diencephalon and where is it?

A
  1. Thalamus: deep in forebrain

2. Hypothalamus: below and ventral to thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management of Restless Leg Syndrome (Willis-Ekbom Disease)

A
  1. Dopamine agonist (TX OF CHOICE) ex. Pramipexole, Ropinirole
  2. Iron supplementation in those w/ serum ferritin lower than 75mcg/L
  3. Alpha-2-delta calcium channel ligands ex. Gabapentin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Valproic acid and Depakote 4 ADRs

A

pancreatitis, hepatotoxicity, TERATOGEN (neural tube defect), tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SE of Levodopa/Carbidopa

A
  1. NV
  2. Hypotension
  3. Somnolence
  4. Dyskinesia and wearing off bradykinesia associated with LT use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CN VI: ____ (S/M/B?)

Test by: ___

A

CN6: Abducens: M
Test: lateral rectus (lateral gaze), EOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Seizures that develop during adolescence and adult life are predominantly due to:

A

tumor, trauma, drug use, or alcohol withdrawal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This type of tremor is shortly relieved with alcohol ingestion

A

Essential Familial Tremor

benign intentional tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is progressive, chronic intellectual deterioration: memory loss, loss of impulse control

A

Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CN X: ____ (S/M/B?)

Test by: ___

A

CN10, vagus, B

Test: M: voice, soft palate, gag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Anterior CVA sxs

A

contralateral sensory and motor deficits greater in leg/foot
urinary incontinence
personality/cognitive deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Cushings reflex and what disease state is it typically seen in?

A
  1. irregular respirations
  2. hypertension
  3. bradycardia

**TBI and epidural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

4 Indications for Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

A
  1. tonic-clonic and focal Seizure disorders
  2. bipolar
  3. Trigeminal neuralgia (Drug of choice)
  4. central diabetes insipidus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is Central cord syndrome and presentation

A

MC type of incomplete spinal cord injury
CP: loss of motor function that is more severe in the UE than LE (more severe in hands); hyperesthesia over the shoulders and arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

s/s of Reye syndrome

A
  • post-influenza or URI
  • The patient develops lethargy, drowsiness, and vomiting. Babinski reflex is positive and hyperreflexia is noted. The liver is normal or enlarged.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

On finger to nose testing, tremor increases as the target is approached

A

Intentional tremor (essential familial tremor)– benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

With Myasthenia Gravis, how can you tell if the weakness and respiratory failure is from myasthenic crisis or cholinergic crisis (too much acetylcholine)?

A
  • If flaccid paralysis improves w/ Tensilon–> myasthenic crisis
  • If flaccid paralysis worsens w/ Tensilon–> Cholinergic crisis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of intracranial hemorrhage?
CT: convex lens, shaped
*does not cross suture lines

A

Epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What causes Parkinson’s disease?

A

IDIOPATHIC loss of dopamine producing cells of the substantia nigra (in the basal ganglia)

*failure to inhibit acetylcholine in the basal ganglia (Ach is an excitatory CNS neurotransmitter and dopamine is inhibitory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cluster HA is diagnosed by:

A

Severe unilateral periorbital pain accompanied by one for more of the following:

ipsilateral. ..
1. nasal congestion
2. rhinorrhea
3. Lacrimation
4. redness of the eye

*Horners Syndrome: ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

4 SE of Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

A

Hyponatremia (causes SIADH)
SJS,
blood dyscrasias
hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Phenytoin is the drug of choice for ___

A

seizure prophylaxis *does not cause CNS depresssion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When are anticholinergics indicated and CI for Parkinson Disease

A

Indicated: less than 70y/o w/ tremor predominance (doesn’t improve bradykinesia)

CI: BPH, glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is ALS? what functions are spared in these disease?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis “aka Lou Gehrig’s Disease”

-Necrosis of BOTH upper and lower motor neurons–> PROGRESSIVE MOTOR DEGENERATION

**sensation, voluntary eye movement, bowel/bladder, sexual function are SPARED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Management of Cluster HA

A
  1. 100% Oxygen (6-10L)
  2. Anti-migraine meds: SQ sumatriptan

Prophylaxis: Verapamil (1st line**)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CN II: ____ (S/M/B?)
Test by: ___
Abnormalities could mean: ___

A

CN2: optic: S
Test: visual acuity, visual fields, pupillary light reflex
Abnormalities: optic neuritis, marcus Gunn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the functions of the Parietal Lobe

A
  1. Perception/recognition of stimuli
  2. Orientation
  3. Movement
    * body sensation and somatosensory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of intracranial hemorrhage?
CT: concave, crescent shape
*can cross suture lines

A

Subdural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the functions of the Medulla oblongata

A
  1. Regulates vital body function (HR, breathing, autonomic fxn)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Marcus- Gunn pupil and what disease state is it common to see this in?

A

During swinging flashlight test from the unaffected eye into the affected eye, pupils appear to dilate (due to less than normal pupillary constriction). The response is due to the brain perceiving the delayed conduction of affected optic nerve as if light was reduced
**MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Management of Migraine HA

A
  1. Symptomatic/Abortive: NSAIDS/ASA/TYL first line if mild, Triptans or Ergotamines (mod to severe with no response to first line): Serotonin 5HT-1 agonists
  2. Dopamine blockers (metoclopramide, prochlorperazine)+ Diphenhydramine (to prevent EPS, dystonic reactions)
  3. IV fluids

Prophylactic: anti-HTN meds (BB, Ca+ channel blockers) TCAs, Anticonvulsants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What spinal nerve root is most likely affect in a patient with triceps, elbow extension, wrist flexion weakness and paresthesias in the middle finger and diminished triceps reflex

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

___ are suppressible while ___ are not suppressible

A

Tics- suppressible

Myoclonus- not suppressible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Berry Aneurysm MC occurs where?

DX by ___

A

Circle of Willis (asymptomatic until SAH)

DX: angiography gold standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

___ presents w/ ptosis of the eyelid, meiosis or constriction of the pupil, and anhidrosis or reduced sweat secretion
-pupillary response to light and accommodation is preserved

A

Horner Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of intracranial hemorrhage?

CT: star shaped

A

SAH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q 
Epidural hemorrhage
Location:
MOI:
SX:
Dx:
Tx:
A

Location: Arterial bleed, btwn skull and dura
MOI: temporal bone fx and middle meningeal artery disruption
SX: LOC followed by lucid interval, then neuro degeneration
Dx by noncontrast CT: Lens shape, does NOT cross suture lines, temporal bone fx
Tx: hematoma evacuation or craniotomy TOC in most
if small, close observation without surgery
**remember methods to reduce ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Alzheimer Disease and what is it usually due to?

A

MC type of dementia
hypotheses on causes: amyloid deposition (senile plaques) in brain, neurofibrillary tangles (caused by abnormal tau proteins), ACh deficiency
**see temporal atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do you manage an Essential Familial Tremor

A
  • Tx not usually needed
    1. Propranolol may help if severe or situational
    2. Second line: Primidone (barbiturate)
    3. Third line: Alprazolam (benzo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What spinal nerve root is most likely affected in a patient with weak wrist extension, thumb and index finger paresthesias and diminished brachioradialis reflex?

