Pan Am Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Length difference between C208A & B?

A

4 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Wingspan?

A

52’ 1”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Minimum wingtip turning radius?

A

65’ 4 7/8”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

FS for Firewall?

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Number of mooring points?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Nose wheel deflection w/o Brakes? With?

A

+/- 15 degrees, +/- 56 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens if towing limit is exceeded?

A

Frangible stop will fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Engine truss to firewall has how many attachments?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What doors are on annunciator light?

A

Upper air stair/pax and upper cargo door

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Speed limit for vent window?

A

175 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where is the brake fluid reservoir?

A

Left Engine Compartment firewall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Max ramp weight

A

8785 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vmo?

A

175 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Va @ 8750 lbs?

A

148 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vfe 10?

A

175 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vfe 20

A

150 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vfe 30

A

125 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of flaps are on the C208B?

A

Single slot driven by an electrical motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the cautions when operating the standby flap motor?

A

Standby motor does not have limit switches; linkage can be damaged by operating past limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of the wing spoilers?

A

To improve lateral (roll) control of the aircraft at low speeds by disrupting lift over the appropriate flap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If the aileron is in the neutral position, what is the condition of the spoiler?

A

The spoiler closes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does each of the 3 color lenses on the annunciator mean?

A

Red: Hazardous conditions requiring immediate attention
Amber: Cautionary condition
Green: Normal/safe condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many landing lights are installed on the Caravan and where are they located?

A

2 landing lights, 1 on each wing’s outboard leading edge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What light provides illumination of the area outside of the airplane adjacent to the crew entry door?

A

Courtesy light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

To which electrical bus is the courtesy light connected?

A

Battery bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens when the nose gear turning limits have been exceeded?

A

A frangible stop located in the nose area will be broken off and will be hanging down attached to a cable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cabin ventilating air enters the aircraft through:

A

Air inlets on each side of the forward fuselage and air inlets on each wing at the upper ends of the wing struts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the performance data based on and what is its purpose?

A

The chart data is based on actual flight tests and is presented so the pilot will know what to expect from the airplane under various conditions and to facilitate flight planning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that the airplane is loaded properly?

A

The Pilot in Command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which component is used to indicate the actual flap position?

A

The white-tipped indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the most forward percent of MAC allowable and the most rearward?

A

Forward – 3.06% at 5500 gross and Aft – 40.33% at any weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the stalling speed with no flaps selected?

A

63 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the stalling speed with full flaps?

A

50 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What will opening the pilot’s vent window do to the pressure in the cabin?

A

It will cause the pressure to decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the indications of impending brake failure?

A

Gradual decrease in braking action after brake application
Noisy or dragging brakes
Soft or spongy pedals
Excessive travel and weak braking action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What temperature in the battery will cause the “Battery Hot” light to illuminate? (NiCad only)

A

140-160 degrees Fahrenheit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What temperature in the battery will cause the “Battery Overheat” light to illuminate? (NiCad only)

A

Over 160 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the voltage rating of either the NiCad battery or the lead acid battery?

A

24 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage for an external power start?

A

20 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What unit monitors and controls the electrical power system, sequencing system operation from starting the engine through generator operation?

A

Generator Control Unit (GCU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the maximum operating amperage of the standby alternator?

A

75 amps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The generator supplies how many volts and amps to the electrical system?

A

28 volts DC and 200 amps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the starter limits for a battery start?

A

30 sec on – 60 sec off
30 sec on – 60 sec off
30 sec on – 30 min off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the starter limits for an external power start?

A

20 sec on – 120 secs off
20 sec on – 120 secs off
20 sec on – 60 min off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why are the external power starting cycle limits different from the battery starting cycle limits?

A

Because of the higher amperage available from the external power unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

To which bus is power available anytime the battery is connected

A

The battery bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What items are connected to the battery bus?

A

Hourmeter, Clock, Avionics Frequency Memory, Courtesy Lights, GCU Anti-cycle Circuit, Ground Power Monitor Low voltage Circuit, Cabin Lights, and the Standby Alternator Excitation Circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

At what percent Ng does the start mode terminate?

A

46%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the function of the external power monitor?

A

For over-voltage and polarity sensing of the external power unit and sensing of the bus voltage to illuminate the “voltage low” light when bus voltage drops below 24.5 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What conditions must exist for the standby-alternator to come on line?

A

The generator voltage must drop below 27.5 volts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What will cause the ignition system to be on when it is in the NORMAL position?

A

Placing the starter in the ON position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In what position is the External Power Switch placed to check the voltage provided by the Ground Power Unit?

A

The BUS position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In what position is the External Power Switch placed to check the voltage provided by the Ground Power Unit?

A

The BUS position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In what position is the External Power Switch placed to start the aircraft?

A

The STARTER position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When the Volt/Ammeter selector is placed in the VOLT position, what is represented on the Volt/Ammeter?

A

the voltage of the system that is supplying power to the power distribution bus at that time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Name the electrical buses in the 208B

A

2 general buses, 2 avionics buses, 1 battery bus

56
Q

What senses external power voltage and polarity?

