Palliative care Flashcards

1
Q

what is the goal of palliative care

A

control symptoms and enhance QoL

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2
Q

what is palliative and end of life care

A

care provided to any pt for whom cure is not achievable, including those who may survive with progressive disease for many mths or years

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3
Q

when is a referral for specialist care done

A

multiple co-morbidities
disease burden
life limiting disease
high levels of planned hospital use
high level of planning ahead
symptom management not responding >48hrs after trt
complexity in one or more aspects of care

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4
Q

what is a holistic needs assessment

A

a questionaire that the pt fills out at any part of the pathway

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5
Q

why is a HNA good

A

develop a personalised care + support plan
starts a convo on needs
identifies pt concerns
sign post to relevant services
share the right info at the right time

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6
Q

what is the palliative care approach

A

not disease specific
relieves symptoms i.e pain and fatigue
affirms life
regards dying as normal
integrates spiritual and psychological aspects into pt care
support system to help pt live actively until death
support system to help family live with illness and bereavement
team approach to address pt needs and their families
enhance QoL and influence course of illness

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7
Q

what is the role of RT

A

managing terminally ill pts

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8
Q

what are the general indicators of decline

A

decreased activity and function
increasing dependence in ADL
advanced disease - complex symptom burden
decreasing response
no further choice for active trt
progressive weightloss
repeated unplanned admissions
serum albumin <25g/l

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9
Q

how many pt are managed with a palliative intent

A

50%

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10
Q

whats the purpose of palliative care

A

symptom control
patient management
trt specific guidelines
pt and family have a shared understanding of aims

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11
Q

what does best interest mean

A

acting on behalf of someone who lacks capacity when making a decision based on past, present wishes, feelings, valued and consulting with others involved in their care

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12
Q

what is a declaration

A

formal statement by making a decision for someone else under MCA they have a duty to consider the best interests

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13
Q

what does declared to the family mean

A

advanced directive family is informed that the person lacks capacity

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14
Q

what is capacity

A

to make the right decision for themselves

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15
Q

what stage is palliative care appropriate for

A

any stage

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16
Q

what does palliative care focus on

A

relieving pain
reducing illness
related complications
enhancing QoL
prolonging life with trt like chemo and radiotherapy

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17
Q

what does palliative provide

A

medical supplies and other needed equipment, which is covered by medical insurance

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18
Q

what needs does palliative care meet

A

psychological and spiritual needs

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19
Q

what test can be done to see if there are brain meta

A

plain xray or MRI

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20
Q

what test can be done for hypercalcaemia

A

blood test

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21
Q

what are the implications for brain mets

A

intent becomes life limiting
primary disease management could change
serious change in prognosis

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22
Q

implications for hypercalcaemia

A

may be a result from bone mets

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23
Q

what do biphosphonates do

A

prevent osteoclasts from breaking down bone and releasing calcium into the blood

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24
Q

what does calcitonin do

A

stops the breakdown of bone and absorption in the blood

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25
Q

what are brain met symptoms

A

persistent headache
vomiting
seizures
confusion
personality changes
numbness in arms/legs
speech difficulties

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26
Q

bone met symptoms

A

depression
confusion
memory loss
fatigue/lethargy
muscle weakness
bone pain

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27
Q

what % of pt with advanced cancer experience pain

A

80
2/3 due to cancer
1/3 due to other causes

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28
Q

what is the RT for cranium

A

short fractionated dose
dexamethasone = long course, high dose steroids

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29
Q

when should steroids be taken

A

in the morning to not impact sleep

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30
Q

corticosteroids SE

A

sleep issues
mood changes
indigestion
weight gain
thinning skin

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31
Q

what is classed as long term steroid use

A

> 3 months
might carry a red steroid card around

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32
Q

what is a high dose of steroids

A

> 6mg a day
carry a blue steroid card

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33
Q

example of corticosteroids

A

dexamethasone

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34
Q

what can pain be classified as

A

acute
chronic

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35
Q

what is pain

A

unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

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36
Q

what should happen regarding pain before trt

A

pt should be informed on the need for analgesia, which is administrated based off the WHO pain ladder

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37
Q

what are the pain SE

A

nausea
vomiting
constipation
pruritis (itching)
dizziness
dry mouth
sedation

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38
Q

what is the pain associated with bone mets

A

some get relief 24hrs after trt (cytotoxic effect prevents the release of chemical medications of pain from normal cells)
some experience a flare at 24 hrs

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39
Q

how long does RT pain control last

A

2-8 weeks as destroys some tumour cells at the deposit site

DONT GIVE RT IF THEY WONT SURVIVE 2–8 WKS

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40
Q

what are the type of antiemetics

A

ondanestron
levomepromazine
metoclopramide

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41
Q

what are the side effects of ondansetron

A

constipation

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42
Q

what is the side effects of metoclopramide

A

colic
diarrhoea

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43
Q

what line is levomepromazine

A

second line

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44
Q

side effects of levomepromazine

A

sedation, constipation, hypotension

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45
Q

what can we do to help with sickness

A

control malodour e.g colonstomy, fungating wound
fresh air
good oropharyngeal hygiene
avoid emetogenic smells and foods
avoid situations where nausea and vomiting responses are conditioned

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46
Q

management advice for constipation

A

fibre
increased fluid intake
exercise
laxatives

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47
Q

what is constipation common with

A

opiates

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48
Q

what are the different types of laxatives

A

osmotic
stimulant

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49
Q

what are osmotic laxatives

A

increases fluid in bowels softens stills and stimulates body to pass them

50
Q

examples of osmotic laxatives

A

lactulose and macro gels

51
Q

what are stimulant laxatives

A

stimulates muscles within the digestive tract lining

52
Q

examples of stimulant laxatives

A

senna
bisacodyl
sodium picosulphate

53
Q

what are the surgical procedures which can be carried out

A

pinning of pathological fractures
toilet mastectomy
debulking of lesions

54
Q

what is debulking lesions for

A

ovarian cancer seedlings
brain mets

55
Q

who is toilet mastectomy for

A

locally advanced or met breast cancer

56
Q

why is a toilet mastectomy done

A

to provide satisfactory relief from complications
some symptoms might be distressing for the pt:
- bleeding and secondary infections

57
Q

what needs to be assessed for a toilet mastectomy

A

skin closure to see if a WLE is possible

58
Q

what surgery should be avoided during a toilet mastectomy

A

axilla
due to the lymphatics and brachial plexus present

59
Q

what is a pathological fracture

A

a fracture caused by the disease itself

60
Q

why does a fracture result in pain

A

the fracture reaches the perisoteum (outer bone edge, which means it’s hit a wall of nerves)

61
Q

where is a pathological likely to be found

A

head/neck of femur
long bone

62
Q

what cancers are likely to result in bone mets

A

breast
prostate
lung
colorectal

63
Q

what is the appearance of a pathological fracture

A

moth eaten appearance
s-shape tearing type stress fracture
dark ring (radiolucent), lost bone density bone is all hollowed out

64
Q

what is the aim of debulking lesions

A

to remove as much tumour as possible
removal of cancer in specific locations i.e causing bowel obstruction improves patient nutritional and immunological needs

65
Q

why is it good debulking lesions

A

removing large necrotic masses promotes drug delivery to smaller tumours with a good blood supply

smaller tumours have a high growth fraction that should be more chemo sensitive

66
Q

what is the % of ovarian cancer which presents at III or VI

67
Q

where does ovarian cancer spread..

A

throughout the abdomen

68
Q

what is the aim of debulking ovarian cancer

A

leave no tumours behind no larger than 1cm = optimally debulked

69
Q

what is a sub optimal debulk

A

when tumours are left which are greater than 1cm

70
Q

what can ovarian seedlings lead to

A

ascites
(fluid caused by the immune response)

71
Q

what is a craniotomy

A

removal of portion of the skull

72
Q

what is brain met surgery best for

A

single met lesion in a well controlled systemic cancer

73
Q

what are surgical risks for brain mets

A

neurological deficits
infections
bleeding
surgery near the optic nerve causes vision loss

74
Q

what is hormone therapy mainly for

A

breast and prostate

75
Q

what is given for hormone therapy

A

corticosteroids

76
Q

examples of corticosteroids

A

dexamethasone, prednisone, prednisolone, hydrocortisone

77
Q

what are the acute risks of corticosteroids

A

dyspepsia
peptic ulcer disease
insomnia
oral + vaginal candidiasis
anxiety
glucose intolerance

78
Q

what are the chronic risks of corticosteroids

A

develop cushingoid appearance
weight gain
oedema
cataracts
osteoporosis
proximal myopathy
skin thinning
infection
impaired wound healing
neuropsychiatric changes: depression, agitation, delirium

79
Q

when is hormone therapy most beneficial for breast pts

A

post menopausal, disease free for 2 years

80
Q

what is tamoxifen

A

anti oestrogen (antagonist)
similar properties to oestrogen

81
Q

how does tamoxifen work

A

prevents hormone receptors from being activated

82
Q

what is breast cancer stimulated by

A

circulating oestrogens

83
Q

side effects of tamoxifen

A

hot flushes: airy clothes
feeling sick/vomiting: simple and bland foods
headache: pain killers
light headed/dizzy: don’t drive or use machinery
genital itching, menstrual changes, pain