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Indications for close contacts of a patient with bacterial meningitis to be treated

A

*unique to N. meningitidis
Rifampin (600 mg q 12 for 2 days) OR Ciprofloxacin (500 mg oral)
>8 hrs of exposure or direct exposure to respiratory secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

MC type of astrocytoma in children/young adults vs adults

A

Kids/young adults: Grade I Pilocytic astrocytoma (most benign)

Adults: Grade 4 Glioblastoma multiforme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Suspect ____ in younger patients with Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Multiple Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How does Phenytoin (Dilantin) help w/ seizures and what are its SE

A

stabilizes neuronal membranes by blocking Na+ channels in CNS
SE: gingival hyperplasia, SJS, rash, hirsutism, hypotension, TERATOGEN
- osteomalacia or demineralization w. LT use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Describe the following pupil findings:

  1. Horner Syndrome
  2. Adie pupil
  3. Argyll Robertson pupil
  4. Marcus Gunn pupil
  5. Light-Near dissociation
A
  1. Horner Syndrome: unilateral small pupil w/ mild ptosis +/- ipsilateral anhydrosis w/ preserved pupillary response to light and accommodation
  2. Adie pupil: unilateral-dilated pupil that is sluggish to direct light stimuli
  3. Argyll Robertson pupil: usually affects both eyes, small bilateral pupils that accommodate but poorly react to light
  4. Marcus Gunn pupil: constricts slower to direct light stimulation than to the consensual stimulation
  5. Light-Near dissociation: bilateral and consists of preserved constriction to accommodation but impaired to response to light
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is a Lacunar infarct? biggest risk factor? MC presentation? how to dx? tx?

A
  • small vessel disease of cerebral artery penetrating branches in pons and basal ganglia (usually NON cortical)
  • RF: HTN (80%)
  • MC presentation is PURE MOTOR DEFICIT (hemiparesis or hemiplegia)
  • Dx made by CT: small punched out hypodense areas (usually centrally or noncortical areas- BG)
  • Tx: ASA, control risk factors (good prognosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Most CNS lymphomas are ____ and a big risk factor is

A

large B cell lymphoma (secondary)

EBV 90% of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a TIA? what is the classic CP sign?

A

TRANSIENT episode of neurological deficits WITHOUT acute infarction. often lasting <24hr
*MC cause embolus
CP sign: amaurosis fugax (transient monocular vision loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

An 18 year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident with a question of cervical spine fracture. What is the imaging test of choice to initially evaluate this patient and clear his cervical c-spine?

A

Lateral radiograph

*MRI and CT of the spine may be performed in the setting of acute cervical spine injury when a major fracture or dislocation is identified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When do the following reflexes disappear in infants:

  1. Moro:
  2. Grasp:
  3. Parachute:
  4. Tonic Neck:
A
  1. Moro: 3-6 months
  2. Grasp: 2 months
  3. Parachute: Remains throughout life
  4. Tonic Neck: 6-7 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is Tourette Syndrome? when is typical onset?

A

idiopathic movement disorder (maybe basal ganglia disorder) characterized by vocal and motor tics
**onset usually in childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the most common cause of subclavian steal syndrome and how do they present

A

atherosclerosis

  • most are asymptomatic
  • sx of arm arterial insufficiency- BP difference between arms >15mmhg in affected arm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the 4 upper motor neuron signs and 4 examples of conditions

A
  1. Spasticity (strong tone)
  2. Stiffness (posturing)
  3. HYPERreflexia (increased DTR)
  4. UPward babinski

*CVA, MS, cerebral palsy, spinal cord/brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Acute relapses of MS are treated with

A

a short course of IV methylprednisolone followed by oral prednisone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Most abundant excitatory NT in CNS:

Most abundant inhibitory NT in CNS:

A

Most abundant excitatory NT in CNS: Glutamate

Most abundant inhibitory NT in CNS: GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How can you tell the difference btwn Myasthenia Gravis and Myasthenic syndrome (Lambert-Eaton)

A

Weakness improves w/ repeated use in Lambert Eaton

**also usually hyporeflexia in LE syndrome whereas MG doesn’t affect reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are some dopamine antagonists?

A

(blocks dopamine)

  1. Typical antipsychotics: Haloperidol
  2. Atypical antispychotics: Clozapine, risperidone
  3. Antiemetics: Promethazine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Management of ischemic CVA

A

1) . Thrombolytics w/in 3 hrs of onset
* * rTPA (alteplase) if no contraindications: recent bleed, bleeding disorder, recent trauma, BP over 185/110
2) . Mechanical thrombectomy within 24 hrs (can be done in combo with TPA)
3) . GRADUAL BP control: only lower if greater than 185/110 if TPA used or >220/120 if no TPA

If onset of sxs > 3 hrs: Long-term management

1) . Antiplatelet: ASA or Plavix therapy (no ASA within 24 hrs of TPA)
2) . Statin therapy
3) . NPO, HOB 30 degrees, no hypotonic fluids, DVT proph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Sx of middle cerebral artery stroke

A 
contralateral sensory and motor deficits of FACE and ARM (only lower half of face)
dominant (usually left) hemisphere: aphasia, math comprehension probs
non dominant (usually right): spatial deficits, flat affect, impaired judgement, impulsivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Management of Multiple Sclerosis

A

Acute exacerbation: IV corticosteroids*** and plasmapheresis if not responsive

Relapse-remitting disease: B interferon** or Glatiramer acetate

-Amantadine is helpful for the fatigue in MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for MS

A

MRI with gadolinium: hyperintense white matter plaques

**use in combo with clinical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe the CSF findings for:

  1. MS:
  2. Guillain Barre Syndrome:
  3. Bacterial Meningitis:
  4. Viral Meningitis:
  5. Fungal or TV Mengitis
  6. Pseudotumor Cerebri
  7. SAH
A
  1. MS: High IgG/Oligoclonal bands
  2. Guillain Barre Syndrome: high protein w/ normal WBC/cell count
  3. Bacterial Meningitis: high protein, high WBC (PMNs), decreased glucose
  4. Viral Meningitis: high WBCs (lymphocytes), normal glucose, usually normal protein
  5. Fungal or TV Meningitis: Decreased glucose, high WBCs (lymphoctyes), increased protein
  6. Pseudotumor Cerebri: increased CSF pressure otherwise nl
  7. SAH: xanthocromia, blood in CSF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the Clinical manifestations of an Essential Familial Tremor

A

BILATERAL and SYMMETRIC

  1. Intentional Tremor: postural, bilateral ACTION tremor of the hands, forearms, head, neck or voice–> MC in UE and head (titubation) (usually spares legs)
  2. Tremor worsens w/ emotional stress and intentional movement
  3. No other sign. neuro findings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Describe what CN control what eye movements

A 
CN 3 (Oculomotor): superior rectus, inferior rectus, and medial rectus
CN 4 (Trochlear): Superior oblique
CN 6 (Abducens): Lateral rectus