A

The Ground Power Monitor

57
Q

What will connect the two avionics buses together in the event of either bus feeder circuit failure or the failure of the avionics switch 1 or 2?

A

The Avionics Bus Tie Switch

58
Q

The “fuel pressure low” annunciator light illuminates when the fuel in the reservoir manifold is below ________?

A

4.75 psi

59
Q

When will the “reservoir fuel low” light illuminate?

A

When the reservoir tank is less than 1/2 full – approximately 2 gallons

60
Q

The “left fuel low” or the “right fuel low” light will illuminate when the respective tank has _______?

A

25 gallons or less

61
Q

What is the maximum allowable fuel imbalance in flight?

A

200 pounds

62
Q

What is the total usable fuel quantity of the CE208B?

A

332 US gallons/2224.4 pounds

63
Q

When positioned in the NORM position, when will the auxiliary boost pump operate?

A

When the fuel pressure in the fuel reservoir manifold assembly drops below 4.75 psi

64
Q

How often should the EPA fuel can be drained?

A

Once a day or at an interval not to exceed six engine shutdowns

65
Q

How many fuel quantity transmitters are there?

A

4 in each wing

66
Q

How many fuel nozzles are there?

A

14 nozzles (10 primary – 4 secondary)

67
Q

At what quantity will the Left or Right Fuel low annunciator light illuminate?

A

at 25 gallons or less in the respective tank (approximately 20 minutes per side)

68
Q

What fuel tank (sic) can be used for emergency operations?

A

Av-gas (limited to 150 hours in one overhaul period)

69
Q

Where are the fuel vent outlets located?

A

At the trailing edge of the wing tips

70
Q

What is the procedure if the fuel filter bypass flag has popped?

A

Notify Maintenance – a no-go item

71
Q

Describe the three conditions that will activate the fuel warning horns

A

1) both selector valves closed with Battery switch on – FUEL SELECT OFF light & 1 horn
2) One selector valve closed with Starter switch on – FUEL SELECT OFF lights & 2 horns
3) One selector valve off and fuel in “on” tank is less than 25 gallons – FUEL SELECT OFF light and FUEL LOW light & 1 horn

72
Q

When will the RESERVOIR FUEL LOW light illuminate?

A

When the fuel in the reservoir is less than 1/2 full

73
Q

After the RESERVOIR FUEL LOW light illuminates, how long can the airplane continue at maximum continuous power?

A

Approximately 1 1/2 minutes

74
Q

What is the procedure if the FUEL PRESS LOW light comes on in flight?

A

AUX FUEL PUMP – ON

75
Q

Where is the fuel filter located?

A

On the left front side of the firewall

76
Q

What is the significance of the red poppet on the fuel filter?

A

When the red poppet valve extends upward, it indicates that the fuel filter is being bypassed

77
Q

Where is the Firewall Fuel Shutoff Valve located and what is its purpose?

A

It is located on the right side of the pedestal and enables the pilot to shut off all fuel flow from the fuel reservoir to the engine

78
Q

Where are the fuel tank vents and what will happen of they become stopped up?

A

At the trailing edge of each wing tip – the fuel flow will decrease with eventual engine stoppage

79
Q

The fuel aural warning system is powered through which circuit breakers?

A

the START CONT and the FUEL SEL WARN

80
Q

Name two fuel pumps in the fuel reservoir.

A

The ejector boost pump and the auxiliary fuel pump

81
Q

How many fuel drains are there on the Caravan 208B and where are they positioned

A

2 inboard and 1 outboard drain on each wing, 1 reservoir drain, & 1 drain for the fuel filter

82
Q

What is the prop de-ice ammeter reading during normal operation?

A

20-24 amps

83
Q

What could be indications that the prop de-ice system is not functioning properly?

A

Ammeter indications of 7 or 14 amps; slight vibration from engine due to uneven accumulations

84
Q

At what OAT must the PITOT/STATIC heat system be turned on?

A

4 deg C or less

85
Q

When must the de-ice light be operational to fly into known icing conditions?

A

At night

86
Q

What is the maximum weight for flight into known icing conditions?

A

8550 lb with cargo pod; 8750 lb without cargo pod

87
Q

What indications do you have when the windshield de-ice is operating?

A

Green annunciator light

88
Q

Describe the difference in operation between AUTO and Manual positions for the de-ice boots

A

Auto – one 18 second cycle consisting of 3 segments (1) Tail Boots, (2) inner wing boots, landing gear & cargo boots (3) outer wing boots and wing struts
De-ice boots light comes on-off-on-off-on-off
Manual – all boots inflate simultaneously – de-ice boot light turns on and then off

89
Q

What is the cycle time for the prop de-ice when in the auto position?

A

90 seconds on – 90 seconds off

90
Q

What is the minimum speed in icing conditions with flaps up?

A

120 KIAS (110 KIAS if climbing to exit icing conditions)

91
Q

What is the procedure if the de-ice boots remain inflated?

A

Pull the de-ice boot circuit breaker

92
Q

In a performance critical situation, what is the Maximum Continuous Power allowable?

A

1900 RPM, 1865 Ft. lbs torque, 805 degrees C ITT, 101.6% Ng

93
Q

How can maximum defrosting be accomplished?

