PANCE :0 Flashcards

1
Q

What ID causes parotid tenderness & edema?

A

Mumps

Supportive Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What ID causes hydrophobia?

A

Rabies

Postexposure rabies IG, 5 shots HDCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What ID has a fever that rashes?

A

Roseola
HHV6
Supportive Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which HPV strains cause CA?

A

16 & 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which HPV strains are covered by Gardisil?

A

6, 11, 16 & 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Koplik Spots?

A

Measles

Supportive Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tissue Bx shows Owl’s eye?

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What kind of LAD does Mono cause?

A

Posterior cervical LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What ID has a slapped cheek appearance that turns into a lacy rash?

A

Erythema infectiosum/Fifth disease

Supportive Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What organism is syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum - spirochete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What organism is Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Rickettsia rickettsi

MC eastern US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What organism is Lyme disease?

A

Boerrelia Burgdoferi from Ixodes tick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is malaria transmitted and what stain is used for Dx?

A

Anopheles mosquito

Giemsa/Wright stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What ID causes pea soup diarrhea & what is the Tx?

A

Enteric/typhoid fever - salmonellosis

Tx - ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vag culture shows gram - intracellular diplococci, what do you suspect & what is the Tx?

A

Gonorrhea

Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What ID has a grey membrane that covers the inside of the mouth?

A

Diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What ID has a grey membrane that covers the inside of the mouth?

A

Diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which valve is MC involved with rheumatic fever?

A

Mitral

Tx - penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why can’t you give infants honey?

A

Botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What ID causes rice water diarrhea & Tx?

A

Cholera

Tx - Tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What common ADR does ethambutol cause?

A

For TB

Optic neuritis - red/green vision loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What ID is endemic in OH & MS river valleys?

A

Histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cottage cheese vag d/c, how do you dx?

A

Candidiasis

KOH prep shows pseudohyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do you Dx myasthenia gravis & Tx?

A

Enrophonium

CXR to r/o thymoma

Tx - pyridostigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is ruptured with epidural hematoma & what is on CT?

A

Middle meningeal artery

“talk then die”

CT - convex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is torn with subdural hematoma & what is on CT?

A

Bridging veins

CT - crescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is ruptured with SAH?

A

Berry aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is Huntington’s transmitted?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is essential tremor transmitted?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most severe bleeding disorder?

A

Hemophilia A

Dec. Factor 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is hemophilia transmitted?

A

X-linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Christmas disease?

A

Hemophilia B

Dec. Factor 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is Factor XI deficiency transmitted?

A

Autosomal recessive

Common in Ashkenazi jews

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the MC bleeding disorder?

A

Von Willebrand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is Von Willebrand transmitted?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What hereditary bleeding disorder presents with an increased bleeding time?

A

Von Willebrand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What hereditary bleeding disorder presents with an increased PTT?

A

Hemophilias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Bence Jones proteins are seen with?

A

Multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pt has painless LAD that is painful with EtOH, what is seen on Bx?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Reed-Sternberg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What disease shows a philadelphia chromosome?

A

CML

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which CA affects B-lymphocytes?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which CA shows Auer rods?

A

AML

Acute Myeloid Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What leukemia is MC in kiddos?

A

ALL

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is sickle cell transmitted & how is it Dx?

A

Autosomal recessive

Electrophoresis - Hgb S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is thalassemia Dx?

A

Hgb electrophoresis

A is fine, B = bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the MCC anemia?

A

Iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the MCC GI bleed?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenate deficiency transmitted?

A

X-linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the MC type of thyroid CA?

A

papillary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do you Dx Addison’s disease?

A

Cosyntropin stimulation test

Low Na, low Gc
High K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do you treat subacute thyroiditis?

A

aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What disease presents with stones, bones, abdominal roans, psychic moans with fatigue overtones?

A

Hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Beck;s triad and what disease is it for?

A

Cardiac tamponade

  1. HOTN
  2. Distended neck veins
  3. Muffled heart sounds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What should you suspect if an EKG shows electrical alternans?