SO4, LR6 and the remainder 3
(Superior oblique: CN 4– Lateral rectus: CN 6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Clinical Manifestations of ALS and PE findings

A

MC sxs: ASYMMETRIC Limb weakness

  • loss of ability to initiate and control motor movements due to muscle weakness
  • Bulbar sxs: dysphagia, dysarthria, resp problems
  • cognitive impairment

PE signs: Mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

difference in sxs between Viral meningitis and Encephalitis

A

Both present with meningeal sxs and signs on exam

BUT encephalitis will have profound lethargy/AMS, changes in personality, speech, and movement PLUS FOCAL neuro deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

CN V: ____ (S/M/B?)
Test by: ___
Abnormalities could mean: ___

A

CN 5: Trigeminal:B
Test: M: muscles of mastication, S: light touch of face
Abnormalities: trigeminal neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How do you diagnose Guillain Barre Syndrome

A

strong clinical suspicion

  1. CSF shows high protein w normal WBC
  2. Electrophysiologic studies most specific: decreased motor nerve conduction velocities and amplitude
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the functions of the Frontal Lobe

A
  1. Reasoning
  2. Problem solving
  3. Parts of speech
  4. Movement
  5. Emotion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What makes up the Cortex and what is its fxn

A

Frontal, parietal, tempora, occipital lobes

  • fxns in higher brain processes such as thought and action.
  • Controls all voluntary activity (w/ help of cerebellum)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What type of spinal cord injury causes loss of proprioception and vibratory sense only

A

Posterior cord syndrome (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are 5 lower motor neuron signs and 4 conditions

A
  1. Bilateral FASCICULATIONS
  2. Muscle ATROPHY and WEAKNESS
  3. HYPOreflexia (Decreased DTR)
  4. Flaccidity/HYPOtonia (loss of muscle tone)
  5. DOWNward Babinski

**GBS, botulism, cauda equina, bell palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Twisting of the body, abnormal posturing (ex. torticollis, writers cramp)

A

Dystonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What s/s occur in order of prevalence for an impending cerebral aneurysm rupture

A
  1. HA (MC 48%)
  2. Dizziness (10%)
  3. Orbital pain (7%)
  4. Sensory and motor disturbance (6%)
  5. diplopia (4%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the most appropriate initial disease-modifying treatment for a patient diagnosed with MS

A
  1. Beta-interferon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Flexion teardrop fracture may cause ____.

Extension teardrop fracture may cause ___.

A

anterior cervical cord syndrome

central cord syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the difference between meningitis and encephalitis

A

Meningitis: inflammation of MENINGES that can be infectious (bacterial)

Encephalitis: infection of BRAIN PARENCHYMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

You have just stuck yourself with a sharp needle. In order for you to be able to interpret this sensation, which of the following areas must be intact?

A

Lateral spinothalamic tract, thalamus, and sensory cortex

*Sensory impulses reach the sensory cortex from the spinothalamic tract or the posterior columns. Fibers transmit this to the thalamus which sends impulses to the sensory cortex of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the functions of the Midbrain

A
  1. Relays audio/visual info

2. Eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What term is given to an ocular examination finding where small, irregular pupils are seen that react with near vision but not to light?

A

Argyll-Robertson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is a flexion teardrop fracture and its MOI

A

anterior displacement of a wedge shaped fracture gragment of the anterio-inferior portion of the superior vertebra

MOI: severe flexion and compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How to manage Huntington’s Disease?

A
  • *No cure– usually fatal w/in 15-20 yrs after presentation
  • *No medication stops the progression

Chorea management: tetrabenazine
mood: antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what disease causes localized brain degeneration of the frontotemporal lobes? common CP? what is seen on histology?

A

Frontotemporal Dementia (Picks Disease)
CP: marked personality, social behavior, and language changes (preserved visuospatial), this progresses to dementia
**socially inappropriate behavior, HYPERORALITY
Histology: PICK bodies (aggregates of Tau proteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is Bell’s Palsy? common sxs/signs

A

idiopathic, unilateral CN7 palsy (FACIAL WEAKNESS ONLY)

  • Strong association w/ HSV reactiviation**
  • sxs/signs: ipsilateral hyperacusis followed by unilateral facial weakness WITH forehead involvement, taste probs, dec lacrimation, inability to fully close eyelid)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What seizure medication is associated with gingival hyperplasia?

A

Phenytoin

*Also associated w/ anemia and hirsutism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Sudden, repetitive NONRHYTHMIC movements or vocals using specific muscle groups

A

Tics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

CN III: ____ (S/M/B?)
Test by: ___
Abnormalities could mean: ___

A

CN3: oculomotor: M
Test: inferior rectus, ciliary body, EOM
Abnormalities: Oculomotor, dilated pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How do you diagnose Multiple Sclerosis

A
  1. mainly clinical- at least 2 discrete episodes of exacerbations
  2. MRI w/ gadolinium (test of choice to confirm MS)– white matter plaques (hyperdensities)
  3. LP w./ increased IgG (Oligoclonal bands) in CSF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Spinous process avulsion fx MC at the lower cervical C6 or C7

A

Clay-Shoverlers fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is Unthoffs Phenomenon

A

MS sx worse in heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

How to dx and manage ALS? most common cause of death?

A

Dx: electromyography (loss of neural innervation and reinnervation in muscle groups)

Riluzole: reduces glutamate (excitatory) buildup in neurons, decreases progression for up to 6 months

*usually fatal w/in 3-5 yrs after onset
MC cause of death: respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Dx and Management of Bell Palsy

A

Dx: clinical
TX: no tx is required and typically resolves in 1 month
**supportive with artificial tears
-severe cases: Acyclovir w or wo steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

s/s of thoracic outlet syndrome

A
  1. pain that radiate from the point of compression to the base of the neck, axilla, arm, forearm, and hand
  2. paresthesias to the volar aspect of the 4th and 5th digits
  3. sensory sx may be aggravated at night or by prolong use
  4. weakness and muscle atrophy
  5. vascular/arterial ischemia
105
Q

what is Charcots neurologic triad

A
  1. Nyastagmus
  2. Staccato speech
  3. Intentional tremor

*seen in MS

106
Q

A mother brings in her 4 year-old son with complaints that he falls frequently and he “stands funny”. The mother also notes that he has lost the ability to easily stand from a seated position. She reports that he met developmental milestones as an infant. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

Muscular dystrophy age of onset is by age 5 and begins in the pelvic girdle.

