Pain & Opioids Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are opioids effects on the CO₂ medullary center?

A

Opioids inhibit the CO₂ medullary center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Differentiate opioids from narcotics.

A
  • Opioids: all exogenous substances that bind to endogenous opioid receptors.
  • Narcotic: any substance that can produce physical dependence (stupor).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What two types of opioid chemical structures are there?

A
  • Phenanthrenes
  • Benzylisoquinolines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What types of drugs are Phenanthrenes? What types of drugs are benzylisoquinolines?

A

Phenanthrenes: Morphine, codeine, thebaine
Benzylisoquinoline: Papaverine, noscapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is papaverine mostly used for?

A

Treating intra-arterial barbiturate administration (dilates the highly constricted artery).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What portions of the brain are the source of descending inhibitory signals? (3)

A
  • Periaqueductal gray (PAG)
  • RVM
  • Dorsal horn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What endogenous substances have the same effect as opioids?

A
  • Endorphins
  • Enkephalins
  • Dynorphines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Presynaptic inhibition of what neurotransmitters occurs with opioid administration?

A
  • ACh
  • Dopamine
  • NE
  • Substance P
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do opioids modulate pain at the cellular level?

A
  • Agonizes opioid receptors in pre/post synapse
  • hyperpolarization of cells
  • decreased neurotransmission (ACh, NE, dopamine, Substance P)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where are opioid receptors located in the brain?

A
  • PAG
  • Locus Coeruleus
  • RVM (rostral ventral medulla)
  • Hypothalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where is the primary site of opioid receptors in the spinal cord?

A
  • interneurons
  • Substantia gelatinosa (aka Laminae 2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is/are opioid receptors found outside the CNS?

A
  • Sensory neurons
  • immune cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the four (most important) types of opioid receptors?

A
  • Μu1 (μ₁)
  • Μu2 (μ₂)
  • Κappa (κ)
  • Delta (δ)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which opioid receptor(s) is/are responsible for respiratory depression & physical dependence?

A
  • Μu2
  • delta δ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which receptors are responsible for constipation?

A

Mu 2 > delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which receptors can cause urinary retention? Are there any receptors that cause diuresis when bound?

A
  • Retention: Μu1 and delta δ
  • Diuresis: Kappa κ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

All opioid receptors induce analgesia at both the brain and the spinal cord. T/F?

A

False
Μu2 receptors only cause analgesia at the spinal cord level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What opioid receptors have low abuse potential when bound?

A
  • Μu1
  • Kappa κ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which opioid receptor is responsible for euphoria, bradycardia, hypothermia, and miosis when bound?

A

Mu1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What agonists bind to each of the four opioid receptors?

A
  • Mu1 & Mu2 = endorphins, morphine, synthetics.
  • κ = dynorphins.
  • δ = enkephalins.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the adverse side effects of opioids on the cardiovascular system.

A
  • ↓BP, venous return, and CO
  • ↓HR or histamine release = ↓BP
  • +N2O or benzo = CV depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What possible cardiovascular benefits do opioids provide?

A

Myocardial ischemia protection (decrease oxygen demand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the respiratory effects of opioids? What would symptoms of overdose be?

A

Depressed CNS response to CO₂ causing a right shift of PaCO₂ (↑)
Overdose = apnea, miosis, coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What drug is given to treat apnea from opiod overdose?

A
  • Physostigmine
  • inhibits acetylcholinesterase
  • increased ACh levels
  • reverses ventilatory depresson but not analgesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What would cause a leftward shift in PaCO₂? What would cause a rightward shift?

A

Leftward: Metabolic acidosis (to breathe off all that CO₂)
Rightward: sleep, opiates, anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why should caution be used when administering opioids to head trauma patients?

A

Opioids ↓CBF and possibly ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What musculoskeletal abnormality occurs with opioid administration? What makes this condition worse? How is it treated?

A
  • Skeletal chest wall and abdominal muscle rigidity.
  • Mechanical ventilation
  • Muscle relaxants and/or naloxone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are sphincter of Oddi spasms? Which drugs can cause this?

A

Biliary smooth muscle spasm
* Fentanyl (99%)
* Morphine (53%)
* Meperidine (61%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How are opioid-induced sphincter of Oddi spasm’s treated?

A
  • Naloxone 40 mcg
  • Glucagon (2mg IV given incrementally) and causes no opioid antagonism.
  • atropine 0.2 mg
  • nalbuphine 10 mg
  • NTG 50 mcg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What drugs should be used for ERCP cases?

A

Non-opioids (multimodal approach w/ NSAIDs, gabapentin, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How long does it take (generally) to develop tolerance to opioids? What causes tolerance?

A
  • 2-3 weeks
  • morphine = 25 days
  • Downregulation (desensitized and decreased number of opioid receptor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the dosage of morphine? When does it peak? How long does it last?

A
  • 1 - 10 mg IV
  • Peak: 10 - 20 minutes
  • Duration: 4-5 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is morphine metabolized? What is the active metabolite and its significance?

A
  • Glucuronic acid conjugation in the liver
  • Morphine-6-glucuronide = active analgesic causing late resp depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What would occur with morphine overdose in a renal failure patient?

A

Prolonged ventilatory depression.

35
Q

What receptors does meperidine agonize?

A
  • μ and κ receptors
  • α2 receptors as well
36
Q

What are the analogues of meperidine? What other drugs does meperidine have a similar organic structure to?

A
  • Fentanyl & it’s derivatives
  • Lidocaine & Atropine
37
Q

How potent is Meperidine? How long does it last?

A

10% as potent as morphine
Duration: 2-4 hours

38
Q

What is the primary indication for meperidine? What dose is used?

