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Anesthesia Refreshers > PALS > Flashcards

PALS Flashcards

1
Q

Stridor is usually high-pitched during?

A

Inspiration

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2
Q

Wheezing is usually high-pitched during?

A

Expiration

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3
Q

Snoring and Gurgling are a result of ——– airway obstruction

A

upper

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4
Q

Crackles happen during?

A

inspiration

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5
Q

grunting happens during?

A

expiration

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6
Q

oxygen saturation less that ——- indicates low oxygen saturation, which is know as hypoxemia

A

94%

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7
Q

pulse oximetry indicates oxygen ——- but not oxygen delivery

A

saturation

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8
Q

what does A-B-C in the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) stand for ?

A

A- Appearance
B- Work of Breathing
C- Circulation

primary assessment
D- Disability
E- Exposure

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9
Q

Conditions that ——– air resistance lead to increase respiratory ———

A

increase, effort

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10
Q

signs of increased respiratory effort that can lead to fatigue and respiratory failure ?

A

seesaw respirations
Nasal flaring
Head bobbing
restrictions

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11
Q

Define Apnea?

A

when breathing stops, typically defined as longer than 20 seconds

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12
Q

Determine the respiratory rate ?

A

count the number of times the chest rises in 30 seconds and multiple it by 2

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13
Q

Tachypnea is the first sign of respiratory —– in infants

A

distress

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14
Q

hypotension for children 1 to 10 years of age is a systolic blood pressure of less than

A

70 mm Hg + (2X the age in years)

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15
Q

automated blood pressure cuffs may provide —— readings when the child is in shock

A

inaccurately high

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16
Q

What does a prolonged capillary refill time indicate?

A

Low Cardiac Output

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17
Q

Normal Capillary refill time is —- seconds or less

A

2 seconds

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18
Q

What pulses should be assessed to monitor systemic perfusion in a child?

A

Peripheral & Central

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19
Q

what do weak central pulses indicate a need for immediate intervention to prevent ?

A

cardiac arrest

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20
Q

when oxygen delivery to the extremities becomes inadequate, the —- and —- are the first to exhibit signs

A

hands & feet

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21
Q

what should be used to assess skin temperature?

A

back of the hand

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22
Q

if the pupils do not —– in response to bright light, consider increased—- pressure

A

constrict, intracranial

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23
Q

if hypoglycemia is not identified and treated immediately, it can result in —– injury

A

brain

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24
Q

PVPU

A

Responds to pain
Responds to voice, Unresponsive
Alert

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25
Q

Secondary Assessment

SAMPLE mnemonic

A 
Signs and Symptoms
Allergies
Medications
Past Medical History
Last meal
Events leading up to illness/ injury
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26
Q

which component of SAMPLE assesses immunization status?

A

Past medical HX

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27
Q

what should be included in the history when asking about medications?

A

Current prescribed medications

Over-the-counter medications

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28
Q

What are some examples of diagnostic assessments?

A

Arterial blood gas
Venous blood gas
Hemoglobin concentrations

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29
Q

what dictates the timing of diagnostic assessments?

A

Clinical situation

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30
Q

which component of effective high-performance teams is represented by the use of real-time feedback devices?

A

Quality

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31
Q

What is an advantage of effective teamwork?

A

Division of tasks

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32
Q

what is the best example of the team leader role?

A

models excellent team behavior

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33
Q

what is the best example of a team member role?

A

Committed to success

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34
Q

what is the primary purpose of the CPR coach on a resuscitation team?

A

improve CPR quality

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35
Q

How can the CPR coach improve CPR quality in a resuscitation event?

A

coach to midrange targets

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36
Q

Which high-performance team member has the responsibility for assigning roles (positions)?

A

team leader

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37
Q

what element of team dynamics describes when a team member needs to correct actions?

A

constructive intervention

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38
Q

which of the following describe how to communicate?

A

clear messaging

closed-loop communication

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39
Q

In the primary assessment, how should you open the airway of a child who is not suspected of having a cervical spine injury?

A

with a head tilt-chin lift

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40
Q

which resuscitation strategy will result in an improved chest compression fraction?

A

hovering over the chest during compression pause

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41
Q

what is one way to increase chest compression fraction during a code?

A

charging the defibrillator 15 seconds before a rhythm check

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42
Q

a chest compression fraction of at least —- is recommended, and a goal of — is often achievable with good teamwork

A

60% and 80%

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43
Q

What is chest compression fraction?