107
Q

A patient presents w/ left hand weakness and slurred speech. What test is most likely to determine the source of an arterial thrombus

A

Carotid US

*s/x consistent w/ pathology arising from anterior cerebral circulation including carotid arteries- a CT should be also ordered to r/o acute hemorrhage

108
Q

Describe the anatomy of UMN and LMN

A

UMN: connects cortex to LMN in SC (NT: glutamate to active LMN)

LMN: in SC, links UMN to muslces (NT: Acetylcholine stimulates muscle contraction)

109
Q

Describe Central Cord Syndrome

A

“Because MalefiCENT developed frostbite when she EXTENDED her hand to touch the cold window pane, she couldn’t put on her SHAWL with her WEAK HANDS”

  • Extension injuries
  • Loss of pain and temp sensation
  • UE>LE (especially hands)
  • Shawl distribution
110
Q

Sxs and PE findings of Huntington’s Disease

A 
SXS: 3 M's
Mood (behavioral changes), Memory (dementia), Movement (chorea)
PE signs:
1. Restlessness
2. Fragility
3. Quick, involuntary hand movements
4. Brisk deep tendon reflexes
111
Q

___ is vision loss due to a central lesion, anisocoria has unequal sized pupils, unilateral loss of vision due to multiple sclerosis

A

amaurosis fugax

112
Q

Management of Alzheimer Disease

A
  1. Ach-esterase inhibitors (CNS): Donepezil, Tacrine, Rivastigmine, Galantamine
    * *help memory function and sxs (doesn’t slow dz)
  2. NMDA antagonists: Memantine (adjunct or monotherapy in mod-severe dz)
113
Q

What is Guillain Barre Syndrome? causes of it?

A

-acquired autoimmune demyelinating polyradiculopathy of the peripheral nerves (immune mediated)
PP: autoantibody attacks myelin sheath of peripheral nerves
-MC w/ Campylobacter jejuni or other antecedent respiratory or GI infections, INFLUENZA vaccine

114
Q

What is Multiple Sclerosis

A

Autoimmune, inflammatory demyelinating disease of CNS. Associated w/ axon degeneration of WHITE MATTER
-Relapsing-remitting disease is MC w/ episodic exacerbations

115
Q

Describe the nerve roots that are tested with each reflex testing: ankle/achilles, knee, biceps, triceps

A

Achilles/ankle: S1-2
Knee: L3-4
Biceps: C5-6
Triceps: C7-8

116
Q

Problems in the basal ganglia can lead to what type of disorders?

A
  1. Movement disorders (dyskinesia, dystonias, Parkinsonism, Huntingtons)
  2. Behavior control (Tourettes, Obsessive compulsive)

*Basal ganglia is involved in coordinated movement, emotion and cognition

117
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis? what is it strongly associated with?

A

Autoimmune peripheral nerve disorder
-autoimmune antibodies against acetylcholine postsynaptic receptor–> decrease ACh receptors–> progressive weakness w/ repeated muscle use and recover after periods of rest

  • 75% have thymic abnormality (hyperplasia or thymoma)
  • May occur postpartum
118
Q

Sx of vertebral artery posterior stroke

specific findings of vertebrobasilar and basilar

A

3 V’s

  1. vertigo (nystagmus)
  2. vomiting (and nausea)
  3. visual changes (diplopia)
    * *vertebrobasilar artery: IPSIlateral CN deficits (FACE) with CONTRAlateral motor/sensory deficits
    * *basilar infarct: asymmetric but bilateral deficits
119
Q

What makes up the brainstem and what is its fxn

A

Controls vital life functions (breathing, HR and BP)

  1. midbrain
  2. pons
  3. medulla oblongata
120
Q

How do benzos help with seizures

A

increases GABA- GABA is an inhibitory NT in the CNS

121
Q

Where is the likely TIA?
SX: gait and propriocetion, dizziness, vertigo
-brainstem/cerebellar sx

A

Vertebrobasilar

122
Q

With a ____ hemorrhage, do not perform an LP BEFORE CT scan/PE bc it may cause brain herniation

A

intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)

123
Q

What are the functions of the Temporal Lobe

A
  1. Hearing (perception/recognition of auditory stimuli and speech)
  2. Memory
124
Q

CT scan: ring enhancement

*infectious cause

A

Toxoplasma

125
Q

What is Kernig’s sign and Brudzinski’s sign

A

Kernigs: inability to straighten knee w/ hip flexion

Brudzinskis: neck flexion produces knee/hip flexion

**seen w/ meningitis

126
Q

3 Clinical Manifestations of CP, PE findings

A
  1. Spasticity (**Hallmark)
  2. varying degrees of motor deficits
  3. +/- seizures

PE: hyperreflexia, limb-length discrepancies

**Often associated w/ intellectual and developmental abnormalities

127
Q

A 75 year-old male presents to the ER with the following stroke findings: right-sided hemiparesis (face and hand more affected than leg), homonymous hemianopsia of the right half of both visual fields, and aphasia. Where is the location of his stroke?

A

Middle Cerebral Artery

128
Q

Management of Trigeminal Neuralgia

A
  1. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) 1st line

2. Gabapentin

129
Q

What are Lewy bodies

A

loss of pigment cells seen in the substantia nigra

*seen in Parkinsons disease (localized lewy bodies) and diffuse lewy body dementia

130
Q

Types of muscle spasms

A
  1. Tonic: prolonged sustained contraction/rigidity

2. Clonic: repetitive rapid movement

131
Q

MC cause of:

  1. Viral Meningitis
  2. Encephalitis
A
  1. Viral Meningitis: Enterovirus (echovirus, coxsackie), Arboviruses
  2. Encephalitis: HSV1 (other viruses- west nile, VZV)
132
Q

Describe the three types of tremors

A
  1. Resting tremor: at rest (Parkinsons disease)
  2. Postural tremor: while holding position against gravity
  3. Intentional tremor: during movement or when approaching nearer to target
133
Q

What brain bleed is commonly associated with a temporal bone fracture

A

epidural hematoma

134
Q 
Subdural hemorrhage
Location:
MOI:
SX:
Dx:
Tx:
A

Location: venous bleed btwn dura nadn arachnoid due to tearing of cortical bridging veins
MOI: blunt trauma, elderly/alcoholics, anticoagulant use
SX: gradual increase in generalized neuro sxs (HA, N/V, dizziness)
Dx with non contrast CT: crescent shaped, crosses suture lines
**midline shift can occur due to increased ICP
Tx: nonop management if small and clinically stable pt or midline shift < 5mm
SURGERY if midline shift > 5mm

135
Q

How do you assess narcolepsy

A

multiple sleep latency test

136
Q

Clinical manifestations and PE findings (3) of Parkinson Disease

A

TRIAD: resting tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity

  • Resting tremor- “pill rolling” (MC)
  • Bradykinesia: slowness of voluntary movement (lack of swinging arms while walking and shuffling gait)
  • Rigidity: COGWHEEL, flexed posture

PE: Fixed facial expressions, myerson’s sign, Postural instability– “pull test”, pt falls when pull shoulders from behind

137
Q

What type of ligament injury is common with hyperextension and compression of neck?

A

transverse ligamental injury and axis fracture

138
Q

Management of Tourette Syndrome

A

FIRST LINE: Habit reversal therapy: 50% have sx resolution by age 18

Meds:

  1. Dopamine blocking agents: TETRABENAZINE, haloperidol, risperidone
  2. Alpha-adrenergics: clonidine, guanfacine
139
Q

What are the functions of the Pons

A
  1. Relay station between medulla and cerebrum (motor/sensory info)
  2. Regulates breathing
140
Q

Demyelination of peripheral nerves is seen w/

A

multiple sclerosis

141
Q

what is Vascular dementia? most important risk factor? CP? how to dx and tx?