A

Cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What should you suspect if you see pulsus paradoxus?

A

Pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What disease is characterized by pleuritic CP relieved by sitting forward?

A

Pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which valve is usually affected in an IVDU with endocarditis?

A

Tricuspid

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

You auscultate a mid-systolic click, what do you suspect?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

You auscultate a pansystolic murmur radiating to the axilla, what do you suspect?

A

Mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

You auscultate a S2 then opening snap, what do you suspect?

A

Mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

You auscultate a harsh systolic murmur radiating to the neck, what do you suspect?

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Patient presents with jaw claudication, what do you suspect & what disease is common with this?

A

Giant cell arteritis

Polymyalgia rheumatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Describe Type A vs. B aortic dissections

A

A - above aortic arch, need surgery

B - below, medical mgmt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which are the inferior leads?

A

II, III, aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which are the posterior leads?

A

V1, V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which are the anterior leads?

A

V1, V2, V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which are the anterolateral leads?

A

V4, V5, V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which cardiac enzyme is more sensitive to an MI?

A

Troponins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which cardiac enzyme is better to assess reinfarction?

A

CK-MB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which cardiac enzyme is better to assess reinfarction?

A

CK-MB

71
Q

What is the MC congenital heart defect?

A

Ventricular septal defect

72
Q

What is seen with tetralogy of fallot?

A
  1. Pulm stenosis
  2. RV hypertrophy
  3. Overriding aorta
  4. VSD
73
Q

You auscultate a harsh, continuous machine murmur in a kiddo, what do you suspect & Tx?

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosis

Indomethacin

74
Q

You auscultate afixed split S2 in a kiddo, what do you suspect & Tx?

A

Atrial septal defect

Surgery

75
Q

Kid is HTN & has dminished femoral pulses, whatchya thinkin & Tx?

A

Coarctation of aorta

Prostaglandins w.in 4 days of birth

76
Q

ACLS Tx VFib/Tach?1

A
  1. Shock
  2. Epi 1mg q3-5min
  3. Shock
  4. Amiodarone 500mg then 150mg
77
Q

ACLS Tx PSVT?

A

Adenosine 6, 12, 12

78
Q

Pt has oppositional defiant disorder, what disorder might it turn into?

A

Conduct disorder

79
Q

Define globus hystericus

A

Feel like csomething is in your throat ut there isn’t

80
Q

Define neologism

A

Made up words/phrases

81
Q

Define verbigeration

A

Repeition of senseless words/phrases

82
Q

What disorder displays schizophrenia type symptoms but

A

Schizophreniform

83
Q

Define ideas of refernce

A

Beliefs or perceptions that irrelevant, unrelated or innocuousthings in the world are referring to them directly or have special personal significance

84
Q

Define ideas of refernce

A

Beliefs or perceptions that irrelevant, unrelated or innocuousthings in the world are referring to them directly or have special personal significance

85
Q

Pt has antisocial personality disorder, what disorder might they have had as a kiddo?

A

Conduct disorder

86
Q

What is the MC mental disorder?

A

Phobias

87
Q

Define Light’s criteria

A

Transudate vs. exudate

Exudate if
1. Pleural fluid protein to serum protein >0.5
2, PF LDH to S LDH >0.6
3. PF LDH >2/3 ULN S LDH

88
Q

How is Cystic fibrosis transmitted & what do you see on PFT?

A

Autosomal recessive

Mixed obstructive restrictive pattern

Elevated sweat chloride levels

89
Q

Xray shows steeple sign, what do you think & how do you treat it?

A

Croup

Steroids, humidifed O2 & epi

90
Q

Xray shows thumbprint sign, what is it?

A

Epiglottitis

91
Q

Describe Galeazzi maneuver

A

Flex knee so heels on table

Shortened thigh = dislocation

92
Q

Describe Barlow maneuver

A

Adduct hip & push posteriorly

Pop = dysplasia

-dislocates hip

93
Q

Describe Ortolani maneuver

A

Abduct hip
Feel reduction

  • puts hip back in place
94
Q

What does Lachman’s test for?

