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PANCE Flashcards

0
Q

philadelphia chromosome is pathognomonic of what type of leukemia

A

CML

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1
Q

Auer rods and Pancytopenia with circulating blast

A

AML

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2
Q

what type of lymphoma will most likely find epstein bar virus?

A

hodkins lymphoma

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3
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells =

A

= Hodgkins lymphoma

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4
Q

X-ray of the skull showing punched out lesions =

A

multiple myeloma

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5
Q

Thiazide diuretics is contraindicated in which patients?

A

Gout

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6
Q

what drugs can cause macular degeneration?

A

chloroquine or phenothazin

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7
Q

patient with strep pharyngitis allergic to penicillin, which abx?

A

Azithromycin

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8
Q

what is the name of a mass that develops in young adult following URI?

A

brachial cleft cyst -locateds away from the midline and anterior to the SCM

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9
Q

what is the treatment for oral trush?

A

nystatin or clotrimazole troches

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10
Q

what causes chronic otitits media?

A

P. aeuriginosa, H influenza, S. aureus

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11
Q

which type of conjuntivitis will present with pre-auricular lymphadenopathy?

A

viral conjunctivitis

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12
Q

what is the treatment for gonorrheae?

A

IM ceftriaxone or oral ceftixime

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13
Q

medications that causes ototoxicity?

A

aminoglycosides (gentamycin), loop diuretics, antineoplastic agents (cisplatin)

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14
Q

what is the treatment for aphthous ulcer?

A

liquid dihenhydramine
antacid
tetracycline
2% viscous xylocaine

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15
Q

what is the center criteria?

A

fever, tonsilar exudates, tender anterior lymphadenopathy, lack of cough

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16
Q

what is aphthous ulcer asssociated with ?

A

herper virus 6

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17
Q

what is the treatmement of aphthous ulcer?

A

liquid dihenhydramine
antacid
tetracycline
2% viscous xylocaine

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18
Q

what is prebyscus?

A

age related bilateral loss of high frequency hearing

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19
Q

what medication will help to relieve pain in the eye due to foreign object or substance?

A

proparocaine 0.5% opthalmic solution

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20
Q

sudden painless vision loss

cherry red stop on macula along with pallor to the retina, what is the DX?

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

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21
Q

what is the treatment for giant cell arhtritis?

A

high dose prednisone 60mg/day

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22
Q

characterized by blood and thunder fundus
mark hemmorrages
torturous vessel

A

central vein artery occlusion

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23
Q

what is cholesteatoma?

A

variety of chronic ottitis media
most common cause prolongerd eusthachian tube dysfunction with resultant chronic negative middle ear pressure that draws inward the upper flacid portion of the tympanic membrane

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24
Q

how do you monitored open angle glaucoma?

A

tonometry
gonioscopy
monitored dics to cup ration
visual field examination when monitoring

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25
Q

what is sialodenitis?

A

-acute bacterial mc s aureus
affect parotid or submandibular gland
acute swelling of the gland
increased pain and swelling with meals

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26
Q

tx for sialodenitis?

A

nafcillin

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27
Q

inclussion conjunctivitis fro chlamydial infection?

A

azithromycin 1g orally

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28
Q

what is herpes simplex keratitis?

A

causes acute ocular morbidity, virus colonizes trigeminal ganglion

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29
Q

positive D dimer is seen in

A

DIC

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30
Q

bite cells and heinz body are seen in this type of anemia

A

G6PD

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31
Q

should not eat fava beans

A

G6PD deficiency

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32
Q

t/f both hemophilia A&B are both x linked recessive

A

true

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33
Q

what is the main treatment acute management for anxiety?

A

SSRI-benzodiazepine (alprozalon or lorazepam)

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34
Q

what is the main treatment for the maintenace of anxiety?

A

benzodiazepine are tapered.

paroxetine is beneficial, fluoxetine, venlofaxine, sertraline

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35
Q

what is the treatment for schizoprenia?

A

serotonin and dopamine antagonist

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36
Q

what is clozapine and what is its side effect?

A

second line therapy to treat schizophrenia and can cause agranulocytosis

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37
Q

what is the difference between schizophenicform disorder and schizphrenia?