A

brain disease due to CHRONIC ischemia and multiple infarction (lacunar infarcts)
-HTN biggest RF
-CP: SUDDEN decline in function with stepwise progression of sxs (random infarct leads to decline, stable until another infarct that causes decline); can have cortical vs subcortical manifestations depending on area of brain affected
-dx: clinical with similar workup to alzheimer’s
(MRI can show cortical or subcortical infarcts)
-Tx: NONE
prevention: treat high BP

142
Q

Describe the GCS

A 
Eye opening:
4- spontaneous
3- to verbal
2- to pain
1- no opening
Verbal response:
5- oriented
4- confused
3- inappropriate words
1- no words
Motor response:
6- obey commands
5- localizing response to pain
4- withdrawal from pain
3- flexion to pain
2- extension to pain
1- no motor response

Score: 3-15
mild 13 or above
mod 9-12
severe 8 or under

143
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Multiple Sclerosis

A

Sensory deficits (TRIGEMINAL neuralgia), followed by visual disturbances (optic neuritis, diplopia) and weakness (gait, balance problems)

Unthoff’s Phenomenon: worsening sx with heat
Lhermittes sign: neck flexion causes lightening shock type pain radiating from the spine down the legs
charcot’s neuro triad

spasticity, + Babinski, hypereflexia
bladder, bowel, sexual dysfunction

144
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia

A
  1. Voluntary movement
  2. coordination
  3. Cognition
  4. Emotion
145
Q

Clinical presentation and diagnosis of Normal pressure Hydrocephalus

A

Classic Triad- 2 W’s

  1. Dementia (WACKY)
  2. Gait disturbance (WOBBLY)- wide-based, shuffling gait
  3. Urinary incontinence (WET)

Dx: MRI is SUPERIOR to CT scan
**enlarged ventricles

146
Q

Clinical manifestations and diagnosis of Tourette Syndrome

A

Diagnosis: multiple motor and at least 1 vocal tic (not necessarily occurring together) for greater than ONE YEAR + onset prior to 18 yo

Motor Tics (MC initial sxs): face, head and neck
Verbal or phonetic tics
Self-mutilating tics: hair pulling, nail biting, etc.

147
Q

meningiomas are associated with ___ and most commonly arise from

A

neurofibromatosis
dura or sites of dural reflection

*usually benign

148
Q

How do you dx TIA

A

Neuroimaging: CT scan initially (rule out hemorrhagic stroke)
**MRI more sensitive
Neurovascular imaging: Carotid doppler, CTA or MRA
Angiography is GS

149
Q

Examples and SE of Dopamine Agonists

A

Bromocriptine, Pramipexole, Ropinirole

SE similar to levodopa

  • Orthostatic hypotension/ dizziness
  • Nausea
  • HA
  • Anorexia
150
Q

Sx of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

A
  • decrease dopamine activity
    1. AMS: delirium
    2. Autonomic instability: hyper salivation, incontinence*
    3. Hypertermia: fever
    4. Muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, “lead pipe rigidity*”, hypotonia
151
Q

Management of Myasthenia Gravis

A

Long term tx:
-Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors: Pyridostigmine or Neostigmine (1st line) ((increases acetylcholine)

Severe sxs or Myasthenic crisis: plasmapheresis or IVIG

Thymectomy can remove source of autoantibodies
***AVOID FLUOROQUINOLONES AND AMINOGLYCOSIDES (may exacerbate myasthenia)

152
Q

Cognitive loss in Alzheimer’s dementia may be delayed with which of the following medications?

A

Donepezil (Aricept) is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor that leads to increased acetylcholine, which is necessary for learning and memory

153
Q

Management of Parkinson Disease

A
  1. Levodopa/Carbidopa (**Most effective treatment- levodopa is converted to dopamine)
  2. Dopamine agonists: Bromocriptine, Pramipexole, Ropinirole (More useful in young patients to delay the use of Levodopa)
  3. Anticholinergics (trihexyphenidyl, benztropine): tremor predominant
  4. Amantadine
  5. MAO-B Inhibitors
  6. COMT (Catechol-O-Methyltransferase) inhibitors
154
Q

Management of Guillain Barre Syndrome

A

FIRST LINE: plasmapheresis or IVIG

  1. Plasmapheresis best if done early (removes harmful circulating autoantibodies that cause demyelination)
  2. IVIG

**PREDNISONE IS CONTRAINDICATED

-Prognosis: 60% recover fully in 1 yr. (10-20% left w/ permanent disability)

155
Q

Regulates breathing, serves as a relay station btwn the cerebral hemisphere and the medulla

156
Q

Where is the Amygdala located, and what is its function

A

in temporal lobe

-involved in memory, emotion and fear

157
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Huntington’s Disease

A
  1. Sx appear 30-50y/o
  2. Progressive sx Behavioral–> chorea–> dementia
  3. Behavorial: personality, cognitive, intellectual, and psychiatric including irritability
  4. Chorea: worse w/ voluntary movements and stress and usually disappears w/ sleep
  5. Dementia
  6. Gait abnormalities/ataxia
158
Q

Huntington chorea is due to ____

A

caudate nucelus atrophy int he basal ganglia

159
Q

What is a Jefferson Fracture and its MOI

A

aka atlas C1 Burst fracture
-bilateral fractures of the anterior and posterior arches of C1

MOI: vertical compression force through the occipital condyles

160
Q

The source of pain experienced during a migraine headache is a result of activation of which nerve?

A

Trigeminal nerve

161
Q

What is a odontoid fracture and its MOI

A

fracture of the dens (odontoid process) of the axis C2

MOI: head placed in forced flexion or extension in an anterior-posterior orientation (fall onto forehead)
**Type 2 is most common

162
Q

Describe the presentation of anterior cord syndrome

A
  1. paraplegia or quadriplegia

2. loss of lateral spinothalamic fxn w/ preservation of posterior column fxn

163
Q

Etiologies of UMN lesions

A
  1. CVA
  2. MS
  3. CP
  4. Brain/SC damage
164
Q

Most common presenting signs of multiple sclerosis

A
  1. optic neuritis

2. transverse myelitis

165
Q

Management of Pseudotumor Cerebri (Idiopathic intracranial HTN)

A
  1. Acetazolamide +/- Furosemide +/- short course steroids
166
Q

What is the most common etiology for a subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Ruptured aneurysm (80%)- usually berry at ACA

167
Q

What is Huntington’s disease?