A

proportion of time that compressions are performed

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44
Q

What sequence is used when caring for a seriously ill or injured child to help determine the best treatment or intervention? the ——–, ———-, ——- sequence

A

evaluate

identify

intervene

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45
Q

if the child does not have normal breathing and a pulse of 64/min is present, you will need to —-

A

provide rescue breathing

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46
Q

What should you look for when exposing the Child?

A

Bruising
Bleeding
purpura

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47
Q

what is the definition of oxygen saturation?

A

The amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin

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48
Q

children develop hypoxemia and tissue hypoxia more quickly than adults because of their

A

higher metabolic rate

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49
Q

in infants and toddlers, the tongue and epiglottis, relative to those of an adult, are ——-

A

larger

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50
Q

how can normal, spontaneous breathing be characterized?

A

Quiet, with unlabored inspiration

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51
Q

increase work of breathing can be associated with ——– airway resistance and/or —– lung compliance

A

increased

decreased

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52
Q

what happens when airway resistance increases?

A

work of breathing incraeases

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53
Q

which of the following describes laminar or normal airflow?

A

low airway resistance and a small driving pressure

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54
Q

what is the role of the diaphragm contraction during normal breathing in infants?

A

pulls the ribs slight inwards

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55
Q

which is a characteristic of muscle weakness?

A

seesaw breathing

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56
Q

During spontaneous breathing, what are the inspiratory muscles attempting to do?

A

increase intrathoracic volume

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57
Q

which of the following is true about airway resistance?

A

when airway resistance increases, work of breathing increases

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58
Q

which of these can override brainstem control of breathing in an infant?

A

breath holding

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59
Q

what do central chemoreceptors respond to?

A

hydrogen ions in the cerebrospinal fluid

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60
Q

why may excessive ventilation during CPR be harmful?

A

it increases intrathoracic pressure

it impedes venous return

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61
Q

what should you do if you cannot achieve effective ventilation with a bag-mask device?

A

verify the mask size

reposition the airway

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62
Q

how effective oxygenation and ventilation assessed?

A

oxygen saturation

exhaled carbon dioxide

visible chest rise with each breath

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63
Q

how can gastric inflation impair bag-mask ventilation?

A

it decreases lung compliance

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64
Q

what is the most appropriate precautionary action to minimize gastric inflation during bag-mask ventilation?

A

deliver each breath over about 1 second

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65
Q

Where can you check a pulse on an infant and a child?

A

Infant- brachial

Child- Femoral

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66
Q

which is true about the difference between hypoxemia nad tissue hypoxia?

A

tissue hypoxia can occur with normal arterial oxygen saturation

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67
Q

what does hyperventilation, which refers to increased alveolar ventilation, result in?

A

PaCo2 less than 35 mm HG

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68
Q

what happens to the arterial oxygen level in a child with severe anemia?

A

may incrase when dissolved oxygen is increased

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69
Q

which is true if increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood?

A

may be caused by disordered control of breathing

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70
Q

what happens when ventilation is inadequate?

A

PaCO2 increases

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71
Q

what is a critical symptom of hypercarbia?

A

decreased level of consciousness

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72
Q

which of the following indicates mild respiratory distress?

A

mild increases in respiratory effort

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73
Q

which of the following indicates severe respiratory distress?

A

MArked tachypnea and/or apnea

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74
Q

which of the following statements about respiratory failure is true?

A

may occur without signs of respiratory distress

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75
Q

what actions are appropriate when providing 1-person bag-mask ventilation?

A

Perform a head tilt, insert an oral airway, and squeeze the bag until chest rise

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76
Q

when suctioning a patient, which of the following should be monitored?

A

heart rate

clinical appearance

oxygen saturation

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77
Q

Which are appropriate interventions for an apneic child?

A
  • Provide a breath every 2 to 3 seconds

- Watch for chest rise

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78
Q

which of the following should be included in rescue breathing for an infant?

A

Use oxygen ASAP

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79
Q

When should the use of an endotracheal tube be considered in a child?

A

Child cannot maintain oxygenation despite initial intervention

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80
Q

What are the common causes of upper airway obstruction?

A
  • Thick secretions
  • Tonsillar hypertrophy
  • Airway Swelling
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81
Q

Which anatomical features may contribute to upper airway obstruction in infants?

A
  • Large tongue

- Large occiput

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82
Q

What are the signs of upper airway obstruction?

A
  • Stridor

- Use of accessory muscles

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83
Q

What should you do to help reduce the risk of hypoxemia during suctioning?

A

Limit suction attempts to 10 seconds or less

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84
Q

Which diagnosis may present with upper airway obstruction?

A
  • Epiglottitis
  • Croup
  • Foreign body obstruction
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85
Q

What should you do before suctioning a child who has upper airway obstruction?

A

Determine the underlying cause of the obstruction

86
Q

in a less severe case of upper airway obstruction in a child, what intervention can relieve obstruction caused by the tongue?

A

insert an oral airway

87
Q

A child presents with a barking cough, good air entry during auscultation, a pulse oximetry reading 93% on room air, and retractions at rest.

What is the severity of the child’s presentation?

A

Moderate croup

88
Q

A child presents with a barking cough, good air entry during auscultation, a pulse oximetry reading 93% on room air, and retractions at rest.

what are appropriate initial interventions?

A
  • Administer oxygen and nebulized epinephrine

- consider dexamethasone

89
Q

When using a metered-dose inhaler (or MDI) with a spacer device, what should you do?

A

Shake the MDI and spacer vigorously

90
Q

what is the treatment for a mild allergic reaction?

A
  • Remove the offending agent (e.g. antibiotic)

- Consider an antihistamine

91
Q

what is the most appropriate treatment for severe anaphylaxis?

A

Administer IM epinephrine

92
Q

A responsive infant present with severe foreign-body airway obstruction.

What is the appropriate management?

A

Give 5 back blows followed by 5 chest thrusts

93
Q

A responsive Child present with severe foreign-body airway obstruction. and is unable to speak.

you determine that the child?

A

Should receive abdominal thrusts

94
Q

What are the components of the breathing assessment?

A
  • Respiratory effort
  • Respiratory rate
  • Oxygen saturation
  • Lung and airway sounds
  • Chest expansion and air movement
95
Q

What are the common causes of lower airway obstruction?

A
  • Bronchiolitis

- Asthma

96
Q

What is the first step for and an intubated child whose condition deteriorates?

A

Support oxygenation and ventilation

97
Q

How can small airways be obstructed in acute lower airway obstruction?

A
  • Mucus plugging

- Smooth muscle bronchial constriction

98
Q

how do infants initially respond to lower airway obstruction?

A

Decreased interpleural pressure

99
Q

What is the first priority in managing lower airway obstruction?

A

Restore adequate oxygenation

100
Q

bag-mask ventilation has been used on a child with lower airway obstruction

which complication may occur?

A
  • Risk of lung collapse

- Deceased blood supply to the heart

101
Q

A child presents with audible wheezing, a heart rate greater than 120/min, a respiratory rate of 36/min, and the inability to talk in sentences

what is the severity of this presentation?

A

severe

102
Q

When should administration of magnesium sulfate be considered in a child with asthma?

A

Moderate to severe distress

103
Q

What is the most accurate definition of shock?

A

Inadequate tissue perfusion

104
Q

What are the characteristics of shock?

A
  • Decreased level of consciousness
  • Inadequate peripheral perfusion
  • Decreased end-organ perfusion
105
Q

What will occur if adequate oxygen delivery to the tissues is not maintained?

A

Organ dysfunction

106
Q

What are the major function(s) of the cardiopulmonary system?

A
  • Delivers oxygen to body tissues

- Removes metabolic by-products of cellular metabolism

107
Q

what is the definition of cardiac output?

A

The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

108
Q

What is the body’s first action to maintain cardiac output?

A

Increase heart rate

109
Q

T/F

if cardiac output is compromised, signs of poor perfusion will be “present” even if blood pressure is normal?

A

True

110
Q

What are the goals in treating shock?

A
  • Balance tissue perfusion and metabolic demand
  • improve oxygen delivery
  • support organ function
  • prevent progression to cardiac arrest
111
Q

T/F

As the more time passes between the onset of signs of shock and the restoration of adequate oxygen delivery and organ perfusion, the outcome is “Worse”

A

True

112
Q

What is included is the treatment of shock?

A

Optimizing oxygen content in the blood

113
Q

What is the preferred initial fluid for shock resuscitation?

A

Isotonic crystalloids

114
Q

For general shock management, administer an isotonic crystalloid bolus of —— ml/kg over —- to —– minutes

A

20 mL/kg

5 to 20 min

115
Q

Hypotension in children is calculated as a systolic blood pressure of less than — mm Hg plus — times the age in years

A

70mm Hg

2 times

116
Q

What are some common causes of hypovolemic shock?