A

Schizophrenicform disorder last about 1-6 months

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38
Q

what is the treatment for body dysmorphic disorder?

A

serotonin modulator blocks (fluozetine, clomipraine), SSRI @ higher doses -treat for 10-12 weeks

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39
Q

when does pospartum depression occur and what is the tx?

A

4 weeks after delivery and tx is SSRI-sertraline and also hormone therapy might help

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40
Q

what should a patient be aware when started on MAOIs?

A

a tyramine free diet (no wine, beer, almost all cheeses, smoked meats , aged foods) to avoid side effects.

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41
Q

what is a side effect of MAOI when patient consumes foods containing tyramine?

A

hypertensive crisis

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42
Q

what is the treatment for mood disorder?

A

SSRI (fluoxetine, paraxetine, sertraline)

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43
Q

what is the treatment for atypical depression?

A

MAOIs

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44
Q

what is serotonin syndrome?

A

when MAOI are used with SSRI

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45
Q

what is the treatment for bipolar disorder?

A

acute mania: lithium, antipsychotics, benzos, antisz

commonly lithium or valproate + antipsych

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46
Q

describe the different personality disorder clusters?

A

cluster A: mad
cluster B: Bad
Cluster C: Sad

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47
Q

what makes up cluster A?

A

paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal

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48
Q

what are the types of cluster B personality disorder?

A

Histrionic, Narcissistic, Borderline, Antisocial

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49
Q

what are the subtypes of cluster C?

A

avoidant
dependent
obsessive-compulsive

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50
Q

causes measles

A

paromyxovirus

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51
Q

causes rubella

A

togavirus??

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52
Q

causes foot hand mouth disease

A

coxsakie virus A16

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53
Q

causes erythema infectiousum

A

parvovirus b19

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54
Q

causes roseola infantum

A

HHV6 or 7

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55
Q

HIV, deep, purple, papular lessions

A

kaposi’s sarcoma

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56
Q

lession> 6mm

A

possible malignant melanoma

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57
Q

precursor of squames cell carcinoma

A

actinic keratosis

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58
Q

rouleaux formation seen

A

mutliple myeloma

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59
Q

autopsy of rabies shows

A

negri bodies

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60
Q

autops on alzeimers shows

A

neurofibrillary tangles

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61
Q

periventricular plaques is associated with

A

multiple sclerosis

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62
Q

slapped check

A

erythema infectosum

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63
Q

high fever then rash (starts on trunk spreads to face and extremeties)

A

Roseola

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64
Q

diagnostic test for malaria

A

peripheral blood smear with Giensa

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65
Q

coryza, cough, conjunctivities, koplik spots

A

measles-rubella

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66
Q

what is the drug of choice for cases of MRSA?

A

bactrum

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67
Q

what is herald patch?

A

salmon color -papular rash seen in pityriasis roseasea

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68
Q

what is the treatment of choice for urticaria caused by ABX

A

hydroxizine

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69
Q

what leukemia will present with Aeur rods?

A

AML

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70
Q

leukemia with CNS involvement

A

ALL

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71
Q

which leukemia will present with smudge cells

A

CLL

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72
Q

treatment for hemophilia IX

A

desmopresin

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73
Q

positive philadelphia chromosome seen in

A

CML

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74
Q

reed sterberg cells

A

hodkins lymphoma

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75
Q

howell-jolly bodies seen in

A

macrocytic anemia

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76
Q

ABX m/c to cause GERD

A

tetracycline

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77
Q

infectious esophagitis endoscopy with deep ulcers

A

CMV or HIV

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78
Q

infectious esophagitis with shallow ulcers agent

A

HSV

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79
Q

best initial test to visualized lession in esophagial neoplasm

A

biphasic barium esophagram

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80
Q

what is Budd Chiari syndrome?