A

Autosomal Dominant- trinucelotide repeats (CAG) on chromosome 4

  • neurotoxicity from mutation as well as cerebral, putamen, and caudate nucleus atrophy
168
Q

What are the functions of the Cerebellum

A
  1. Balance and coordination

2. Seat of motor control

169
Q

What is a Hangman’s Fracture and its MOI

A

aka C2/axis pedicle fracture

  • Traumatic bilateral fractures (sponylolysis) of the pedicles or pars interarticularis of the axis vertebra C2
  • may lead to spondylolisthesis btwn C2-C3

MOI: extreme hyperextension of skull, atlas and axis
**Dx w/ CT

170
Q

What dermatome is at the umbilicus

171
Q

Rapid involunatry jerky, uncontrolled, purposeless movements

172
Q

CN XI: ____ (S/M/B?)

Test by: ___

A

CN11, Accessory, M

Test: shoulder shrug, turn head from side to side

173
Q

What are the functions of the Occipital Lobe

A
  1. visual processing
174
Q

With SAH lower BP gradually with ___

A

Nicardipine**, Nimodipine, labetalol

175
Q

MC type of anterior circulation ischemic stroke

A

Middle Cerebral artery

*anterior cerebral artery less common 2%

176
Q

Injury to what nerve gives you a foot drop

A

Peroneal nerve injury

177
Q

3 Clinical manifestations of Guillain Barre Syndrome, most concerning complication

A
  1. SYMMETRIC Ascending weakness and sensory changes (paresthesisa)
  2. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
  3. Autonomic dysfunction: tachycardia, hypotension, HTN,
    * *complication: respiratory muscle weakness
178
Q

SE of Lamictal (lamotrigine)

A

Rash, SJS,

179
Q

What is an Essential Familial Tremor? how to diagnose?

A

*Benign
- Autosomal Dominant inherited disorder of unknown etiology
Dx of exclusion: use history, family history

180
Q

Describe the CSF in bacterial vs viral meningitis

A

bacterial meningitis: cloudy appearance, elevated protein, elevated WBCs (predominantely polymorphonuclear (PMN) leukocytes, LOW glucose

Viral: WBC ~1000/mL (predominately lymphocytes or monocytes), normal glucose and protein

181
Q

What is the first-line treatment for acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy variant of Guillain- Barre?

A

IV immunoglobulin

182
Q

CN VIII: ____ (S/M/B?)
Test by: ___
Abnormalities could mean: ___

A

CN8, acoustic, S
Test: hearing, weber and Rinne, Vestibular fxn w balance and proprioception
Abnormalities: Acoustic neuroma

183
Q

What is the most common finding in a person with a brain abscess?

A

Headache (69%)

184
Q

The following presentations are associated with what type of seizures?

  1. Cessation of breathing and incontinence:
  2. Loss of muscle tone and collapse to the ground:
  3. Loss of consciousness with focal motor or autonomic sx or subjective sensory or psychic sx that may precede, accompany or follow the period of altered responsiveness
  4. Focal motor, sensory, psychic and/or autonomiic sx but the patient does not lose consciousness
A
  1. Tonic-Clonic
  2. Atonic
  3. Complex partial seizures (focal seizure with LOC)
  4. Simple partial seizures (focal seizure w/o LOC)
185
Q

What does the limbic system include

A
  1. Thalamus
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Amygdala
  4. Hippocampus
186
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus

A
  1. learning/memory

2. converts short-term memory into longterm memory

187
Q

CN IV: ____ (S/M/B?)

Test by: ___

A

CN4: Trochlear: M
Test: Superior oblique rectus, EOM

188
Q

Cardinal s/s of Complex regional pain syndrome (AKA reflex sympathetic dystrophy)

A
  1. pain localized to an arm or leg
  2. swelling of the involved extremity
  3. disturbances of color and temp in the affected limb
  4. dystrophic changes in the overlying skin and nails
  5. limited ROM
  6. radiograph: generalized osteopenia or demineralization

*often preceded by direct trauma, often of relatively minor nature, to the soft tissues, bone or nerve

189
Q

CN XII: ____ (S/M/B?)

Test by: ___

A

CN12, hypoglossal, M

Test: tongue- look for fasciculations and asymmetry

190
Q

How do you diagnose Pseudotumor Cerebri (Idiopathic intracranial HTN)

A
  1. Papilledema
  2. CT to r/o mass
  3. LP w/ increased CSF pressure but otherwise normal
191
Q

What are signs of Wernicke-Korsakoff

A
  • vitamin B1 deficiency (thiamine)–> Commonly seen in chronic alcoholics
    1. Horizontal nystagmus
    2. opthalmoplegia
    3. ataxia
    3. Confusion
192
Q

What is the Corpus callosum

A

bundle of axons that connects the 2 hemispheres.

193
Q 
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Location:
MOI:
SX:
Dx:
A

Location: arterial bleed btwn arachnoid and pia
MOI: berry aneurysm rupture, AVM
SX: thunderclap HA (SUDDEN, MAXIMAL, DIFFERENT), meningeal signs, may have LOC/Syncope
CT w/o contrast FIRST: star shaped–>
if negative CT and no signs of papilledema, GET LP: xanthrochromia (yellow pink fluid due to RBC breakdown)
angiography GS

194
Q

CN IX: ____ (S/M/B?)

Test by: ___

A

CN9, glossopharyngeal, B

Test: M: swallow, gag S: taste, posterior 1/3 of tongue

195
Q

How do you diagnose Myasthenia Gravis

A

Initial test: + Acetylcholine receptor antibodies (get MuSK antibody test if ACH -)
EP studies: MOST accurate
CXR, CT or MRI: shows thymoma or thymus gland abnormality

Emergent setting:

1) . Edrophonium (Tensilon) Test: brief improvement in sxs
2) . Ice pack test: on eyelids for 10 min. —> improvement of ptosis in ocular MG

196
Q

Empiric ABX tx of bacterial meningitis

  1. <1 month yo
  2. 1 mon- 50y/o
  3. 50+/Immunocompromised/Chronic ETOH
A
  1. Ampicillin + Cefotaxime (Amp covers Listeria)
  2. Ceftriazone + Vancomycin
  3. Ampicillin + Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin
197
Q

Describe Anterior Cord Syndrome

A

“Because ANT COULDN’T WALK to the bathroom in the TeePee, he peed his pants when his bladder busted into FLECKS”

  • LE motor deficits
  • Loss of temp and Pain sensation (“TeePee”)
  • bladder dysfunction, LE involvement
  • Flexion compression injuries common mechanism
198
Q

What is the difference btwn partial (focal) and generalized seizures?
-examples of each?

A

Partial: confined to small area of brain- one hemisphere
ex. Simple and complex

Generalized: diffuse brain involvement- both hemispheres
Ex. Tonic-Clonic (grand mal), Absence (petit mal), myoclonus, atonic

199
Q

MC cause of bacterial meningitis in:

  1. <1 month
  2. 1month -10y/o
  3. 10-19 yo
  4. 19-50y/o
  5. 50+ or IC
A
  1. <1 month: GBS*, Listeria, E. Coli
  2. 1month - 10 yo: S. pneumo
    3) . 10-19 yo: N. meningitis* (associated w/ petechial rash)
    4) . 19-50 yo: S. pneumo*
  3. 50+, immunocompromised: Listeria monocytogenes
200
Q

How do you diagnose Huntington’s Disease?

