Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pnt Exam 1 > Pain > Flashcards

Pain Flashcards

0
Q

Acetaminophen ceiling effect at what dose

A

1000 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Acetaminophen routes of administration

A

Po pr iv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acetaminophen drug interactions

A

Increase inr with warfarin if over 2 g per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acetaminophen toxicities

A

Hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Nsaids toxicities

A 
Peptic ulcer
Renal dysfunction
Cv effects
Cns effects
Htn
Skin rash
Mild hepatotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Nsaids drug interactions

A

Anticoags- increase bleeding risk

Ace or arb- worsens renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Adverse effects of opioids common

A 
Euphoria drowsinesS
N/v
Decreased respiratory rate
Constipation
Pruritus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Less common aes of opioids

A 
Myoclonus
Seizures
Hallucinations
Confusion
Sexual dysfunction
Sleep disturbances
Dyspepsia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cis and precautions to opioids

A 
Respiratory diseases
Renal impairment
Hepatic impairment
Paralytic ileus
Other meds with cns suppressant effects (avoid with maois)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What drugs are morphine like

A

Morphine (roxanol, msir, avinza, kadian, ms contin)
Hydromorphone (dilaudid, exalgo)
Oxycodone (oxy ir, eth-oxydose, roxicodone, oxycontin, percocet, tylox)
Oxymorphone (opana)
Codiene
Hydrocodone (vicodin, vicoprophen, lortab, norco, rezira, zutripro)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which opioids have active metabolites

A

Morphine codeine and meperidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Morphine dose adjustments

A

Renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Morphine dose range

A

10-200. No ceiling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Morphine dosage forms

A 
Ir and er po
Oral solution
Iv
Im
Pr
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dosage forms of hydromorphone

A 
Ir po
Oral solution
Iv
Im
Subq
Intrathecal
Pr
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dose range of hydromorphone

A

1-16 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hydromorphone potentcy related to morphine

A

More potent but shorter acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Oxycodone potency compared to morphine

A

Slighty more potent but longer acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Available forms of oxycodone

A

Ir and er po. Oral solution and combo products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dose range of oxycodone

A

1.5-80 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Oxycodone metabolized y which cyps

A

3a4 and 2d6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Oxymorphone available dosage forms

A

Ir and er po

Injectable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pr counselig for oxymorphone

A

Take one hour before or two hours after meals. Enhanced absoption with food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Codeine potentcy compared to morphine

A

Much less potent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Codeine cyp enzyme

A

2d6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Codeines antitussive moa

A

Supresses reflex at cough center on medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hydrocodone potentcy compared to morphine

A

Similar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hydrocodone cyps

A

3a4 ad 2d6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hydrocodone availability

A

Er po

Combo products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Drugs categorized as meperidine like

A

Meperidine

Fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Meperidine dosage forms

A

Im
Po
Subq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dose adjustment for meperidine

A

In renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Toxicitiea of meperidine

A

Lower seizure threshold

Cns toxicities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

American pain society recommendation for meperidine

A

Less than 48 hours at doses less than 600 mg in 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Meperidine used for what not pain

A

Rigors and shivering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Fentanyl dosage forms

A

Transmucosal
Transdermal
Im
Iv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fentanyl cyp interactions

A

3a4 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Fentanyl dose range

A

100 to 1600 mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Transmucosal ir fentanyl indication

A

Acite breakthrough cancer pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Fentanyl patch indication

A

Chronic pain in opioid tolerant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cautions with fentanyl patch

A

Morbidly obese or cachectic

Exposure to heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Opioids with rems

A

Er formulations and fentanyl ir transmucosal products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Methadone available formulations

A

Injectable and oral (long acting oral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Blackbox of methadone

A

Qtc prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Methadone drug interactions

A 
Serontinin and norepinephrine inhibition
3a4
2b6
2c9
2c19
2d6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Pain definition

A

An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual of potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Allodynia definition

A

Pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

analgesia definition

A

absence of pain in response to stimulation which would normally be painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Anesthesia dolorsa definition

A

pain in an area or region which is anesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Causalgia definition