A

may cause thrombosis of the portal vein leading to esophagial varices

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81
Q

treatment for h pilory

A

PPI+clarithromicin( or metronidazole) +amoxicillin or

Bismuth subsalicylate tetracycline + metronidazole+ PPI

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82
Q

what is prophylaxis treatment for h pylori

A

misoprostol or ppi

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83
Q

DX for ZES

A

secretin test 2 u/kg

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84
Q

tx for clostridium difficile

A

metronidazole, vancomycin, fidoxamicin

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85
Q

dx test for malabsorption

A

72 hrs fecal fat test

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86
Q

diagnostic test to distinguish between malabsorption from mladigestion (e.g pancreatic insufficiency)

A

D Xylose test

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87
Q

diagnostic test for celiac

A

IgA antiendothelial (EMA) antitissue transglutaminase ( Anti-TTG)

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88
Q

how is the dx confirmed in celiac

A

small bowel biopsy

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89
Q

what is the treatment for refractory case of celiac

A

prednisone

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90
Q

what is the treatment for chrons disease

A

prednisone for acute attacks with or w/o amino salicylates

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91
Q

tx for perianal disease in chrons

A

metrinadazole or cipro

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92
Q

best tx for maintanence of Chrons

A

mesalamine

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93
Q

TX for refractory cases of Crohn’s

A

infliximab

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94
Q

the tx for UC

A

total protecolectomy

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95
Q

currant jelly stool, sausage mass

A

intessuception

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96
Q

anal fissure is most likely location

A

posterior midlne

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97
Q

courvoiseur sign

A

jaundice and palpable gall bladder indicating pancreatic neoplasm

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98
Q

test to confirm dx of cholecysitis

A

HIDA scan

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99
Q

test to identify cause, location, extent of biliary obstruction

A

ERCP

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100
Q

Anti-HAV

A

onset of Hepatitis

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101
Q

HAV-IgG

A

resolved disease

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102
Q

HBs-AG

A

ongoin infection

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103
Q

Anti-HBs-

A

immunity due to past infection

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104
Q

anti-HBc

A

immunizatino or acute

c=core

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105
Q

HbeAG

e=envelope

A

active and contagious

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106
Q

anti-HBe

A

lower viral titer

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107
Q

HBsAG=

A

carrier or chronic infection

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108
Q

possible cause of liver abcess

A

entomoeba histolytica or coliform

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109
Q

direct hernia

A

hesselback triangle, no scrotum

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110
Q

indirect hernia

A

internal inguinal ring and scrotum

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111
Q

treatment for pyloric stenosis

A

riboflavin

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112
Q

failure to pass mecomiun first 48hrs what is the DD?

A

hirshsprings

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113
Q

cryptococcus causes & TX

A

fungal meningitis,amphoterecin B plus flucystosis

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114
Q

test for lyme disease

A

elisa

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115
Q

tx for lyme disease

A

IV ceftriaxone

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116
Q

boxer’s fracture to the mouth , treat for what organism?

A

Eikenella corrodens-organism specific to human mouth

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117
Q

gamekeeper’s thumb

A

sprain or tear of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb

118
Q

compression of the median nerve

A

carpal tunnel

119
Q

tennis elbow

A

lateral epicondylitis

120
Q

golfer’s elbow

A

medial epicondylitis

121
Q

dequervains thumb

A

overuse repetitive gripping

+ Finkestein test

122
Q

posterior fat pad

A

radial fracture

123
Q

septic bursitis mc organism

A

S. aureus

124
Q

mc complication of scaphoid fracture

A

avascular necrosis and non union

125
Q

what affected joint is required for diagnosis of ankylosis spondylitis

A

SI joint

126
Q

what are other associated symptoms with ankylosing spondylitis

A

anterior uveitis, aortic insufficiency and 3rd degree heart block

127
Q

what is found on AS in labs?

A

increase ESR

128
Q

what is the treatment for AS

A

indomethacin #1

TNF

129
Q

convex curvature of the thoracic spine

A

kyphosis

130
Q

Scheuermann’s Disease

A

fixed kyphosis develops at the time of puberty

131
Q

what are the x ray findings of Scheuermann’s disease

A

vertebrae wedging
end plate irregularity
Schmori’s nodules between T2 and T12

132
Q

what is the most common scoliosis curvature

A

right thoracic turn

133
Q

corveseur sign

A

seen in pancreatic cancer

palpable non tender gallbladder

134
Q

triangle of callot

A

inferior border of the liver,cystic duct, common hepatic duct

135
Q

treatment for H pilory

A

omeprazole + amoxicillin+clarithromicin
or
bismuth subcitrate+metronidazole+tetracycline+omeprazole

136
Q

intessuception treatment

A

air enema

137
Q

pyloric stenosis dx test

A

barium swallow, upper gi series

olive mass, string sign

138
Q

exam findings associatedw with appendicities

A 
Rovsing
mckburneys
psoas
obturator 
blumberg (rebound tenderness)
139
Q

histology findings of alcoholic hepatitis

A

mallory bodies

140
Q

shigella infection tx

A

fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin, ciprofloxacin)

141
Q

complication of acute pancreatitis

A

pseudocyst

142
Q

diarrhea, dermatitis,dementia which vitamin deficiency

A

niacin=pellagra

niacin is b3 or should we say D3 se le pellagra la piel

143
Q

ulcerative coltis

A

bloody diarhhea lost of haustral markings

144
Q

positive drop arm test suggest

A

rotator cuff tear

145
Q

what is the hawkins test for?

A

to evaluate impingement/bursitis

146
Q

what test suggest inferior instability of the glenohumeral joint?

A

sulcus sign

147
Q

what test is perform to evaluate anterior instability

A

apprehension test

148
Q

what is the treatment for gameskeeper aka (skier thumb )

A

injury to the ulnar collateral ligament -immobilization for 4-6 weeks

149
Q

what is the test is MOST SPECIFIC for detecting Sjondre syndrome?

A

anti-la test

150
Q

what is the lab test used for the dx of scleroderma?

A

anti centromere antibody test

151
Q

what nerve is associated with medical epicondylitis?

A

ulnar nerve

152
Q

what are the findings of polyARTthritis Nodosa?

A

constitutional symptoms fever, anorexia, weight loss, palpable purpura , livido reticularis
related to hepatitis B

153
Q

ANCA positive plus lungs and kidney findings suggest?

A

wegener’s granulomatosis

mr. WEGer is my ANCle

154
Q

what is the hallmark of herniated disk disease

A

sciatica

155
Q

what is the most SPECIFIC test to detect SLE?

A

anti-double stranded DNA

156
Q

what vitamin deficiency is seen in cystic fibrosis?

A

vitamin A due to deficiency in fat soluble vitamins

157
Q

diagnostic test to confirm polyarteritis nodosa

A

blood vessel biopsy

158
Q

diagnostic test for polymyosistis

A

muscle biopsy

159
Q

most common side effect of methotrexate

A

stomatitis/gastritis

160
Q

what is the presentation of a patient with Ehlers Danlos syndrome?

A

type 1 varient, velvety skin, hyperflexibility of the joints, MVP

161
Q

condition that presents with muscle weakness in upper leg muscles and hip girdle in young boy and elevated CPK and creatine

A

duchenne muscular dystrophy

162
Q

what structure it is damage in gamekeeper’s thumb.

A

the ulnal collateral ligament which causes laxity when moving the thumg into abduction

163
Q

vitamin recomendation for risk of osteoporosis

A

calcium 1200-1500 mg

vitamin D 800-1000u

164
Q

what is the most common pathogen to cause osteomylitis

A

pseudomonas

165
Q

what is the treatment for Ankylosis spondylitis

A

indomethacin/ NSAID

166
Q

valgus testing it is for which ligament?

A

MCL

167
Q

where is the pain felt most in polymyalgia rheumatica

A

girdle -

168
Q

what lab is elevated in polymyalgia rheumatica

A

C reactive protein

169
Q

describe each single Salter fracture

A 
1=S=simple
2=A=above
3=L=lower
4=T=Through
5=E=egads!!
170
Q

what location will most likely indicate morton’s neuroma

A

3rd and 4th digit fracture of foot

171
Q

what is flinklesten’s test

A

evaluates wrist pain due to De Quervans’ tensynovitis

172
Q

laxity with valgus stress testing

A

MCL

173
Q

laxity with varus stress testing

A

LCL

174
Q

mc sites of herniated disc

A

L4-5

L5-S1

175
Q

the 5ps of compartemtn syndrome

A 
pulseness
parasthesias
paralysis
pallor
poikilothermia
176
Q

what is the treatment for epididymitis and mc agent

A

cipro, ecoli

177
Q

negative prehn’s sign

A

testicular torsion

178
Q

positive prehn’s sign

A

epididymitis

179
Q

mc electrolyte abnormality in hospitalized patient

A

hyponatremia

180
Q

acute bacterial prostatitis treatment

A

bactrum (TMX-sulfa)