A

ACL injury

95
Q

What does Thompson test for?

A

Achilles tendon rupture

96
Q

What does McMurray test for?

A

Valgus - medial meniscal tear

Varus - lateral meniscal tear

97
Q

What is the MC meniscal injury?

A

Medial

98
Q

Who commonly gets SCFE & how do you test for it?

A

Fat, black boys

Frog-leg view

99
Q

Who commonly gets ankylosing spondylitis & what will you see on Xray?

A

MC men 30-40y/o

Bamboo spine

100
Q

What tendons are involved in DeQuervians tenosynovitis?

A

Abductor pollicus longus
Extensor pollicis brevis

Test by Finkelsteins

101
Q

What ligament is affected with Nursemaid’s elbow?

A

Annular ligament

102
Q

What ligament is affected with Nursemaid’s elbow?

A

Annular ligament

103
Q

What tendon is involved with lateral epicondylitis & what sport usually causes it?

A

Extensor carpi radialis brevis

Tennis elbow

104
Q

What tendon is involved with medial epicondylitis & what sport usually causes it?

A

Flexor-pronator muscles

Golfer’s elbow

105
Q

Describe a Colle’s fracture

A

Distal radius Fx w/ dorsal angulation

MC injury of the wrist

106
Q

What ligament is involved with Gamekeeper’s thumb?

A

Ulnar collateral ligament

107
Q

Describe a Hills-Sachs lesion

A

Posterolateral humeral head Fx

108
Q

Describe a Bankhart’s lesion

A

Tear of glenoid labruno

109
Q

Describe a Bankhart’s lesion

A

Tear of glenoid labruno

110
Q

What type of osteomyelitis do Sickle cell patients get?

A

Salmonella

111
Q

Describe CREST syndrome

A
Calcinosis
Raynauds
Esophageal dysfunction
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasias
112
Q

What type of crystals are aspirated from gout?

A
  • birefringent urate
113
Q

Describe Cheyne-Stokes respirations

A

Deep, fast breathing followed by apneas

114
Q

Describe Kussmaul’s respirations

A

Rapid, deep labored breathing

Common with acidosis

115
Q

What kind of CA has inc. alpha-fetoprotein & HCG?

A

Nonseminomatous testicular CA

116
Q

Pt presents with painless hematuria, what should you worry about?

A

Bladder CA

117
Q

What is the MCC epiglottitis?

A

Group A Strep

118
Q

What is a painless white area in the mouth that cannot be scraped off?

A

Leukoplakia

119
Q

Pt presents with deviation of the soft palate & uvula, what do they have?

A

Peritonsillar abscess

120
Q

What is the Centor criteria?

A

For strep pharyngitis

  1. Fever >38
  2. Tender anterior cervical LAD
  3. NO cough
  4. Tonsillar exudates

2/4 - culture
3/4 - abx

121
Q

Pt has nonfatigueable nystagmus, what type of vertigo do they have?

A

Central

122
Q

What is the MCC of otitis externa?

A

Pseudomonas

123
Q

What is the MCC of otitis media?

A

Strep penumo

124
Q

What is the triad of Menieres disease?

A
  1. Chronic hearing loss
  2. Tinnitus
  3. Dizziness/vertigo
125
Q

When the corneal reflex is misaligned, what disease do they have?

A

Strabismus

126
Q

Pt has a highly vascular, triangular mass on the eye, what is it?

A

Pterygium

127
Q

What is a chalazion?

A

Hordeolium that is chronic & noninfected

128
Q

What is a chalazion?

A

Hordeolium that is chronic & noninfected

129
Q

Define myopia

A

Nearsighted

Can’t see far

130
Q

Pt states they have a curtain being drawn over the eye, what is wrong?

A

Retinal detachment

131
Q

How do you monitor colon cancer?

A

CEA

132
Q

Kiddo has currant-jelly stools, what type of mass will you palpate in their abdomen?