A
  • Large burns
  • Osmotic diuresis
  • Hemorrhage
117
Q

what is a characteristic clinical finding associated with hypovolemic shock?

A

Tachypnea

118
Q

hypovolemic shock refers to a clinical state of ?

A
  • reduced intravascular volume

- Reduced extravascular volume

119
Q

What is the primary therapy for hypovolemic shock?

A

Rapid administration of isotonic crystalloids

120
Q

what could be the reason a child with hypotensive shock does not improve after at least 3 fluid boluses?

A

The initial assumption about the etiology may be incorrect

121
Q

what best assesses a child’s response to each fluid bolus?

A
  • vital signs
  • physical examination
  • urinary output
122
Q

what are the goals in treating shock?

A
  • Balance tissue perfusion and metabolic demand
  • support organ function
  • Improve oxygen delivery
  • Prevent progression to cardiac arrest
123
Q

What is the most common type of distributive shock?

A

Septic

124
Q

T/F

Septic shock often develops over “Hours, while Anaphylactic shock may occur over minutes

A

True

125
Q

What should you use to begin fluid resuscitation in hemorrhagic shock?

A

Isotonic crystalloids

126
Q

When is distributive shock present?

A

When there is inadequate blood flow to some tissue beds but too much to others

127
Q

what treatment should be implemented if a child remains hemodynamically unstable despite 2 to 3 boluses of 20 mL /kg isotonic crystalloids?

A

Transfuse PRBCs

128
Q

What determines adequate fluid resuscitation in hypovolemic shock?

A
  • Type of volume loss

- Extent of volume depletion

129
Q

What signs distinguish anaphylactic shock from other types of shock?

A
  • Respiratory distress with stridor, wheezing, or both
  • Urticaria (hives)
  • Angioedema (swelling of the face, lips, and tongue)
130
Q

How soon after exposure do symptoms typically occur in anaphylactic shock?

A

seconds to minutes

131
Q

when should vasoactive therapy be considered in managing distributive shock?

A

if the child remains hypotensive and poorly perfused despite rapid bolus fluid administration

132
Q

in a child with anaphylactic shock, what is the most appropriate initial treatment ?

A

IM epinephrine

133
Q

how des the clinical presentation of distributive shock compare with hypovolemic shock?

A

distributive shock has a more variable presentation than that of hypovolemic shock

134
Q

what should you evaluate to recognize septic shock?

A
  • Heart rate
  • Blood pressure
  • Temperature
  • Systemic perfusion
  • Clinical signs of end-organ perfusion
135
Q

When should antibiotic be administered in septic shock ?

A

Within the first hour

136
Q

what is the most appropriate vasoactive drug to use in fluid-refectory septic shock?

A

epinephrine or norepinephrine

137
Q

for septic shock, how soo should fluid resuscitation begin?

A

within 10 to 15 minutes after recognizing shock

138
Q

What is the recommendation for fluid bolus of isotonic crystalloids in cardiogenic shock?

A

5 to 10 mL/kg over 10 to 20 minutes

139
Q

What is the focus of the initial management of distributive shock?

A
  • Expanding intravascular volume
  • Correcting hypovolemia
  • Filling expanded dilated vascular space
140
Q

what are causes of obstructive shock?

A
  • Tension pneumothorax
  • Pulmonary embolus
  • Cardiac tamponade
  • Congenital heat defect
141
Q

what signs are present as obstructive shock progresses?

A
  • increased respiratory effort
  • cyanosis
  • signs of vascular congestion
142
Q

what is the main objective of managing obstructive shock?

A
  • restore tissue perfusion

- correct the cause of cardiac output obstruction

143
Q

why is it important to immediately identify obstructive shock?

A

obstructive shock can rapidly progress to cardiopulmonary failure and then cardiac arrest

144
Q

most patients in cardiogenic shock will need inotropic support with medications.

which of the following could be used?

A
  • Milrinone

- Epinephrine

145
Q

what are the initial assessment findings for septic shock?

A
  • Fever
  • Normal, elevated, or decreased WBC
  • hypothermia
146
Q

in whom should you suspect a tension pneumothorax?

A
  • Victim of chest trauma
  • Any intubated child who deteriorates suddenly while receiving positive-pressure ventilation
  • A child who deteriorates suddenly while receiving bag-mask ventilation
147
Q

how do you know if a needle decompression is successful?

A

There is a gush of air when the needle is placed

148
Q

what are common causes of cardiogenic shock?

A
  • Myocarditis
  • Arrhythmia
  • Congenital heart disease
  • Drug toxicity
149
Q

What is an assessment finding unique to tension pneumothorax?

A

Tracheal deviation

150
Q

what is the immediate treatment for tension pneumothorax?

A

Needle decompression

151
Q

why do children with cardiac tamponade improve temporarily with fluid administration?

A

Fluid augment cardiac and tissue perfusion until pericardial drainage can be performed

152
Q

what circulation findings are specific to pericardial tamponade?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Muffled or diminished heart sounds
  • Narrowed pulse pressures
153
Q

in the setting of impending or actual pulseless arrest when there is a strong suspicion of pericardial tamponade, what is the appropriate management?

A

Emergency pericardiocentesis

154
Q

pulmonary embolisms are ——– in children

A

rare

155
Q

in children with severe cardiovascular compromise from pulmonary embolism, what treatment should be considered?

A

Fibrinolytic agents

156
Q

what are causes of cardiac tamponade in children?

A
  • Cardiac surgery
  • Penetrating trauma
  • Infection of the pericardium
157
Q

whenever a child has an abnormal heart rate or rhythm, what must be done quickly?

A

Determine if the arrhythmia is causing hemodynamic instability or other signs of deterioration

158
Q

what is the priority in initially managing arrhythmias?

A

Support the airway, breathing, and circulation

159
Q

what is the definitive treatment for most children with pulmonary embolism who are not in shock ?

A

Anticoagulants

160
Q

what findings help distinguish pulmonary embolism from hypovolemic shock?

A

systemic venous congestion and right heart failure

161
Q

what are the causes of secondary bradycardia?

A
  • Hypoxia
  • Acidosis
  • Drugs
  • Hypotension
  • Hypothermia
162
Q

What cases primary bradycardia?

A

Congenital or acquired heart conditions

163
Q

How is bradycardia defined in pediatric patients?

A

A heart rate that is slow in comparison with a normal heart rate range for the child’s age, level of activity, and clinical condition

164
Q

in which patients would bradycardia be an expected finding and not be considered problematic?

A
  • A Well- conditioned athlete

- A healthy child who is sleeping

165
Q

what is the leading cause of symptomatic bradycardia in children?

A

Tissue hypoxia

166
Q

What are the ECG characteristics of bradycardia?

A
  • Heart rate slow compared with normal heart rate for age
  • QRS complex may be narrow or wide
  • P wave and QRS complex may be unrelated
167
Q

what is the initial treatment for pediatric bradycardia with cardiopulmonary compromise?

A

provide bag mask ventilation with 100% oxygen

168
Q

what is a first-degree AV block?

A

A prolonged PR interval representing slowed conduction through the AV node

169
Q

what is a third-degree AV block?

A

None of the atrial impulses conduct to the ventricles

170
Q

what is the initial dose of epinephrine is the treatment of symptomatic bradycardia?

A

0.01 mg/kg IV/IO

171
Q

what is the IV/IO dose of atropine for pediatric bradycardia?

A

0.02 mg/kg

172
Q

if bradycardia persists after initial treatment and the heart rate remains less than 60/min, what action should be taken next?

A

begin CPR

173
Q

what clinical findings may be present in a child with a tachyarrhythmia?

A
  • light-headedness
  • Syncope
  • Palpitations
174
Q

where do tachyarrhythmias originate?

A

Atria or ventricles

175
Q

how is tachycardia defined in pediatric patients?

A

A heart rate that is fast compared with the normal heart rate for the child’s age

176
Q

why does sinus tachycardia typically develop?

A

the body needs increased cardiac output

177
Q

What are characteristics of atrial flutter?

A
  • Atrial rate can exceed 300/ min, and ventricular rate is slower
  • A narrow- complex tachyarrhythmia
  • Can develop in children with congenital heart disease
178
Q

how are tachycardia and tachyarrhythmias classified ?

A

By the width of the QRS complex

179
Q

what are the characteristics of ventricular tachycardia?

A
  • Rapid rate compromises ventricular filling
  • The rapid rate deteriorate into pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation
  • it is wide QRS complex generated within the ventricles
180
Q

what heart rate is consistent with sinus tachycardia?

A

infant -> less than 220/ min

Child -> less than 180/min

181
Q

what is a characteristic feature of supraventricular tachycardia?

A

An abrupt increase in heart rate that does not vary with activity

182
Q

in what conditions is atropine preferred over epinephrine as the first0choice treatment of symptomatic bradycardia?

A

Atrioventricular block due to primary bradycardia

increased vagal tone

cholinergic drug toxicity (organophosphates)

183
Q

What electrocardiographic characteristic is consistent with ventricular tachycardia?

A

The QRS complex is greater than 0.09 seconds

184
Q

What history is consistent with supraventricular tachycardia?

A

Symptoms of congenital heart disease

185
Q

What electrocardiographic characteristics are consistent with sinus tachycardia?

A

Beat to Beat Variability with changes in activity

186
Q

which signs and symptoms are consistent with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?

A
  • Absent or abnormal P waves
  • Heart rate does not vary with activity or stimulation
  • Heart rate 220/min or greater in an infant or 180/min or greater in a child
187
Q

which signs and symptoms are consistent with sinus tachycardia?

A
  • Heart rate less than 220/min in an infant or less than 180/min in a child
  • Present and normal P waves
  • Heart rate caries with activity or stimulation
188
Q

How should sinus tachycardia be treated?

A

By treating the underlying case

189
Q

if amiodarone or procainamide does not terminate the rapid rhythm, why should adenosine be considered?

A

A wide-complex could be supraventricular tachycardia with aberrant ventricular condition

190
Q

Which of the following should be considered for stable SVT?

A
  • Place a bag with ice water over the upper half of the infants face
  • ASK an older child to try ti blow through an obstructed straw
191
Q

what is the initial dose of adenosine?

A

0.1 mg/kg IV/IO

192
Q

What are signs of cardiac arrest in children?

A
  • Agonal
  • Unresponsivess
  • No pulse felt
193
Q

T/F

The most common cause of cardiac arrest in infants, children, and adolescents is “hypoxic/asphyxial arrest, which is the end result of progressive hypoxia and acidosis?

A

True

194
Q

What is considered an initial management priority in managing tachyarrhythmias?

A
  • Attach a continuous electrocardiographic monitor/defibrillator and a pulse oximeter
  • Assess and support the airway, oxygenation, and ventilation
  • Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram if practical
195
Q

what are the most common initial rhythms in both in hospital and out of hospital pediatric cardiac arrest, especially in children younger than 12 years?

A
  • PEA

- Asystole

196
Q

what is the appropriate initial dose if synchronized cardioversion I needed?

A

0.5 to 1J/kg

197
Q

when treating persistent VF/pVT during cardiac arrest, administer epinephrine?

A

every 3 to 5 min

198
Q

T/F

When “PEA” is present, the heat has no organized rhythm and no coordinated contractions?

A

False

VF is the answer

199
Q

what is considered part of post cardiac arrest care?

A
  • Ensuring adequate analgesia and sedation
  • Correcting acid-base and electrolyte imbalance
  • Providing adequate oxygenation and ventilation
200
Q

what does optimal post-cardiac arrest care include?

A

Identifying and treating organ system dysfunction

201
Q

what are the initial steps of the VF/pVT pathway of the pediatric cardiac arrest algorithm?

A
  • Perform CPR
  • Deliver 1 shock
  • Establish IV/IO access
202
Q

what is included in the first phase of post-cardiac arrest management?

A

Continued advanced life support for immediate life-threating conditions

203
Q

what is included in the second phase of post cardiac arrest management?

A

Provide broad multiogan supportive care

204
Q

oxygen should be titrated to maintain a pulse oximetry saturation level between what range?

A

94% to 99%

205
Q

for stable patients with a regular wide complex, and monomorphic tachycardia, consider?

A

Adenosine

206
Q

how should appropriate endotracheal tube placement be confirmed?

A

End-tidal carbon dioxide or capnography

207
Q

what are initial steps of treating asystole/PEA?

A
  • Administer epinephrine
  • Provide CPR
  • Consider advanced airway
  • Establish IV/IO access
208
Q

to optimize preload in a post-cardiac arrest child, what fluid bolus amount should be administered ?

A

5 to 10 mL/kg over 10 to 20 min

209
Q

what can cause secondary brain injury?

A
  • Hypoxia
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hypotension
  • Hyperthermia
210
Q

which component of SAMPLE assesses immunization status?

A

Past medical HX

211
Q

what happens to the arterial oxygen level in a child with severe anemia?

A

may increase when dissolved oxygen is increased

Anesthesia Refreshers (2 decks)

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