fluoroquinolones (cipro)

181
Q

delta waves in ECG

A

WPW

182
Q

HTN treatment in pregnancy

A

hydralazine

183
Q

hyperkalemia findings in EKG

hypokalemia findings in EKG

A

peaked T waves

broad flat T waves

184
Q

hypercalcemia findings in EKG

hyppcalcemia findings in EKG

A

shortened QT waves

prolonged QT interval

185
Q

treatment for priapism

A

phenylephrine

186
Q

tx for gonorrhea

A

ceftriaxone

187
Q

tx for chlamydia

A

doxycline or azythromycin

188
Q

which testicular problem translumilates

A

hydrocele

189
Q

DIP joints nodules

A

henderben

190
Q

pip joints nodules

A

bouchards

191
Q

what is the tetrad for reactive arthritis

A

urethritis, conjunctivitis, oligoarthritis, mucosal ulcer

192
Q

diagnostic test for scleroderma

A

anti-centromere antibody

193
Q

test for achiles tendon rupture

A

thompson test

194
Q

wrist drop is due to what nerve injury

A

radial nerve

195
Q

what psych medication can cause agranulocytosis

A

clozapine

196
Q

cryptococcosis tx

A

amphoterecin B plus fleucytosin for CNS infection

197
Q

treatment for ascities

A

spironolactone 100 mg qd

198
Q

where is most likely to find direct hernia

A

hesselback triangle does NOT go to scrotum

199
Q

agent that can cause liver abcess

A

entamoeba histolytica or coliform

200
Q

diagnostic test for malabsorption

A

72 hrs fecal fat test

201
Q

what test do you do to distinguish malabsorption for pancreatic insufficiency

A

D xylose test

202
Q

pleural coin lession

A

hartoma

203
Q

diagnostic test for syphilis

A

VRDL

204
Q

what do you use for identification of post streptococcal glomeruloneprhitis

A

anti-DNAse B serology

205
Q

treatmant for tension hemothrorax

A

large bore needle

206
Q

do not give fava beans to

A

G6pd deficiency

207
Q

bite cells and heinz bodies seen in

A

G6PD

208
Q

what are lab findings of hepatic encephalopathy and the treatment

A

increase levels of NH3 and tx is lactulose

209
Q

what medication is not indicated in the treatment of corneal abrassion?

A

topical antihistamine e.g =olapatadine

210
Q

t/f extraocular muscle are affected in periorbital cellulits

A

false. extraocular movement likely to be intact

211
Q

m/c causative agent of meningitis in neonate

A

group B strep- (screning done in pregnant women)

212
Q

dilated tortuous vein, blood and thunder fundus vitrous hemorrages

A

central retinal vein occlusion

213
Q

bone conduction > air conduction

louder sound in affected ear (weber lateralized to affected ear)

A

conductive hearing loss

214
Q

air conduction> bone conduction

sound louder in better ear (weber lateralises to unaffected ear)

A

sensory hearing loss

215
Q

what is the treatment for optic neuritis?

A

3 day course of iv methylprednisone followed by an oral taper

216
Q

pale retina and cherry red spot on fundoscopy

A

central retinal artery occlusion

217
Q

difference between dacroadenytis and dacrocystitis

A 
dacroadenitis= inflammation/ infection of lacrimal gland (eyelid area )
dacrocystitis= acute infection of the NASOlacrimal gland( nose area)
218
Q

steamy cornea, fixed mid dilated pupil, crescent shadow

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

219
Q

neovascularization is a fundoscopic finding of

A

diabetic retinopathy

220
Q

treatment for trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureax)

A

carbamazepine

221
Q

age related hearing bilateral hearing loss of high frequeancy hearing and decrease word recognition

A

prebyscusis

222
Q

what other medication spiranolactone should NOT be combined for possible cause of death?