A

Intussusception

Sausage-like mass

133
Q

What is the MCC small bowel obstruction?

A

Adhesions

134
Q

What is the MCC large bowel obstructions?

A

Colon CA

135
Q

MCC acute pancreatitis?

A

cholelithiasis

136
Q

What is Charcot’s triad?

A

Cholagnitis

  1. RUQ pain
  2. Jaundice
  3. Fever
137
Q

What is Reynold’s pentad?

A

Cholangitis bad

  1. RUQ pain
  2. Jaundice
  3. Fever
  4. HOTN
  5. Altered mental status
138
Q

What does an ERCP show?

A

Location of stones

139
Q

Infant has projectile postprandial vomiting, what do palpate in their abdomen?

A

Pyloric stenosis

Olive shaped mass

140
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Gastrin secreting tumor that leads to regractory PUD

141
Q

What is the MCC UGI bleed?

A

PUD

142
Q

How do you treat H. Pylori?

A
  1. PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin

2. Peptobismol + Tetracycline + Flagyl + PPI

143
Q

How do you treat H. Pylori?

A
  1. PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin

2. Peptobismol + Tetracycline + Flagyl + PPI

144
Q

Pt with cirrhosis presents with hematemesis, what do you suspect?

A

Esophageal varices

145
Q

What is the MC type of esophageal CA?

A

Adenocarcinoma in distal 2/3

Squamous cell in proximal 1/3

146
Q

Esophagram shows birds beak esophagus, what is it?

A

Achalasia

147
Q

36 wk prego presents with painless vaginal bleeding, what do you suspect?

A

Placenta previa

148
Q

36 wk prego presents with painless vaginal bleeding, what do you suspect?

A

Placenta previa

149
Q

36 wk prego presents with painless vaginal bleeding, what do you suspect?

A

Placenta previa

150
Q

What is the MCC 3rd trimester bleeding?

A

Placenta abruptio

151
Q

3rd trimester lady presents with painful vag bleeding, what is it?

A

Placenta abruptio

152
Q

What is the triad of preeclampsia?

A
  1. HTN
  2. Edema
  3. Proteinuria
153
Q

What drug can you use in a HTN preggo?

A

Methyldopa

154
Q

How do you Dx premature rupture of membranes?

A

Nitrazine pH >7

Fern test

155
Q

When do you culture for Group B strep in a preggo & what do you do if it’s positive?

A

32-36 wk

PenG q4h until delivery

156
Q

Define Nagele’s rule

A

LMP - 3 mo + 7 days

157
Q

Preggo US shows grapelike vesicles in a snowstorm pattern, what is it?

A

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

158
Q

Where is the MC location for ectopic?

A

Fallopian tube

159
Q

When do you see a Chandelier sign?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

160
Q

What is the MC type of breast CA?

A

Ductal carcinoma

161
Q

How do you treat mastitis?

A

Cloxacillin/cephalosoprin
Hot compresses
C/w breast feeding

162
Q

How do you monitor ovarian cancer treatment?

A

CA-125

163
Q

How do you Dx PCOS?

A

US - string of pearls

Inc LH/FSH ratio

164
Q

Pt with endometriosis wants to have a babby, what do you give them?

A

Danazol

165
Q

What hormone influences leiomyomata formation?

A

Estrogen

166
Q

What hormone influences leiomyomata formation?

A

Estrogen

167
Q

What type of HPV is cancerous?

A

16 & 18

168
Q

KOH prep shows spaghetti & meatballs, what is it?

A

Tinea versicolor

caused by Malazzia furfur

169
Q

Where is psoriasis usually seen?

A

Extensor surfaces

170
Q

Describe Lichen planus

A
  1. Purple
  2. Polygonal
  3. Pruritic
  4. Papule
171
Q

What rash has a Christmas tree distribution?

A

Pityriasis rosea

172
Q

What rash is a flesh-colored, umbilicated papule?

A

Mollucum

173
Q

What Ig is involved in atopic dermatitis?

A

IgE Type I

MC on flexural surfaces