A

a syndrome of sustained burning pain, allodynia, and hyperpathia after a traumatic nerve lesion, often combined with vasomotor and sudomotor dysfunction and later trophic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Dysesthesia definition

A

an unpleasant abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evoked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Hyperalgesia definition

A

increased pain from a stimulus that normally provokes pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hyperesthesia definition

A

increased sensitivity to stimulation, excluding the special senses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hyperpathia

A

A painful syndrome characterized by an abnormally painful reaction to a stimulus, especially a repetitive stimulus, as well as an increased threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

hypoalgesia

A

diminished pain in response to a normally painful stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

hypoesthesia

A

decreased sensitivity to stimulation, excluding the special senses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Neuralgia

A

pain in the distribution of a nerve or nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

neuritis

A

inflammation of a nerve or nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Neuropathic pain

A

pain caused by a lesion or disease of the somatosensory nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

central neuropathic pain

A

pain caused by a lesion or disease of the central somatosensory nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Peripheral neuropathic pain

A

pain caused by a lesion or disease of the peripheral somatosensory nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

neuropathy

A

a disturbance of function or pathological change in a nerve;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

nociception

A

the neural process of encoding noxious stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

nociceptive neuron

A

a central or peripheral neuron of the somatosensory nervous system that is capable of encoding noxious stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

nociceptive pain

A

pain that arises from actual or threatened damage to non-neural tissue and is due to activation of nociceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Noxious stimulus

A

a stimulus that is damaging or threatens damage to normal tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

pain threshold

A

the minimum pain intensity of a stimulus that is perceived as painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Pain tolerance level

A

the maximum intensity of a pain-producing stimulus that a subject is willing to accept in a given situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Paresthesia

A

an abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evoked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

sensitization

A

increased responsiveness of nociceptive neurons to their normal input, and/or recruitment of a response to normally subthreshold inputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Central sensitization

A

increased responsiveness of nociceptive neurons in the central nervous system to their normal or subthreshold afferent input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

peripheral sensitization

A

increased responsiveness and reduced threshold of nociceptive neurons in the periphery to the stimulation of their receptive fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

non pharm for pain

A 
TENS
psychological intervention
cold/heat
massage
prayer/meditation
distraction
exercise
music
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

treatment goals of chronic pain

A

keep patient functional
improve mental health
decrease pain preception and dependence on drug therapy
decrease rate of physical deterioration
reduce pain as much as possible without undue aes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

acute pain treatment goals

A

reduction of pain to acceptable levels

facilitate recovery from underlying disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Who step 1 treatment option

A

non-opiod +/- adjuvant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

WHO step 2 treatment options

A

opiod for mild to moderate pain ATC
+/- non-opioid
+/- adjuvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

WHO step 3 treatment options

A

Opioid for moderate to severe pain
+/- non-opioid
+/- adjuvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Mixed opioid receptor agonists/antagonists MOA

A

stimulate kappa and sigma receptors, partially stimulate mu receptors

80
Q

Pentazocine brand name

A

talwin

81
Q

Pentazocine available forms

A

injectable solution

82
Q

Pentazocine/naloxone brand name

A

talwin NX

83
Q

Pentazocine/naloxone available forms

A

tablets

84
Q

Pentazocine/APAP brand name

A

talacen

85
Q

Pentazocine/APAP available forms

A

tablets

86
Q

Butorphanol brand name

A

stadol

87
Q

butorphanol available forms

A

injectable solution, nasal spray

88
Q

Nalbuphine brand name

A

nubain

89
Q

nalbuphine available forms

A

injectable solution

90
Q

buprenorphine brand names

A

buprenex, butrans, subutex

91
Q

buprenorphine available forms

A

injectable solution, transdermal patch, sublingual tablets

92
Q

buprenorphine/naloxone brand name

A

suboxone

93
Q

buprenorphine/naloxone available forms

A

sublingual tablets/film

94
Q

buprenophine cyp

A

3a4

95
Q

centrally acting analgesics

A

tapentadol, tramadol

96
Q

centrally acting analgesics MOA

A

mu receptors, inhibit norepinephrine reuptake (tramadol serotonin reuptake too)