A

oral potasium as it could cause hyperkalemia and die

223
Q

what are digoxin side effects?

A

dizziness, headaches, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, weakness, palpitations, and change in vision with yelowish to blue tint to the vision

224
Q

what are side effect of allopurinol?

A

rash and fever

225
Q

what are the side effect of hydralazine?

A

it is a vasodilator use to treat hypertention and SE are takycardia, headache, nausea, lupus like syndrome

226
Q

what is the side effect of spironolactone?

A

hyperkalemia and gynecomastia

227
Q

a genetic defect in fibrillin gene

A

marfan syndrome

228
Q

genetic defect in collagen characterized by joint laxity and hypertensibility

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

229
Q

major and minor criteria for rheumatic fever

A 
Jones fear No1
J=joints=polyarthritis migrator 
O=shape heart =carditis =new onset murmur
N=nodules=subcutaneous,extensor surface
E=erythema marginatum
S=sydenham's chorea
F=fever
E=ESR raised CRP increased
A=arthralgia
R=rheumatic fever
No-1=1st degree heart block on ECG/PR interval prolonged

must have 2 major or 1 major 2 minor

230
Q

tx for patient with hypotention and bradycardia

A

atropine

231
Q

what medication should be discontinued in torsade de pointes

A

amiodorone could cause ST segment elevation

232
Q

treatment for hypertensive emergency

A

labetalol- it is a combined alpha and beta blocker and will decrease systemic vascular resistence

233
Q

High speed Motor vehicle accident with chest pain and back pain

A

Aortic dissection

234
Q

Crescendo decresendo murmur heard best at the right second intercostal space and radiates to the carotids

A

Aortic stenosis

235
Q

Suspected ingestion of antifreeze , what should be the DX of choice ?

A

Evaluate the urine under woods lamp for fluorescense

236
Q

Triad of ptosis,miosis,and anhydrosis in smoker patient

A

Horner syndrome -lung cancer

237
Q

Medication used for benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumazenil ( romazicon)

238
Q

Medication used in opiod detoxification

A

Naltrexone ( revia)

239
Q

Type ii hypersensitive reaction

A

Myasthenia gravis

240
Q

Painless obstructive jaundice and weight loss

A

Pancreatic adenoma

241
Q

Anti-DNA topoisomerase I ( anti-Scl-70)

A

Scleroderma

242
Q

Mc type of cancer in smoker

A

Squamos cell carcinoma

243
Q

Mc lung cancer in nonsmoker

A

Bronchogenic adenocarcinoma

244
Q

Having mechanical ventilation with positive pressure increases the risk of what ?

A

Pneumothorax

245
Q

IgM anti-HBc indicates

A

Actively infected with hepatitis B

246
Q

Alcoholic presenting with dementia,ataxia, ophtalmoplegia

A

Wernicke encephalopathy

Due to thiamine deficiency

247
Q

Peripheral neuropathy,memory loss, paresthesia, gait disturbance ,and glossitis what is the deficiency ?

A

Vitamin b12

248
Q

Patient on long term of isoniazid , what vitamin deficiency

A

B6, pyridoxine - presents with peripheral neuropathy

Need to give pyridoxine supplementation

249
Q

Acetomenaphen poisoning treatment

A

N acetylcysteine

250
Q

Salicylates toxicity tx

A

Gastric lavage with airway protection
Give activated charcoal
Intravenous bicarbonate and aggressive IV fluids

251
Q

Tx for ulcerative colitis

A

Mesalamine ( asacol,pestasa)

252
Q

Treatment of choice for stress incontinence

A

Urethrocystometry

253
Q

Chronic tension headache treatment

A

Tricyclic antidepressant eg amitriptyline

254
Q

What is fat embolism?

A

History of trauma to long bones ,respiratory insufficiency,neurologic impairment ,petechial rash over the upper body

255
Q

What does HBeAG indicates

A

Patient does not have active replication at this time

256
Q

Which medication could cause torsades de pointes and should be discontinued ?

A

Amiodarone ( cordarone)

Causes prolongation of the QT interval

257
Q

What is the complications of long term corticosteroid use?

A

Osteopenia with vertebral compression factors , give oral calcium,vitamin d,and biphosphonate

258
Q

What are the changes in blood gases during barbiturate overdose ?

A

Causes respiratory depression resulting in carbon dioxide retention and hypoxemia
Low pO2, high pCO2=’respiratory acidosis
Barbituates are sedative

259
Q

What is the initial test that should be performed when lupus is suspected?

A

Antinuclear antibody

260
Q

Vitamin deficiency with poor wound healing?

A

Scurvy vitamin C deficiency . It presents with poor wound healing,show petechia,bleeding gums and loose teeth

261
Q

Virchow triad

A

Venous stasis, hypercoagulability, vascular injury

262
Q

Ptosis,miosis,anhydrosis, dilated vein necks related to respiratory tumor

A

Pancoast tumor presenting with horners syndrome

263
Q

What is schwachmans disease

A

Hereditary cause of chronic pancreatitis

264
Q

Mallory bodies in histology of liver indicates

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

265
Q

Contraindications to anticoagulation therapy

A

Hx of ULcers, positive hemoccult test,resent surgery, HX of hemorrhagic stroke, significant active or known bleeding

266
Q

Diagnostic test for delta waves on ecg?

A

Electrophysiology study

267
Q

Hirschprungs disease dx test

A

Rectal biopsy

268
Q

Foot drop due to which affected nerve

A

Deep peroneal

269
Q

Triamterene could most likely cause this complications

A

Hyperkalemia - it is a potasium sparing diuretic

270
Q

Where do you find pseudo polyps? Chrons or UC

A

UC

271
Q

Bowell wall thickening and transmutation lession, cobblestone appearence mucosa

A

Chrons

272
Q

Complication of long term use of corticosteroids

A

Osteopenia

273
Q

Hypertensive emergency diastolic pressure

A

Greater than 130

274
Q

What additional supplementation might be need it for patients taking thiazide diuretics

A

Potassium supplementation

275
Q

Treatment for aortic disection

A

Nitroprusside,b blocker labetalol or esmolol and urgent surgery

276
Q

Treatment for hypertention in setting of acute renAl failure

A

Fenoldopam

277
Q

What is the role in atherosclerosis ?

A

Inflamation and elevation of c reactive protein

278
Q

What are the three common patterns of UA?

A

Angina at rest (m/c)
New onset of angina symptoms
Incresing pattern of pain in previously stable patients

279
Q

What is considered a positive stress test?

A

St depression of 1mm (0.1mV)

280
Q

What is the definitive diagnostic procedure for angina?

A

Coronar you angiography and should be use selectively because of cost and invasive ness

281
Q

What septal defect is common in Down syndrome ?

A

AV septal defect

282
Q

What is holiday heart?

A

A fib cause by excessive alcohol use or withdrawal

283
Q

Treatment of unstable bradycardia

A

Vagolytic = atropine

Or Positive chronotropic =epinephrine or dopamine

284
Q

Medical Treatment for psvt

A

Adenosine IV push

285
Q

Preferred Treatment for chronic atrial flutter

A

Dofetilide

286
Q

What is it called the condition of Erectile disfunction due to PAD in ileac artery?

A

Leriche syndrome

287
Q

What is the first line of treatment for raynauds phenomenom

A

CCB ege nifedipine

288
Q

When would you use inplantable cardioverter defibrillator in patient with CHF ?

A

When EF is less than 35

289
Q

What is the most common symptom of tb?

A

Cough

290
Q

What is the cornerstone of DX for pneumocystic jiroveci ?

A

CXR with diffuse and perihilar infiltrate no effusions seen

291
Q

Pneumonia with lactase dehydrogenase and bilateral interstitial infiltrates ?

A

Pneumocystic jeruvici tx is bactrum

292
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis of lung cancer ?

A

Cytologic examination of the sputum

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