A

By pulling out the defrost control and pushing in the aft/forward cabin control

94
Q

If more cabin heat is needed during ground operations, what can be done?

A

Move the fuel condition to HIGH IDLE and move the MIXING AIR control to GRD

95
Q

When should the CABIN HEAT FIREWALL SHUTOFF control be pulled out?

A

If a fire is suspected in the engine compartment

96
Q

At what PSI does the DE-ICE PRESSURE light illuminate?

A

Approximately 15 psi

97
Q

What are the maximum torque, ITT and RPM for takeoff?

A

1865, 805, 1900

98
Q

What is the maximum ITT for starting and duration at that temperature?

A

1090 for 2 seconds

99
Q

How many stages of compression are there and what type?

A

3 axial, 1 centrifugal

100
Q

How many turbine sections are there?

A

Two, the compressor turbine drives the compressor section and the power turbine drives the propeller

101
Q

Why is the propeller feathered prior to engine shutdown?

A

Because propeller lubrication is not available after shutdown

102
Q

What is the normal fuel flow on start?

A

80-110 pph

103
Q

What is the engine oil capacity?

A

14 quarts

104
Q

What is the minimum oil temp for starting?

A

-40C

105
Q

The starter energized annunciator should extinguish when the Ng reaches

A

46%

106
Q

Where are the chip detectors found?

A

In the reduction gearbox and the accessory gearbox

107
Q

What component in the engine compartment determines a fire condition?

A

Heat detection loop

108
Q

How many sections are there in the heat detection loop?

A

3

109
Q

How is an engine fire detected?

A

Through a heat sensitive fire loop in the engine compartment

110
Q

What are the two engine indicators of an engine fire?

A

ENGINE FIRE light and warning horn

111
Q

Describe the Pratt & Whitney PTA1-114A engine

A

A free turbine, reverse flow engine with 675hp

112
Q

How is the fuel-air mixture in the combustion chamber ignited?

A

By two spark igniters that protrude into the combustion chamber

113
Q

What is the speed of the compressor turbine?

A

37,500 RPM at 100% Ng. Maximum permissible speed 38,100 at 101.6% Ng

114
Q

What is the speed of the power turbine?

A

33,000 RPM at a propeller speed of 1900 RPM

115
Q

What is the capacity of the engine oil tank?

A

9.5 quarts

116
Q

What is the oil capacity of the total system?

A

14 quarts

117
Q

Name the four engine controls

A

Power lever, emergency power lever, propeller control lever, and fuel condition lever

118
Q

What are the indications when there is a pneumatic malfunction in the fuel control unit?

A

The engine will go to minimum idle (about 48% Ng at sea level); ITT will be 500-600C

119
Q

Why is the propeller feather position used during normal shutdown?

A

To stop the rotation of the power turbine and front section of the engine since lubrication is not available after the gas generator has shut down and to minimize propeller windmilling during windy conditions

120
Q

What is the Ng at low idle?

A

52%

121
Q

What is the Ng at high idle?

A

65%

122
Q

The ITT displays the gas temperature at what location?

A

Between the compressor and the power turbines

123
Q

How is sensing obtained by the oil pressure and the temperature gauge?

A

Pressure is from a direct pressure oil line in the engine; temperature is from an electrical resistance type temperature sensor

124
Q

What is the cautionary (yellow) range on the oil pressure gauge?

A

40-85 psi

125
Q

What is the normal range on the oil pressure gauge?

A

85-105 psi

126
Q

What is the capacity of the oxygen cylinder in the cargo aircraft?

A

50.67 cubic feet

127
Q

What is the capacity of the oxygen cylinder on the passenger version?

A

116.9 cubic feet

128
Q

How many annunciator lights are illuminated when the battery switch is turned on?

A

5 - VACUUM LOW, OIL PRESSURE LOW, GENERATOR OFF, FUEL PRESSURE LOW, STBY ELECTRICAL POWER INOP

129
Q

What conditions are necessary to have the STARTER ENERGIZED light illuminated?

A

Starter switch ON and less than 46% Ng, or starter switch in MOTOR

130
Q

What is the best angle of climb speed?

A

72 KIAS sea level to 20,000 ft

131
Q

What is the best rate of climb speed?

A

104 KIAS sea level to 10,000 ft and 87 KIAS at 20,000 ft

132
Q

What is the maximum performance climb speed?

A

104 KIAS up to 10,000 ft, decreasing to 87 KIAS at 20,000 ft

133
Q

What is the best glide speed at gross weight with no flaps?

A

95 KIAS with cargo pod; 97 KIAS without cargo pod

135
Q

Under what conditions can an exit be made through the cargo door? (Cargo version only)

A

None. The inside of the upper door has no handle.

136
Q

What is the purpose of the 3 cargo nets located outboard on top of the cargo barrier.

A

To provide the pilot with a means of viewing the cargo and to protect the pilot from shifting cargo

137
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight for the CE208B.

A

8750 lbs

138
Q

What is the minimum voltage for a battery start?

A

24V

139
Q

Most aircraft accidents are due to

A

Loss of situation awareness