97
Q

risks with centrally acting analgesics

A

seizures, serontonin syndrome (with SSRIs and TCAs)

98
Q

Tramadol Cyps

A

2d6

3a4

99
Q

tapentadol brand name

A

nucynta, Nucynta ER

100
Q

tapentadol available forms

A

tablets

101
Q

tramadol brand names

A

ultram, ryzolt, rybix ODT

102
Q

tramdol available forms

A

tablets

103
Q

tramadol/APAP brand name

A

ultracet

104
Q

Topical agents for pain

A

capsaicin cream
lidocaine patch
oral viscous lidocaine

105
Q

capsaicin cream MOA

A

depletes substance P

106
Q

AEs with capsaicin cream

A

burning/tingling; do not get in eyes

107
Q

Lidocaine patch brand

A

lidoderm

108
Q

lidocaine patch cyps

A

3a4, 1a2, 2a6, 2b6, 2c9

109
Q

oral viscous lidocaine brand

A

xylocaine

110
Q

tricyclic antidepressant used for pain

A

amitriptyline

111
Q

amitriptyline brand name

A

elavil

112
Q

FDA approved indication for lidocaine patches

A

post herpetic neuralgia

113
Q

dose of amitriptyline

A

start 25 mg target 25-150mg

114
Q

anticonvulsants used for pain

A 
gabapentin
pregabalin
carbamazepine
valproic acid
lamotrigine
tiagabine
topiramate
115
Q

gabapentin brand name

A

neurontin

116
Q

gabapentin FDA indication of pain

A

post herpetic neuralgia

117
Q

starting dose of gabapentin

A

300 mg/day divided doses

118
Q

pregabalin brand name

A

lyrica

119
Q

pregabalin fda indication of pain

A

diabetic peripheral neuropathy
post herpetic neuralgia
fibromyalgia

120
Q

pregabalin starting dose

A

50 mg TID (DPN) 75 mg BID (PHN)

121
Q

SNRI used for pain

A

duloxetine

122
Q

duloxetine brand name

A

cymbalta

123
Q

duloxetine fda indication

A

diabetic peripheral neuropathy

fibromyalgia

124
Q

duloxetine starting dose

A

60 mg QD

125
Q

NMDA antagonists used for pain

A

dextromethorphan
amantadine
ketamine

126
Q

Cautions using TCAs for pain

A

in elderly and cardiac patients

127
Q

Medications used for bone pain

A

corticosteroids

bisphosphonates/bone resorption modifiers

128
Q

bisphophonates used for pain

A

pamidronate

zoledronic acid

129
Q

pamidronate brand name

A

aredia

130
Q

pamidronate dose

A

30-90 mg IV q3-4 weeks

131
Q

zoledronic acid brand name

A

zometa

132
Q

zoledronic acid dose

A

4 mg IV q3-4 weeks

133
Q

AEs of bisphosphonates/bone resoption modifiers

A

osteonecrosis of the jaw

134
Q

bone resorption modifiers used for pain

A

calcitonin

denosumab

135
Q

calcitonin brand name

A

miacalcin

136
Q

calcitonin dose

A

100-200 IU.day IV/subQ

137
Q

denosumab brand name

A

Xgeva

138
Q

denosumab dose

A

120 mg SubQ q3-4weeks

139
Q

Ziconotide brand name

A

prialt

140
Q

ziconotide indication

A

pain with intolerance or refractory to other therapies

141
Q

ziconotide MOA

A

binds to N type calcium channels or nociceptive neurons in dorsal horn

142
Q

ziconotide available forms

A

intrathecal

143
Q

ziconotide black box

A

psychotic symptoms, neurological impairment

144
Q

regional analgesics used for pain

A 
procaine
tetracaine
buprivacaine
lidocaine
ropicacine
145
Q

use of opioid antagonists

A

narcotic overdose, reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids

146
Q

opioid antagonists

A

naloxone

naltrexone

147
Q

naloxone brand

A

narcan

148
Q

naloxone dose

A

0.4-2mg IV Q20-60 minutes

149
Q

naltrexone brands

A

depade, revia

150
Q

First line for prevention/treatment of opioid induced constipation

A

senokot S

151
Q

methylnaltrexone brand

A

relistor

152
Q

methylnaltrexone use

A

opioid induced constipation in advanced illness with inadequate response to traditional laxatives