A

clinical + family history + genetic confirmation
** CT scan: cerebral and caudate nucleus/putamen atrophy
PET scan: decreased glucose metabolism in those brain areas

201
Q

Sx of Serotonin syndrome

A
  1. AMS- agitation
  2. Autonomic instability: tachy, BP fluctuations
  3. Hyperthermia: fever
  4. Neurologic changes: tremor, HYPERreflexia, Myoclonus
202
Q

Sudden brief, sporadic involuntary jerking/twitching of 1 muscle or muscle group (not suppressible)

203
Q

Involuntary spasms, repetitive motions or abnormal voluntary movements

A

Dyskinesia

204
Q

acute, abrupt TRANSIENT confused state due to an identifiable cause (ex. meds, infections)

205
Q

Reye syndrome is typically develops ____.

A

post-influenza or URI

206
Q

what is Normal pressure Hydrocephalus and PP of it?

A

dilation of cerebral ventricles with NORMAL opening pressures on LP
-PP is unknown but thought to be due to impaired CSF absorption after CNS injury

207
Q

Spontaneous ICH is MC caused by ___ in ___

DX by ___

A

HTN especially in basal ganglia
*LOC

DX: noncontrast CT– do not perform LP if LCH is suspected!

208
Q

A pain syndrome disproportioned to injury with continuing pain that is disproportionate to any inciting event

Presentation:

  • Following trauma, injury
  • Extremity pain and at least 1 other sensory, motor, vasomotor, edema, sudomotor symptom
A

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

209
Q

Tx of Complex regional pain syndrome

A

**NSAIDS, PT/OT
Stage 1: Neurontin, Elavil and bisphosphonates
Stage 2: Add steroids
Stage 3: Include pain management specialist

210
Q

Tx of peripheral neuropathies

A
  1. Gabapentin, amitriptyline, Topiramate, tramadol, NSAIDs.

2. Glycemic control

211
Q

Hereditary neuropathy: Motor and sensory loss, loss of reflexes, hammer toes. “stork leg deformity”

A

Charcot-Marie-tooth

212
Q

treatment of SAH

A

Supportive: Pain control, antiseizure meds, antispasmotics (Nimodipine), antihypertensives (Nicardipine, Labetolol), ventricular shunt placement if hydrocephalus
Neurosurgery consult: endovascular coiling or surgical clipping of aneursym

213
Q

which type of stroke is most common? what is the biggest risk factor for both types of strokes?

A

ISCHEMIC- most common (2/3 thrombotic)

**HTN is biggest risk factor

214
Q

overall most common cause of ICH?

MC cause in elderly vs children?

A

overall: HTN
children: AV malformation
elderly: cerebral amyloid angiopathy (amyloid proteins build up in cerebral arteries)

215
Q

sxs of ICH

A

HA- blood build up

N/V, syncope, focal neuro findings, AMS

216
Q

management of ICH/hemorrhagic stroke

A

SUPPORTIVE:

1) . gradual BP reduction w IV Labetalol, Nicardipine (more important than ischemic)
2) . reduction of increased ICP: IV mannitol (shrinks brain) or hyperventilation (constricts BVs) VS surgical tx (ventricular shunt or craniotomy)
3) . prevention of increased ICP: HOB 30 degrees, NPO, fluid restriction, BP management, pain meds/sedation

217
Q

What is the ABCD2 score assessment used for? scoring system

A 
risk of stroke 3-90 days after a TIA
A- age > 60
B- BP > 140/90
C- clinical sxs (1 point slurred speech vs 2 for unilateral weakness)
D- duration (1 point > 10 mins vs 2 > 60 mins)
D- diabetes
0-3 = 3.1% 90 day risk
4-5 = 9.8% risk
6-7 = 17.8% risk
218
Q

clinical sxs/signs of meningitis

A

sxs: HA, neck stiffness, fever, photo sensitivity, N/V
* * may get AMS/seizures
signs: nuchal rigidity, Kernig sign, Brudzinski sign
* *sxs/signs are milder in viral

219
Q

what medication has been shown to reduce mortality and sequelae of S pneumo and N meningitidis?

A

dexamethasone

220
Q

tx for viral meningitis

A

supportive: antipyretics, fluids, and pain meds (can discharge home if stable)

221
Q

approach to diagnosis for encephalitis

A

usually CT done first to first out space occupying lesion
-LP performed after CT
MRI is preferred imaging (HSV shows temporal involvement)
PCR of CSF fluid is most accurate for HSV**

222
Q

tx for encephalitis

A

HSV- IV acyclovir plus supportive care

223
Q

what is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome ? and it is most often associated with?

A

antibodies against presynaptic VG Ca channels which prevents ACh release (leads to muscle weakness)
-associated with small cell lung cancer

224
Q

CP of LE syndrome

A

proximal muscle weakness that IMPROVES with repeated muscle use
dry mouth
hyporeflexia

225
Q

Dx and Tx of LE syndrome

A

Dx: VG Ca channel antobody assay, EP studies confirm, CT scan to assess underlying malignancy
Tx: tx underlying malignancy, 1st line med is pyridostigmine (2nd line: plasmaphoresis, IVIG)

226
Q

5 peripheral nerve disorders

A

1) . bell’s palsy
2) . Guillian barre syndrome
3) . myasthenia gravis
4) . LE syndrome
5) . peripheral neuropathy

227
Q

how to diagnose parkinson’s disease?

A

CLINICALLY
no imaging is needed
*can confirm with post mortem histology: “Lewy bodies” seen in substantia nigra

228
Q

restless leg syndrome is due to what?

A

usually idiopathic but can occur secondary to CNS iron deficiency

229
Q

what is AV malformation? what is it associated with? dx and tx

A

abnormal vascular circuit where arteries flow directly into veins without passing through capillary system -20-25% associated with aneurysm, seen in ICH in children

dx: MRI best test, angiography is GS
tx: neurosurgery referral

230
Q

acute management of TBI (5)

A
  • *neurosurgical ICU with frequent assessments
    1) . Prevention of hypoxia (PaO2 < 60) or hypotension = often leads to putting pt on mechanical ventilation
    2) . reduction of ICP: IV mannitol, HOB 30 degrees, hyperventilation (not within first 24-48 hrs tho)
  • *below 22 mmgHg
    3) . neurosurgical consult for surgery
    4) . antiseizure meds (keppra)
    5) . prevent fever or hyperglycemia
231
Q

what is a concussion? 4 groups of clinical manifestations? how to dx and tx?

A

mild brain injury usually due to blunt force trauma that leads to AMS with OR without LOC

  • CP: somatic sxs (HA, N/V, dizzy, vision changes), cognitive impairment (fog, delayed reaction time, confusion), amnesia of event or posttraumatic amnesia, emotional instability
  • Dx: clinical, normal CT scan (rule out bleed)
  • Tx: cognitive and physical rest, observe for at least first 24 hrs
  • *can resume activity after sxs resolution and recovery of memory/cognitive fxn
232
Q

what is post-concussive syndrome? CP? Dx? Tx?