A

Post-operative shivering
12.5mg IV

39
Q

When should meperidine not be used?

A

Bronchoscopies (promotes coughing)

40
Q

How potent is fentanyl?

A

75 - 125 x morphine.

41
Q

What is the blood-brain equilibration of fentanyl?

A

6.4 minutes
Potent with rapid onset and ↑ lipid solubility.

42
Q

What percent of fentanyl is subject to lung first-pass effect?

A
  • 75%
  • Reservoir for drug
  • results in decreased amount of active drug
43
Q

Where is fentanyl metabolized?

A

Liver via CYP3A
Principal metabolite: Norfentanil.

44
Q

How does fentanyl dosing change for the elderly or liver cirrhosis?

A

No change in elderly or cirrhotic patients.

45
Q

Describe what the graph below is showing.

A

Fentanyl has the greatest context-sensitive half-time of any of the fentanyl derivatives.

46
Q

What is the analgesia dosage of fentanyl? Induction dose?

A

Analgesia: 1-2 mcg/kg IV
Induction: 1.5-3 mcg/kg IV

47
Q

1mg of PO fentanyl is equivalent to?

A

5mg IV morphine

48
Q

What is the intrathecal dosage of fentanyl?

49
Q

What is the adult transmucosal dose of fentanyl?

A

Adult: 5 - 20 mcg/kg
Pediatric: 15 - 20 mcg/kg

50
Q

What is the transdermal dose of fentanyl?

A

75 - 100 μg (18 hours steady delivery)

51
Q

What is the fentanyl dose as adjunct with volatile anesthetics?

A

2-20 mcg/kg IV

52
Q

What the side effects of fentanyl?

A
  • ↓BP & ↓CO
  • Can cause seizures
  • modestly increase ICP
53
Q

How much more potent is sufentanil than fentanyl?

A

5-12 times more potent.

54
Q

How much of sufentanil is subject to lung first pass effects?

55
Q

How much of sufentanil is protein bound? What protein is it bound to?

A

92.5%
α-1 acid glycoprotein bound

56
Q

What is the analgesia dose of sufentanil?

A

Analgesia: 0.1 - 0.4 μg/kg IV

57
Q

What is the induction dose of sufentanil?

A

18.9 mcg/kg IV

58
Q

What is the sufentanil intraop dose? Infusion dose?

A

intraop: 0.3 - 1μg/kg IV
infusion: 0.5 - 1μg/kg/hr IV.

59
Q

What are side effects of sufentanil?

A
  • bradycardia
  • decreased CO
  • chest and abdominal wall rigidity
60
Q

What is the potency and onset of alfentanil?

A

1/5th less potent than fentanyl
Onset: 1.4 min > fentanyl/sufentanil

61
Q

What is the alfentanil induction dose?

A
  • Induction: 150 - 300 μg/kg IV
  • Laryngoscopy: 15 - 30 μg/kg IV
  • Maintenance: 25 - 150 μg/kg/hr IV with inhaled anesthetics.
62
Q

Alfentanil is contraindicated for? Why?

A
  • Parkinson’s disease
  • acute dystonia
63
Q

What receptor affinity does remifentanil have?
What is its potency?

A
  • selective μ opioid agonist
  • 15-20x as potent as alfentanil (= fentanyl)
64
Q

What is remifentanil’s structure and why is it important?

A

Ester Structure = hydrolyzed by plasma & tissue esterases

65
Q

What are the pharmacokinetics of remifentanil?

A
  • Rapid onset & offset (15 mins), very titratable, no accumulation.
  • Clearance: 3-4L/min (8x faster than alfentanil)
  • Peak: 30-60 seconds (fastest fentanyl derivative).
66
Q

What is the induction dose of remifentanil?

A

1 μg/kg IV over 1 min

67
Q

What is the maintenance dosing of remifentanil?

A

0.25-1 mcg/kg IV
or
0.005 - 2 μg/kg/min IV

68
Q

What is the E1/2 time of remifentanil?

A

6.3 minutes (99.8%)

69
Q

How potent is hydromorphone?
What is the dose?

A

5x more potent than morphine
0.5mg IV → 1-4 mg total

70
Q

What benefits does hydromorphone have over morphine?

A

No histamine release & no active metabolites.

71
Q

Why is codeine not given IV?

A

Histamine induced hypotension

72
Q

What is the E 1/2 time of codeine?

A

3-3.5 hours

73
Q

What is the dose of codeine for cough suppression?
Analgesia dose?

A

Cough: 15mg
Analgesia: 60mg (= about 5mg morphine).

74
Q

Which opioid is most cleared?

A

Remifentanil (3-4L/min)

75
Q

Which opioid(s) is/are the most protein bound?

A

Sufentanil, alfentanil, & remifentanil
Least = morphine.

76
Q

Which opioid is the highest percent non-ionized?

A

Alfentanil

77
Q

Morphine tends to relieve _____ type pain more than _____ type pain.

A

Dull: sharp

78
Q

Opioid + N2O or benzos can lead to?

A

CV depression (CO & BP)

79
Q

What negative effect does post-op shivering have?

A

increased metabolic demand 500%

80
Q

What is the metabolism profile for alfentanil? (metabolized by and metabolite)

A

metabolized by hepatic p450
metabolite: noralfentanil

81
Q

How potent is tramadol?

A

5-10x less than morphine

82
Q

Tramadol receptor? Dose?

A
  • µ with weak κ & δ
  • 3 mg/kg PO
  • interaction with coumadin
83
Q

What is methadone used for?

A
  • Opioid withdrawal
  • chronic pain