84
Q

what are the two types of aromatase inhibitors

A

anastazole
letrazole

85
Q

what does anastazole do

A

blocks aromatase enzymes which are involved in oestrogen production in the body. decreases tumour size or delays progression

86
Q

what does letrazole do

A

inhibits the enzyme in the adrenal glands (aromatase) which produces oestrogen, oestrodiol and oestrone

87
Q

what progesterone drug can be given

A

megestrol acetate
MEGACE = second line
normally if everything else has failed mostly benefits pt who’s post menopausal and disease free for two years

88
Q

how does hormone therapy work for prostate cancer

A

stop testosterone from being produced, reaching prostate cells which rely on testosterone to grow

89
Q

what does hormone therapy do for prostate cancer

A

causes the cancer cells to die or grow more slowly

90
Q

side effects of HT for prostate cancer

A

loss of muscle mass
Increased body fat
Erectile dysfunction
Loss of sex drive
Bone thinning which leads to broken bones
Hot flushes
Fatigue
Behaviour changes
metabolism changes
decreased body hair, smaller genitalia, growth of breast tissue

91
Q

where is testosterone produced

A

testes
adrenal glands

92
Q

what do androgens do for men

A

control development and maintenance of male characteristics, promote growth of normal and cancerous cells by binding to and activating the androgen receptors

93
Q

what happens when the androgen receptors are activated by proteins

A

stimulates the expression of specific genes which cause prostate cells to grow

94
Q

what proteins stimulate the androgen receptors

A

testosterone
dihydrotestosterone

95
Q

why is an orchidectomy good

A

reduces circulation of androgens by 90% as some is released in the adrenal glands

96
Q

how many pt with advanced prostate cancer respond to surgical castration leading to reduced testosterone

97
Q

how long does the immediate effect last regarding an orchidectomy

A

up to 2 years

98
Q

what is the median response for an orchidectomy

A

18-24 months

99
Q

when is an orchidectomy done

A

for primary and met spread

100
Q

what is a medical castration

A

LHRH agonists prevent pituitary gland from secreting LH, which is similar structurally to LHRH which binds to the receptor

101
Q

describe what happens when androgen levels are low

A

when androgen levels are low the hypothalamus releases LHRH
stimulates the pituitary to produce LH which stimulates testicles to produce androgens

102
Q

what happens when LHRH agonist is given

A

initially stimulates LH causing more testosterone to be produced after first injection - a flare
continued high levels of agonists causes pituitary gland to stop producing LH, testicles are not stimulated to produce androgens

103
Q

what happens if they stop taking the agonist

A

production of LH resumes and androgens are produced

104
Q

what are the agonists which can be taken

A

zoladex, prostap, lupron
injection or implanted under skin

105
Q

what are the type of anti androgen tablets which can be taken

A

bicalutamide
cyproterone
flutamide

106
Q

what do the anti androgen tablets do

A

stop testosterone from reaching the cancer cells, less likely to cause a sexual issue + bone thinning but more likely to cause breast swelling, tenderness and liver problems

107
Q

what does the androgen deprivation therapy and docetaxel do

A

extends life (palliative care)

108
Q

who receives ADT and docetaxel

A

pt with advanced disease and good condition
SE can be difficult to manage

109
Q

what hormones do endometrial cancer tend to use

A

progesterone
progesterine

110
Q

why is progesterone good for endometrial cancer

A

slow growth of endometrial cells
useful for pt that want to get pregnant

111
Q

SE for progesterone/progesterine

A

hot flushes
weight gain (high fluid retention, increased appetite)
night sweats
worsening depression
increased blood sugar levels with diabetes
serious blood clots (rare)

112
Q

what type of progesterone therapy can be given for endometrial

A

megestrol acetate (capsule or liquid)
medroxyprogesterone (pill or injection)

113
Q

when are aromatase inhibitors given for endometrial pts

A

after ovaries removed or aren’t functioning

114
Q

where is oestrogen made if not in ovaries

A

fat tissue

115
Q

what do aromatase inhibitors do for endometrial cancer

A

stop oestrogen from being made
given if pts can’t have surgery

116
Q

what are the type of aromatase inhibitors given for endometrial pts

A

letrazole
anastrozole
etremstane

117
Q

what are the side effects to aromatase inhibitors for endometrial

A

headaches
joint pain
hot flushes
oestoporosis

118
Q

when is tamoxifen given for endometrial cancer

A

advanced or recurrent

119
Q

what is better tolerated for endo than progesterone alone

A

tamoxifen and progesterone alternate

120
Q

what is the goal of tamoxifen

A

prevent oestrogen from encourage cell growth of cancer

121
Q

SE of tamoxifen for endo

A

hot flushes
vaginal dryness
high risk of blood clots in legs
DOESNT CAUSE BONE LOSS