153
Q

methylnaltrexone MOA

A

mu receptor antagonist that does not cross BBB and works in GI tract

154
Q

methylnaltrexone dosage form

A

subQ

155
Q

which opioids carry highest risk of respiratory depression

A

morphine

oxymorphone

156
Q

pruritis is most common with which opioid

A

morphine

157
Q

tolerance definition

A

physiologic response; patient required inreasing doses to achieve the same analagesic response

158
Q

dependence definition

A

phyiologic response; patient requires continuous dosing to prevent withdrawal symptoms

159
Q

addiction definition

A

psychological response; misusing a substance for other purposes, despite negative consequences to health, employment, legal, and social situations

160
Q

psuedoaddiction definition

A

some behaviors of addiction are displayed; behaviors cease when pain is controlled

161
Q

Schedule I definition

A

high potential for abuse; no currently accepted medical use

162
Q

schedule II definition

A

high potential for abuse, currently accepted medical use; abuse can lead to severe psychological/physiological dependence

163
Q

schedule II examples

A 
morphine
hydromorphone
oxycodone
oxymorphone
hydrocodone
meperidine
fentanyl
methadone
pentazocine
tapentadol
164
Q

schedule III definition

A

potential for abuse but less than drugs in Schedule I or II; currently accepted medical use; abuse may lead to moderate-low physiological or high psychological dependence

165
Q

Schedule III examples

A

buprenorphine

ketamine

166
Q

Schedule IV definition

A

low potential for abuse relative to drugs in Schedule III; currently accepted medical use; abuse may lead to limited physiological/psychological dependence relative to drugs in schedule III

167
Q

Schedule IV examples

A

tramadol, buorphanol

168
Q

schedule V definition

A

low potential for abuse relative to schedule IV; currently accepted medical use; abuse may lead to limited physiological/psychological dependence relative to schedule IV

169
Q

schedule V examples

A

pregabalin

170
Q

breakthrough pain definition

A

acute pain that occurs despite current long-acting/controlled release treatment

171
Q

breakthrough pain dose is what percent of total daily

A

5-15% q3-6 hours

172
Q

Reduce dose by what percent when switching opioids to account for cross tolerance

A

25%

173
Q

components of a PCA order

A

basal rate
patient controlled bolus dose
lockout period

174
Q

morphine IR tablets brand name

A

MSIR

175
Q

morphine IR oral solution brand name

A

roxanol

176
Q

morphine ER brand name

A

avinza, kadian, MS contin

177
Q

hydromorphone IR brand name

A

dilaudid

178
Q

hydromorphone ER brand name

A

exalgo

179
Q

Oxycodone IR brand name tablets

A

oxyIR, roxicodone

180
Q

Oxycodone ER brand name

A

Oxycontin

181
Q

oxycodone IR solution brand name

A

eth-oxydose

182
Q

oxycodone/APAP brand names

A

percocet, tylox

183
Q

oxymorphone brand name

A

opana

184
Q

hydrocodone ER brand name

A

zohydro ER

185
Q

hydrocodone/APAP brand name

A

vicodin, norco, lortab

186
Q

hydrocodone/ibuprophen brand name

A

vicoprophen

187
Q

hydrocodone/psuedophedrine brand name

A

rezira

188
Q

hydrocodone/chlorpheniramine/pseudophedrine brand name

A

zutripro

189
Q

meperidine brand name

A

demerol

190
Q

fentanyl oral lozenge brand name

A

actiq

191
Q

fentanyl buccal tablet brand name

A

fentora

192
Q

fentanyl buccal soluble film brand name

A

onsolis

193
Q

fentanyl sublingual spray brand name

A

subsys

194
Q

fentanyl sublingual tablets brand name

A

abstral

195
Q

fentanyl nasal spray brand name

A

lazanda

196
Q

fentanyl transdermal patch brand name

A

duragesic

197
Q

methadone brand names

A

dolophine, methadose

Pnt Exam 1 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions