Palliative Care Flashcards

1
Q

ACP

A

Advanced Care Plan - voluntary conversation and opportunity to patient to plan (w or w/o family) their future care whilst they still have capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ADRT

A

advanced decision to refuse treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which supersedes the other - LPA or ADRT

A

If the ADRT is made before the LPA, then the LPA supersedes. If the ADRT is made after the LPA, it is a legally binding document

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

cheyne-stokes breathing

A

rapid breathing then period of apnoea, can be sign of dying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Diagnosing Death

A

Confirm irreversible cessation of neurological (pupillary), cardiac and resp activity.
Drs (and some trained nurses) role
No pulses, absent breath and heart sounds
pupils fixed and dilated, no corneal reflex
no motor response to supraorbital pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

who can sign a death certificate

A

seen the person within the last 14 days before they died (covid now 28 days), not necessary to have seen the body after death as long as death certified by a competent person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When to refer to the coroner

A

unknown cause of death
sudden or unexpected death (<24hrs after admission to hospital)
Deceased person has not seen a dr within the 14 days before death
suspicious, unnatural or violent
accident,
infant death, self-neglect or neglect
prior employment
adue to an abortion
occured during opperation or before recovery from anaesthetic
during or shortly after police custody
suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

writing a death certificate

A

Part 1 - cause of death.
1a - the disease(/s) or condition that led directly to death
1b - any disease(/s) that lead to 1a
1c - any disease(/s) that lead to 1b
Part II - any other conditions that were not part in the main cause of death, but may have had an impact in hastening it (NOT entire PMH)
Box A -write in initial if have reffered to coroner
Box B - initial if may have more information in the future (e.g. lab results arent back yet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

who can sign cremation certificate

A

3 parts - dr caring for patient, independant dr, crem officer.
1st Dr must talk to 2nd dr, 2nd dr would talk to 3rd party (staff member or next of kin) to confirm details.
Both Drs must have seen the body after death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when do you need consent to do an autopsy

A

need consent from next of kin if being done for research or to better understand cause of death. if death has to be reffered to the coroner, then consent does not need to be given. However consent is needed if tissues are to be removed or retained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CD4 count for AIDS

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AIDS defining illness

A

resp - recurrent bacterial pneumonia, TB, PCP (pneumocystis jirovecii, fungus)
CNS - toxoplasmosis, cryptococcal meningitis, primary cerebral lymphoma (associated with EBV)
skin - karposi sarcoma (Human herpes virus 8). in mouth = bad prognostic indicator)
GI - bacterial, CMV (can also effect eyes), cryptosporidium, microsporidia, mycobacterium avium intracellulare (rare form of TB)
Lymph - NHL, diffuse large B cell, Burkitts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does toxoplasmosis look like on CT

A

adscess, effect basal ganglia, associated with severe oedema, ring enhancing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

blood test to monitor HIV

A
CD4 count (normal >500) 
Viral load (undetectable (<20/40 copies per ml)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

mechanism of NRTI (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)

A

stop viral RNA being converted to DNA by competing for binding sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mechanism of NNRTI (non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)

A

stop viral RNA being converted to DNA by blocking binding sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

protease inhibitor mechanism

A

stop new copies of HIV being produced by preventing productions of units needed for capsule formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

integrase inhibitors mechanism

A

stop viral DNA integrating into host cell DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

NRTI example

A

tenofovir, stavudine, emitricitbine, lamivudine, zidovudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

NRTI side effects

A

N&V, fatigue, headache, myelosuppressinon (Aneamia, bone marrow), panreatitis, neuropta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Analgesic Ladder

A

Step 1: non-opioid +/- adjuvant.
1. paracetamol
2. ibuprofen
3. Paracetamol and ibuprofen
4. paracetamol + alternative NSAID
Step 2: weak opioid (tramadol, codeine, co-proxamol, co-codamol, dihydrocodeine)
Step 3: strong opioid (morphine) +non-opioid +/- adjuvant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mechanism of paracetamol

A

inhibit Cox in CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what type of pain are NSAIDs good for

A

inflammatory, bone pain, NOT neuropathic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

side effects of NSAIDs

A

gastric irritation (dyspepsia, ulceration)
Brocnhospasm in asthmatics
May precipitate renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
dose of codein phosphate
30-6omg 4-6hrly, max dose 240mg in 24hrs
26
side effects of codeine
nausea and conspitation
27
compound preparations of codeine available
cocodamol 8/500 (8mg codeine, 500mg paracetamol) or 30/500 (30mg codeine...)
28
Methods of giving morphine
oral, subcut
29
peak plasma levels and suration of analgesia for oromorph (oral immediate release)
1 hr | 4 hrs
30
peak plasma conc and duration of analgesia for Zomorph (oral controlled release)
2-4hrs | 12hrs
31
peak plasma conc of parenteral (s/c) morphine or diamorphine
15-30mins
32
side effects of morphine
drowsiness (particularly common in beginning of treatment) N&V (occur in 2/3 patients, usually resolves, prescribe anti-emetic cover) Constipation (prophylactic laxative)
33
what to administer when converting to strong opioids
morphine, immediate release (5mg if opioid naive, 2.5mg if frail or elderly, 10mg if patient on max weak opioid and still in pain) 4hrly with same dose as prn
34
How to convert from immediate to controlled release morphine
work out total daily dose of immediate release morphine (regular + prn) divide by 2 to give bd dose breakthrough dose = total daily dose /6
35
how to know when to adjust controlled release dose
after 24hrs, check the number of breakthrough doses needed. if 2 or more, add total daily requirement and divide by 2 to get the new bd dose. remember to adjust breakthrough dose (new MST total daily/6)
36
converting oral to s/c morphine/diamorphine
work out total daily requirement of oral morphine. divide by 2 to convert to s/c morphine dose. divide by 3 to convert to s/c diamorphine dose. breakthrough dose = total daily requirement/6
37
options other than morphine if bad side effects (e.g. nightmares/hallucination)
oxycodone | alfentanyl
38
how do fentanyl patches work
lipophylic, so transcutaneous administration
39
how long does a fentanyl patch work
72hrs, doesnt matter what dose
40
why isnt a fentanyl patch suitable to give to a patient first starting on opioids
short half life - but build up in reservoir under the skin
41
adjuvant analgesics
Group of medications which relieve pain in specific circumstances neuropathic pain - tricyclic antidepressants (e.g. amiltryptiline) or anti-convulsant (e.g. gabapentin, pregabalin, carbamazepine) Bone pain - bisphosphinates
42
non-medical methods of pain relief
``` heat radiotherapy (bone mets) fracture stabilisation TENS (transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation) nerve block Spinal analgesia ```
43
controlled drugs symbol
controlled drugs are shown in the BNF with 'CD' | specific requirements govern the prescription of these drugs
44
metoclopramide - receptor antagonist
Dopamine
45
metoclopramide - site of action
peripheral (gut) | CTZ
46
metoclopramide - when to use/actions
Prokinetic | gastric stasis
47
metoclopramide - side effect
Colic in obstruction | extra-pyramidal side effects
48
receptor on the vomiting centre
muscarinic
49
receptor on the chemoreceptor trigger zone
dopamine and 5-HT
50
where are the vomiting centre and the CTZ
medulla | CTZ - outside the blood-brain barrier
51
cause of motion sickness
vestibule in the labrinth is responsible for balance. when problems occur signals are sent along to vestibular cochlear nerve to the brain stem, (vestibular nuclei, located in the pons)
52
what kind of receptors do vestibular nuclei have
Histamine 1 | muscarinic
53
which area is effected in morning sickness
labrinth/ vestibular nuclei
54
where is promethazine site of action and what is it used for
H1 receptor antagonist in the Vestibule (labrinth). used for morning sickness and motion sickness
55
examples of 5-HT receptor antag
end in setron, e.g. oldansetron
56
main types of antiemetic
5HT3 receptor antagonist H1 receptor antagonist Muscarinic receptor antagonist D2 receptor antagonist
57
example of muscarinic receptor antagonists and where they work
hyosine | vomiting centre in the medulla
58
metoclopramide - Dose
10mg TDS PO/Sc/IV | 30-80mg sc over 24hrs
59
Domperidone - receptor antagonist
Dopamine
60
Domperidone - site of action
Peripheral (does not cross blood brain barrier)
61
Domperidone - when to use
as metoclopramide (prokinetic, gastric stasis)
62
Domperidone - dose
20mg TDS | no driver option
63
Cyclizine - receptor antagonist
histamine | anti-cholinergic (muscarinic)
64
Cyclizine - site of action
Labrinth/vestibular
65
Cyclizine - when to use
increased ICP
66
Cyclizine - side effects
constipation irritant if sc dry mouth
67
Cyclizine - dose
50mg TDS PO/sc/IV | 100-150mg over 24hrs
68
Haloperidol - receptor antagonist
dopamine
69
Haloperidol - site of action
CTZ
70
Haloperidol - when to use/action
Metabolic (hypercalcaemia), drug induced
71
Haloperidol - side effects
sedation extra-pyramidal contra-indicated in parkinsons
72
Haloperidol - dose
1.5mg ON PO/SC 2.5mg-5mg over 24hrs
73
Levomepromazine - receptor antagonist
5HT2 Dopamine Ach M Histamine
74
Levomepromazine - site of action
VC | CTZ
75
Levomepromazine - when to use/actions
hits all receptors to useful if others have failed
76
Levomepromazine - side effects
sedation | reduce in renal failure
77
Levomepromazine - dose
6mg PO 5-10mg sc ON 25mg over 24hrs
78
ondansetron - receptor antagonist
5HT3
79
ondansetron - site of action
Central - CTZ | Peripheral - gut
80
ondansetron - when to use
chemo | after surgery
81
ondansetron - side effects
constipation
82
ondansetron - dose
4-8mg TDS PO/IV
83
Main palliative care drugs for pain/breathlessness
diamorphine or morphine
84
main palliative care meds for N&V
Haloperidol and/or cyclizine prokinetic - metoclopromide second line - levomepromazine
85
palliative care drugs for Agitation and anxiety
midazolam
86
palliative care drugs from anxiety and hallucinations or confusion
haloperidol, levomepromazine
87
palliative care drugs for noisy breathing due to resp tract infections
Glycopyrronium bromide hyoscine butylbromide hyoscine hydrobromide
88
management of breathlessness in pall care setting
reverse the reversible: bronchospams, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, pain, anaemia, infection, airway obstruction (stent, steroids, laser radiotherapy), SVCO, lymphangitis CCF, COPD, arrhythmias set realistic goals/expectations conservative: acknowledge fears and explore reasons, reassurance, breath retraining, panic management, physio, OT. medical: opioids, benzodiazepines (lorazepam, sublingual). Oxygen (for hypoxia), steroids, CPAP surgical: any reversible e.g. lobectomy for emphysema indwelling pleural drainage - pleurex catheter
89
medications for terminal breathlessness
opioids, benzo | note: need to explain ti patient and family. will make more drowsy but much more comfortable