A

sequelae of concussion where 3 or more sxs are still present 3 months after a concussion

  • CP: same as concussion (somatic sxs, cog impairment, emotional changes, amnesia)
  • Dx: clinical, normal imaging
  • Tx: rest and reassurance, maybe therapy
233
Q

what is delirium and what are common causes?

A

ABRUPT transient confused state due to an identifiable cause with fluctuating mental status and deficits in short-term memory
I-WATCH-DEATH: infectious, withdrawal, metabolic, trauma, CNS disease, hypoxia, deficiencies, endocrine, vascular, toxins, heavy metals
**usually fully recover within a few weeks and tx of cause

234
Q

what is cerebral palsy? how do you dx and tx this condition?

A

NON-PROGRESSIVE CNS disorder associated with 1). muscle tone 2). movement and 3). postural abnormalities
**due to brain injury during pre or perinatal period
spastic, dyskinetic, and ataxic types
hyporeflexive early stages of life and then turns to hyper

Dx: clinical but requires MRI in all patients

Tx: team approach, pain management
spasticity: baclofen, diazepam
anti-seizure meds

235
Q

what is the typical sxs progression for alzheimers?

A

ST memory loss (usually first symptom), progresses to LT memory loss and cognitive deficits (disorientation, behavior and personality changes, language difficulties)

236
Q

how do you diagnose alzheimers?

A

CLINICAL- extensive work-up to rule out other diseases/causes
MRI is preferred neuroimaging: temporal lobe atrophy, reduced hippocampal volume

histology findings: amyloid plaques, neurofibrillary tangles

237
Q

what is diffuse lewy body disease? common CP? what is seen on histology and tx?

A

progressive dementia characterized by DIFFUSE lewy body infiltration in brain (vs localized in parkinson’s)

  • CP: visual hallucinations, episodic delirium, Parkinsonism, autonomic dysfunction, dementia is late finding
  • histology: cortical lewy bodies
  • Tx: balance between tx parkinson’s sxs and neuropsych sxs (one might make the other worse)
238
Q

what is the definition of a partial seizure? what are the two categories of this? what CP might you find with one of these types?

A

abnormal neuronal discharge from one section of one hemisphere
A). simple: consciousness MAINTAINED
B). complex: consciousness IMPAIRED
**CP depends on area of brain affected but automatisms often found with complex (repetitive behaviors like lip smacking, facial grimace, chewing, coordinated movements)

239
Q

what is the definition of epilepsy?

A

2 unprovoked seizures 24 hours apart

*imbalance between excitatory and inhibitory NTs

240
Q

what are the two medications used to treat partial seizures?

A

carbamazepine or lamotrigine

241
Q

what is an absence seizure? how long do episodes last? what age is this typically diagnosed?

A

gneralized seizure with a pause/stare that marks sudden impairment of consciousness WITHOUT loss of body tone lasting 5-10 mins, can have oral automatisms
**usually diagnosed in childhood

242
Q

1st line treatment of absence seizures

A

ethosuximide

243
Q

6 types of generalized seizures and what characterizes them

A

1) . Tonic-Clonic (Grand mal): sudden LOC with TONIC activity followed by 1-2 mins of CLONIC activity followed by post-ictal state (can have incontinence)
2) . Tonic: LOC followed by rigidity
3) . Clonic: repetitive rhythmic jerking
4) . Myoclonic: sudden brief involuntary twitching (arrhythmic)
5) . atonic: sudden partial or complete loss of muscle and postural tone (rare, i.e. CP)
6) . absence

244
Q

what two labs can be elevated after a seziure?

A

prolactin and lactic acid

**could be used to rule out pseudoseizure

245
Q

medications used to treat generalized seizures

A

valproate (esp moyoclonic), lamitrigine, toprimate, carbamazepine (tonic-clonic), benzos (tonic clonic), phenobarbital

246
Q

what is status epilepticus?

A

single seizure lasting > 5 mins OR more than 1 seizure within a 5 min period with NO recovery between seizures
**can be any seizure type

247
Q

order of therapy for status epilepticus?

A

1) . BENZOs
2) . Phenytoin or Fosphenytoin if no response to benzos
3) . Phenobarbital if no response to 2nd line

248
Q

what nerve roots correspond to knee and ankle jerk reflex?

A

knee: L3-L4
ankle: S1-S2

249
Q

CP of trigeminal neuralgia

A

HA: brief, stabbing or shock like pain lasting seconds to mins in 2nd or 3rd division of trigeminal nerve
*worse with touch, chewing, brushing teeth, wind, movements
USUALLY ONE SIDED

250
Q

1st line tx for pseudotumor cerebri

A

acetazolamide- decreased CSF production

251
Q

what are astrocytomas and 4 types? common CP

A

tumor of astrocyte cells (glial cells of CNS that support endothelial cells of BBB, provide nutrition, repair brain post injury)
1). Pilocystic: most benign and localized, CHILDREN and young adults (cysts, rosenthal fibers seen on biopsy)
2). Diffuse
3). Anaplastic (tentacle projections on biopsy)
4). Glioblastoma multiforme: MOST COMMON PRIMARY BRAIN TUMOR, adults
**MC in frontal and temporal brain regions
CP: HA (worse in AM, wake pt up at night), focal deficits, seizures, signs of increased ICP (AMS, HA, papilledema)

252
Q

general tx of astrocytomas

A

SURGICAL EXCISION

+/- chemo/radiation

253
Q

what is a meningioma? common CP sxs? how to dx? how to tx?

A

benign, slow growing tumor which arises from meningeal arachnoid cells, sometimes dural reflections
CP: often AS but can get sxs due to compression/displacement of brain tissue (usually doesn’t invade brain parenchyma)
Dx: contrast MRI “enhancing, well defined lesion attached to dura
Psammoma bodies on histology
Tx: AS- observe if small, Sxs: surgical excision if possible

254
Q

2 types of glioblastoma

A

Primary (MC): adults over 50, arises new, most aggressive

secondary: adults under 45 yo, due to malignant progression from low grade astrocytoma (2 or 3)

255
Q

how to diagnose glioblastoma

A

MRI with contrast (initial test): ONE LESION of variable enhancement with central necrosis, irregular margins. may cross CC

256
Q

oligodendroglioma vs ependymoma

A

oligo: cell that makes up glial tissue of brain (support), found within cerebral hemispheres
epend: cells that line the ventricles and spinal column, MC in children, pseudorosettes on biopsy

257
Q

what three clinical findings make you suspicious for korsakoff syndrome?

A

1) . retrograde and anterograde amnesia with preserved remote, long term memory
2) . confabulation (filling in memory gaps with false information, unintentionally)
3) . lack of insight in context of chronic alcohol disorder

258
Q

three clinical features of wernicke syndrome?

A

1) . encephalopathy
2) . oculomotor dysfunction
3) . postural and gait ataxia

259
Q

what are some signs of fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

thin upper lip, short palpebral fissures (small eye openings), flattened philtrum (space between nose and mouth), sunken nasal bridge

PANCE - B (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions