Pain Flashcards

1
Q

What is pain

A

An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two aspects pain can be divided into

A

Sensory-discriminative aspects: the location, intensity, and quality of the noxious stimulation.
Affective-motivational aspects: the unpleasant feeling, the fear and anxiety, and the autonomic activation that accompany exposure to a noxious stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can hypnosis affect pain?

A

It might alleviate pain by decreasing the activity of brain areas involved in the experience of suffering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is pain without unpleasantness called?

A

Asymbolia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is asymbolia?

A

Patients with lesions in the anterior cingulate or insular cortex who perceive noxious stimuli as painful and can distinguish sharp from dull and identify the location and intensity but fail to display the appropriate emotional response

They perceive the noxious stimuli but fail to display the emotional response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the false alarm theory of Ramachandran

A

When the insular cortex is damaged, patients giggle in response to pain, presumably because they can still sense the pain (‘danger’) but the pain is no longer aversive (‘false alarm’), thereby fulfilling the two key requirements for laughter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is social pain

A

The unpleasant experience that is associated with actual or potential damage to one’s sense of social connection or social value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what region of the brain mediates the emotional distress of pain

A

anterior cingulate cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Does social rejection cause similar reactions as physical pain?

A

yes, social rejection activates the anterior cingulate cortex which mediates emotional distress of pain from physical damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is nociception? What are nociceptors? Free nerve endings?

A

Nociception: the sensory neural processes of encoding and processing noxious stimuli, depends on specifically dedicated receptors and pathways distinct from the sensory processing of ordinary mechanical stimulation
Nociceptor: The unspecialized free nerve cell endings that respond to stimuli that produce tissue damage and initiate the sensation of pain
Free nerve ending: an axon that terminates in the skin without any specialized cell associated with it and that detects pain and/or changes in temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a receptor cell

A

A specialized cell that responds to a particular energy or substance in the internal or external environment and converts energy into a change in the electrical potential across its membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are labeled lines

A

the concept that each nerve input to the brain reports only a particular type of information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is sensory transduction

A

The process in which a receptor cell converts the energy in a stimulus into a change in electrical potential across its membran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a receptor potential

A

Also called generator potential. A local change in the resting potential of a receptor cell that mediates between the impact of stimuli and the initiation of action potentials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the receptor type, axon type, diameter, and conduction speed of proprioception

A

Receptor type: Muscle spindle
Axon type: A alpha
Diameter: 13-20
Conduction speed: 80-120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the receptor type, axon type, diameter, and conduction speed of touch

A

Receptor type: Pacinian corpuscles, Ruffini’s endings, Merkel’s discs, Meissner’s corpuscles
Axon type: A beta
Diameter: 6-12
Conduction speed: 35-75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the receptor type, axon type, diameter, and conduction speed of pain and temperature

A

Receptor type: Free nerve endings
Axon type: A delta
Diameter: 1-5
Conduction speed: 5-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the receptor type, axon type, diameter, and conduction speed of temperature, pain, and itch

A

Receptor type: Free nerve endings
Axon type: C
Diameter: 0.2-1.5
Conduction speed: less than 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which primary afferent fibres carry first pain? Which one carries second pain?

A

Thinly myelinated fibres carry first pain (A delta)
Unmyelinated fibres carry second pain (C fiber)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the pathway of transduction of nociceptive signals

A

Noxious stimuli are transduced into electrical activity at peripheral terminals of nociceptors by specific receptors. This activity is conducted to the spinal cord and after transmission to the cortex where the sensation of pain is experienced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the TRP channel activation pathway

A

Bradykinin (BK) binds to G protein-coupled receptors on the surface of primary afferent neurons to activate phospholipase C (PLC), leading to the hydrolysis of membrane phosphatidylinositol bisphosphate (PIP2), the production of inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3), and the release of Ca2+ from intracellular stores. Hydrolysis also results in the activation of protein kinase C (PKC) which regulates TRP channel activity. The TRPV1 channel is sensitized, leading to channel opening and Ca2+ influx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Order the following channels from lowest temperature to highest
TRPV1, TRPV2, TRPV3, TRPV4, TRPA1, TRPM8

A

TRPA1:
TRPM8:
TRPV4:
TRPV3:
TRPV1:
TRPV2:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What activates TRPV1

A

Capsaicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What temperatures do TRPM8, TRPV1, and TRPM3 detect? Which fibres do they transmit over?

A

TRPM8: temperatures below normal body temperature, C fibres
TRPV1(Capsaicin): Moderate heat, C fibres
TRPM3: High temperatures, myelinated A-delta fibres
Transient receptor potential vanilloid type 1 (TRPV1) Also called vanilloid receptor 1. A receptor that binds capsaicin to transmit the burning sensation from chili peppers and normally detects sudden increases in temperature.
Transient receptor potential type M3 (TRPM3) A receptor, found in some free nerve endings, that opens its channel in response to rising temperatures.
TRPM8 Also called cool-menthol receptor 1 (CMR1). A sensory receptor, found in some free nerve endings, that opens an ion channel in response to a mild temperature drop or exposure to menthol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is range fractionation?

A

A hypothesis of stimulus intensity perception stating that a wide range of intensity values can be encoded by a group of cells, each of which is a specialist for a particular range of stimulus intensities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

Increased sensitivity, resulting from sensitization of nociceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the pathway of peripheral sensitization

A

Tissue injury and inflammation lead to the release of numerous chemicals from non-neuronal and neuronal cells such as mast cells and macrophages. These cells release mediators such as protons, purines, and cytokines. These may directly or indirectly alter sensitivity of peripheral nociceptors.
Mast cell degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is allodynia, hyperalgesia, and hypoalgesia

A

Allodynia: Pain caused by a normally non-painful stimulus
Hyperalgesia: A heightened experience of pain caused by a noxious stimulus
Hypoalgesia: A decreased perception of pain caused by a noxious stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the efferent actions of nociceptors

A

A noxious stimulus leads to action potentials in nociceptive fibers that propagate not only to the central nervous system but also antidromically into peripheral branches. These antidromic action potentials lead to the release of neuropeptides such as substance P, calcitonin gene–related peptide (CGRP), and neurokinin A (NKA). These substances can stimulate epidermal cells (1) and immune cells (2) or lead to vasodilatation (3), plasma extravasation (4), and smooth muscle contraction (5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are CGRP

A

Potent vasodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe neurogenic inflammation

A

Injury or tissue damage releases bradykinin and prostaglandins, which activate or sensitize nociceptors. Activation of nociceptors leads to the release of substance P and CGRP (calcitonin gene–related peptide). Substance P acts on mast cells in the vicinity of sensory endings to evoke degranulation and the release of histamine, which directly excites nociceptors. Substance P produces plasma extravasation, and CGRP produces dilation of peripheral blood vessels; the resultant edema causes additional liberation of bradykinin. These mechanisms also occur in healthy tissue, where they cause secondary or spreading hyperalgesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which channels are particularly important in the transformation of generator potentials to action potentials?

A

NaV 1.7 in the pacemaker zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Why do grasshopper mice not show pain in response to bark scorpion venom?

A

The bark scorpion toxin activates Nav1.7 channels in grasshopper mice and lab mice. But in grasshopper mice, the toxin potently inhibits the Nav1.8 channel in the same sensory neurons, tipping the balance to inhibit action potential firing in nociceptors. This evolutionary adaptation allows grasshopper mice to feed on bark scorpions with impunity. In contrast, the lab mouse Nav1.8 channel is not blocked by the toxin and the scorpion sting excites nociceptors, causing intense pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

describe the organization of the dorsal horn. A-delta, A-Beta, and C fiber?

A

Neurons in lamina I of the dorsal horn receive direct input from myelinated (Aδ) nociceptive fibres and both direct and indirect input from unmyelinated (C) nociceptive fibres via interneurons in lamina II. Lamina V neurons receive low-threshold input from large-diameter myelinated fibres (Aβ) of mechanoreceptors as well as inputs from nociceptive afferent fibres (Aδ and C fibers). Lamina V neurons send dendrites to lamina IV, where they are contacted by the terminals of Aβ primary afferents. Dendrites in lamina III arising from cells in lamina V are contacted by the axon terminals of lamina II interneurons. Aα fibres innervate motor neurons and interneurons in the ventral spinal cord (not shown).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is referred pain? How does it happen? Describe the pain in myocardial infarction and angina?

A

Signals from nociceptors in the viscera that can be felt elsewhere in the body.
Convergence of visceral and somatic afferent fibers may account for referred pain. Nociceptive afferent fibers from the viscera and fibers from specific areas of the skin converge on the same projection neurons in the dorsal horn. The brain has no way of knowing the actual site of the noxious stimulus and mistakenly associates a signal from a visceral organ with an area of skin
Myocardial infarction and angina can be experienced as deep referred pain in the chest and left arm. The source of the pain can be readily predicted from the site of referred pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the two classes of synaptic vesicles and which neurotransmitters to they transport?

A

small electron-lucent vesicles contain glutamate
Large dense-cored vesicles hold neuropeptides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how does pain reach the brain?

A

Through the anterolateral system aka spinothalamic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the anterolateral system

A

Also called spinothalamic system. A somatosensory system that carries most of the pain and temperature information from the body to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

describe the anterolateral pathway

A

Primary afferent axons terminate in dorsal horn –> secondary axons cross the midline –> ascend contralateral anterolateral column to thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe the doral column pathway

A

Primary afferent axons enter spinal cord –> ascend ipsilateral dorsal columns –> synapse in medulla –> secondary axons cross the midline –> ascend to contralateral thalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe Brown-Sequard syndrome

A

Hemicord lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What will a lesion restricted to the left half of the spinal cord result in?

A

Results in dissociated sensory loss and mechanosensory deficits in the left half of the body, with pain and temperature deficits on the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is naloxone

A

A potent antagonist of opiates that is often administered to people who have taken drug overdoses. It blocks receptors for endogenous opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is analgesia

A

Absence of or reduction in pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are opiates

A

A class of compounds that exert an effect like that of opium, including reduced pain sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are endogenous opioids

A

A class of peptides produced in various regions of the brain that bind to opioid receptors and act like opiates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are endorphins, enkephalins, and dynorphins?

A

three kinds of endogenous opioids, substances that reduce pain perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are opioid receptors

A

A receptor that responds to endogenous and/or exogenous opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is periaqueductal gray

A

The neuronal body–rich region of the midbrain surrounds the cerebral aqueduct that connects the third and fourth ventricles. It is involved in pain perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Describe the regulation of nociceptive signals at dorsal horn synapses. How do opiates affect it?

A
  1. Activation of a nociceptor leads to the release of glutamate and neuropeptides from the primary sensory neuron, producing an excitatory postsynaptic potential in the projection neuron.
  2. Opiates decrease the duration of the postsynaptic potential, probably by reducing Ca2+ influx and thus decreasing the release of transmitter from the primary sensory terminals. In addition, opiates hyperpolarize the dorsal horn neurons by activating a K+ conductance and thus decrease the amplitude of the postsynaptic potential in the dorsal horn neuron.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are electroencephalograms?

A

Offers a window into brain function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe how the very small electrical fields are generated by synaptic currents in pyramidal cells

A

the active synapse is on the upper part of the dendrite. When the afferent axon fires, the presynaptic terminal releases glutamate, which opens cation channels. Positive current flows into the dendrite, leaving a slight negativity in the extracellular fluid. Current spreads down the dendrite and escapes from its deeper parts, leaving the fluid slightly positive at those sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How are large EEG signals generated?

A

If the inputs fire within a narrow time window, the pyramidal cell responses are synchronized, resulting in a large EEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe delta rhythms

A

<4 Hz large in amplitude, a hallmark of deep sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Describe Theta rhythms

A

4-7 Hz associated with sleeping and waking states

56
Q

Describe alpha rhythms

A

15–30 Hz activated cortex

57
Q

describe beta rhythms

A

15–30 Hz activated cortex

58
Q

describe gamma rhythms

A

30–90 Hz, and signal an activated or attentive cortex

59
Q

describe spindles

A

brief 12–14 Hz waves associated with sleep

60
Q

describe ripples

A

brief bouts of 80–200 Hz oscillations

61
Q

How do EEG rhythms vary across different brain sizes

A

very little

62
Q

When are bursts of action potentials evoked in the thalamocortical neuron

A

When the thalamocortical neuron is hyperpolarized sufficiently to activate low-threshold calcium channels

63
Q

describe the EEG of an alert, awake human? Describe the frequencies and amplitude and what is the mix called?

A

EEG is desynchronized with a mix of high frequencies and low amplitudes called beta activity.

64
Q

when do alpha rhythms appear

A

appear during relaxation during stage 1 sleep

65
Q

What are vertex spikes

A

Sharp waves that appear during stage 1 sleep

66
Q

What are the rhythms present in stage 2 sleep

A

Brief periods of sleep spindles and K complexes

67
Q

what rhythm is present in stage 3 (SWS)

A

delta waves

68
Q

Compare the EEG activity of Waking and REM sleep

A

very similar activity

69
Q

describe the lengths of REM episodes and Stage 3 sleep as the night goes on

A

REM episodes lengthen and there is a loss of stage 3 sleep

70
Q

what is NREM sleep?

A

Characterized by slow, rolling eye movements (stage I) followed by decreases in muscle tone, body movements, heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, metabolic rate, and temperature.
All these parameters reach their lowest values during SWS sleep

71
Q

What is REM sleep?

A

Characterized by rapid, ballistic eye movements, as well as by pupillary constriction, paralysis of many large muscle groups, and the twitching of the smaller muscles in the fingers, toes, and middle ear. Blood pressure, heart rate, and metabolism increase to levels almost as high as those found in the awake state.

72
Q

Describe the amount of REM and NREM sleep we have as we age?

A

Reduction in both REM and NREM sleep. Severe reduction in stage 3 sleep and frequent awakenings

73
Q

what is fatal familial insomnia? Where do holes develop in the brain?

A

An inherited disorder in which humans sleep normally at the beginning of their life but stop sleeping in midlife and die 7-24 months later. Large holes develop in the frontal cortex.

74
Q

What are Euthermic arousals

A

their body temperatures are restored to normal. When they go into hibernation they go into a torpid state but every couple time intervals they warm themselves up. They warm themselves up to go to sleep. They forego this massive energetic cost to get the benefit of sleep. Warm themselves up for a little while then go to sleep again for a little bit

75
Q

T/F all mammals investigated have been shown to have REM and NREM sleep

A

true

76
Q

What is unihemispheric slow-wave sleep

A

Sleeping one hemisphere at a time. One hemisphere exhibit wakefulness while the other exhibits characteristics of sleep

77
Q

What is memory

A

The ability to retain information, based on the mental process of learning or encoding, retention across some interval of time, and retrieval or reactivation of the information

78
Q

What is episodic memory

A

Memory of a particular incident or a particular time and place. comprises associations of several elements such as objects, space, and times. The associations are encoded by chemical and physical changes in neurons as well as by modifications to synapses between neurons

79
Q

What is memory consolidation

A

A process that converts and stabilizes information from short-term memory into long-term storage. Hippocampal–neocortical memory consolidation involves the transfer of hippocampal episodic memory into the neocortex during an offline (such as sleep) process after waking experiences in memory acquisition.

80
Q

What is encoding

A

A stage of memory formation in which the information entering sensory channels is passed into short-term memory

81
Q

What is an engram

A

The physical basis of a memory in the brain. It is sometimes referred to as a memory trace on the assumption that it involves changes in a neural circuit rather than a single neuron

82
Q

Describe the model of memory consolidation

A

Memory formation is initiated by synaptic changes in the hippocampus. In this schematic, the hippocampal neurons interact with neurons in three distributed areas of neocortex. A temporary memory trace is formed in the hippocampus through synaptic consolidation and engrams later develop in neocortex through systems consolidation. Over time, memory depends more on connections in neocortex and less on the hippocampus

83
Q

describe the model for encoding, consolidation and retrieval of memories

A

According to this model, medial temporal lobe processes distribute the various sensory attributes of an event, and linkages between them, in corresponding regions of cortex. Before consolidation is complete, retrieval involves the hippocampus and other medial temporal structures. After consolidation, retrieval may occur independent of the medial temporal system

84
Q

which part of the brain is important for spatial learning

A

hippocampus

85
Q

What are place cells and grid cells

A

Place cell: A neuron within the hippocampus that selectively fires when the animal is in a particular location. Place cells encode locations
Grid cell: A neuron that selectively fires when an animal crosses the intersection points of an abstract grid map of the local environment.

86
Q

describe the model of active system consolidation during sleep

A

during SWS, memories newly encoded into a temporary store (i.e., the hippocampus in the declarative memory system) are repeatedly reactivated, which drives their gradual redistribution to the long-term store (i.e., the neocortex). B: system consolidation during SWS relies on a dialogue between neocortex and hippocampus under top-down control by the neocortical slow oscillations (red). The depolarizing up phases of the slow oscillations drive the repeated reactivation of hippocampal memory representations together with sharp wave-ripples (green) and thalamo-cortical spindles (blue). This synchronous drive allows for the formation of spindle-ripple events where sharp wave-ripples and associated reactivated memory information becomes nested into succeeding troughs of a spindle

87
Q

Describe the glymphatic system

A

The system provides a flow of CSF through the interior of the brain that helps to clear cellular debris, proteins, and other wastes.
CSF flows from the subarachnoid space into the periarterial space surrounding fine arterioles that penetrate the brain. CSF enters the brain tissue via aquaporins and then flows through the brain. The CSF then drains into the perivascular space surrounding the brain capillaries
Convective glymphatic fluxes of CSF and ISF propel the waste products of neuron metabolism into the paravenous space, from which they are directed into lymphatic vessels and ultimately return to the general circulation for clearance by the kidney and liver

88
Q

What are hypnograms

A

constructed from EEG recordings and display the cyclic transitions between sleep stages

89
Q

What are the 5 neurotransmitters important in the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle? (brain region, waking levels, SWS levels, REM levels)

A

Acetylcholine: Pons/basal forebrain/medial septum, high waking levels, low SWS levels, high REM levels
Norepinephrine: Locus coeruleus, High waking, low SWS, Low REM
Serotonin: Raphe nuclei, High waking, decreasing SWS, low REM
Histamine: Tuberomammiliary nucleus, High waking, low SWS, Low REM
Orexin: Lateral hypothalamus, High waking, low SWS, Low REM

90
Q

Describe the rhythms of Thalamic neurons firing before and after ACh, NE, and histamine.

A

Before: Tendency to generate slow, delta-frequency rhythms of intrinsic burst-firing
After: Neurons depolarize and switch to a more excitable single-spiking mode
May resemble switch from non-REM to waking

91
Q

what is the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus

A

The major sleep-promoting region

92
Q

What are the major wakefulness promoting regions

A

The basal forebrain and pontine region (brain stem and forebrain)

93
Q

Describe the flip-flop circuit for the sleep/wake transition. Which system is inhibited when it is off and on?

A

there is mutual inhibition between the sleep-promoting region in vlPOA and the wakefulness-promoting regions
When the flip flop is on the sleep-promoting region is inhibited
When the flip-flop is off the wakefulness region is inhibited

94
Q

what are the effects of orexin neurons on the flip-flop circuit? how are orexin neurons activated?

A

Activation of orexin neurons holds the flip-flop on. Motivation to remain awake or events that disturb sleep activate the orexinergic neurons

95
Q

Describe narcolepsy and cataplexy

A

narcolepsy A disorder that involves frequent, intense episodes of sleep, which last from 5 to 30 minutes and can occur anytime during the usual waking hours.
cataplexy Sudden loss of muscle tone, leading to collapse of the body without loss of consciousness

95
Q

Describe narcolepsy and cataplexy

A

narcolepsy A disorder that involves frequent, intense episodes of sleep, which last from 5 to 30 minutes and can occur anytime during the usual waking hours.
cataplexy Sudden loss of muscle tone, leading to collapse of the body without loss of consciousness

96
Q

which neurons are decreased in people with narcolepsy

A

hypocretin neurons

97
Q

how is sleep initiated in narcoleptic patients

A

initiated with REM sleep, normally sleep is initiated with stage 1 sleep

98
Q

describe the REM sleep flip-flop

A

During waking the LF orexinergic neurons turn on REM neurons and you are put on the off state
When switching to the sleep neurons the LH orexinergic neurons decrease and the REM-ON neurons take over
Only one state (on/off) can be on at a time (REM Sleep Flip-Flop)

99
Q

which stage of sleep do people act out

A

in REM sleep

100
Q

Describe the motor function and sleep atonia circuit during wake and sleep periods

A

The Atonia circuits inhibit the lower spinal neurons during REM sleep. SLD stimulates GABAergic interneurons which antagonize lower motor neurons which cause the paralysis

101
Q

what is somnambulism and when is it most common

A

sleep walking and most common in slow wave stage sleep

102
Q

What are the functions of the basal ganglia

A

important in the control of movement, the selection and initiation of voluntary movements
plays a supervision role in regulating the activity in upper motor neurons

103
Q

What is Bordmann’s area

A

plays an important role in planning of complex, coordinated movements

104
Q

What are the grey matter structures

A

corpus striatum and the pallidum

105
Q

what are the components of the corpus striatum

A

Putamen and caudate

106
Q

What are the two components of the pallidum

A

Globus pallidus and substantia nigra pars reticulata

107
Q

what are medium spiny neurons

A

Medium spiny neurons in the corpus striatum integrate inputs from cortical, thalamic, and brainstem structures in the corpus striatum via glutamatergic synapses
A single medium spiny neuron integrates thousands of cortical cells

108
Q

describe how MSN work

A

They have a strong inward potassium conductance and they require lots of excitatory inputs to overcome the stabilizing influence of potassium conductance
little spontaneous activity

109
Q

Describe the function of the substantia nigra pars compacta

A

They are called compacta because of the densely packed cells
Provides dopaminergic input to the corpus striatum

110
Q

describe the inputs the putamen and the caudate receive in the corticostriatal pathway

A

Putamen: main/general inputs
Caudate: more specific inputs

111
Q

Describe the topographical organization of the caudate and putamen

A

they have compartments called patches or striosomes surrounded by a matrix

112
Q

Where do the matrix and patches receive and send information?

A

Matrix: receives input from most areas of the cerebral cortex and sends projections to the Globus pallidus and the substantia nigra pars reticulata
Patches: receive from the prefrontal cortex and project preferentially to a different subdivision of the substantia nigra

113
Q

Where does the pallidum receive and send information

A

receive from subthalamic nuclei and sen to VA/VL thalamic nuclei which sends output to motor areas

114
Q

when do the MSN, the putamen and the caudate fire

A

MSN firing is associated with the occurrence of a movement and increases before an impending movement
Putamen discharge in anticipation of limb and trunk movement
Caudate fires prior to eye movements

115
Q

Medium spiny neurons of the ____ and ____ give rise to ______ _______ projections that terminate in the ____ ____ and the _____ ____ ____ ____, the major sources of output from the basal ganglia

A

Caudate and putamen
Inhibitory GABAergic projections
globus pallidus and substantia nigra pars reticulata

116
Q

What do the efferent cells of the globus pallidus and substantia nigra pars reticulate also give rise to? Is the main output of the basal ganglia excitatotry or inhibitory?

A

GABAergic projections
inhibitory

117
Q

What do the output GABAergic neurons from the pallidum do?

A

High levels of spontaneous activity that prevent unwanted movements through tonic inhibition of superior colliculus and thalamus

118
Q

Describe the disinhibitory circuit

A

In the absence of movement: the globus pallidus provides tonic inhibitions to the relay cells in the thalamus.
In the presence of MSN activity, globus pallidus is inhibited, resulting in thalamic neurons being disinhibited to relay signals to motor neurons

When Striatum is excited, the inhibitions of the thalamus is disinhibited leading to movement

119
Q

Describe the direct motor pathway

A

When excitatory inputs reach the corpus striatum from the cortex, the GABAergic projections will inhibit the tonically active inhibitory cells of the globus pallidus and substantia nigra pars reticulata

= ACTIVATION of intended motor programs
When the D1 substantia nigra pars compacta is activated , the caudate/putamen are activated which inhibits the globus pallidus which allows the thalamus to become activ and stimulate the frontal cortex.

120
Q

Describe the indirect motor pathway

A

Via strong activation of the subthalamic nuclei from the cortex, these excitatory projections will activate the inhibitory cells of the globus pallidus

= SUPPRESSION of competing motor programs

When the D2 of the substantia nigra is activated, it inhibits the caudate/putamen which then allows for the globus pallidus to inhibit the thalamus

Indirect pathway increases inhibitory influences on the upper motor neurons

121
Q

what is hemiballismus

A

violent, involuntary movements of the limbs, is the result of damage to the subthalamic nucleus. The involuntary movements are initiated by abnormal discharges of upper motor neurons that are receiving less tonic inhibition from the basal ganglia

122
Q

What is huntington’s disease characterized by? What are the sympotom?

A

Dramatically reduced size of the caudate and putament
Symptoms: involuntary movement, muscle rigidity, slow or abnormal eye movements, impaired posture, difficulties with speech and swallowing

123
Q

What is huntington’s disease characterized by? What are the symptoms?

A

Dramatically reduced size of the caudate and putament
Symptoms: involuntary movement, muscle rigidity, slow or abnormal eye movements, impaired posture, difficulties with speech and swallowing

124
Q

What is huntington’s disease

A

Degeneration of MSN that project to the external segment of the globus pallidus results in a reduction in the inhibitory outflow of the basal ganglia. Also results in an increase to the excitability of the upper motor neurons

125
Q

What is the influence of Nigral D1 and D2 type neurons

A

Nigral neurons provide excitatory inputs mediated by D1 type dopaminergic receptors on the spiny cells that project to the internal globus pallidus (direct pathway)
Inhibitory inputs mediated by D2 type receptors on spiny cells that project to the external globus pallidus (indirect pathway)

126
Q

Which is a hypokinetic disorder and which is a hyperkinetic disorder: Parkinson’s and huntington’s

A

Parkinson’s is hypokinetic
Huntington’s is hyperkinetic

127
Q

Symptoms of parkinson’s

A

Tremors, stiffness, slowness of movement, impaired posture and balance, changes in speech
Dopaminergic loss in substantia nigra

128
Q

What is parkinson’s disease caused by

A

Loss of dopaminergic neurons that produces abnormally high inhibitory outflow of the basal ganglia. Thalamic activation of upper motor neurons in the motor cortex is therefore less likely to occur.
Resulting in decrease in motor neuron activity

129
Q

What are the common sites for deep brain stimulation for movement disorders

A

Internal segment of globus pallidus
Subthalamic nucleus

130
Q

Describe the spatial maps of the primary motor cortex

A

disproportionate to the size of the body part, organized movements are represented by motor neurons

131
Q

What sections of the spinal cord are affected by Quadriplegia, paraplegia, loss of feeling in the genital area

A

Quadriplegia: C1-7
Paraplegia: T1-12 and L1-5
Gential: S1-5

132
Q

How does motor learning affect the mapping of the motor cortex

A

Remapping of motor cortex

133
Q

What are the supplementary motor area and the premotor cortex

A

Supplementary motor area (SMA)
A region of nonprimary motor cortex that receives input from the basal ganglia and modulates the activity of the primary
motor cortex.
Premotor cortex a region of nonprimary motor cortex just anterior to the primary motor cortex.

134
Q

What are mirror neurons

A

Important in understanding the intentions of others. They are a neuron that is active both when an individual makes a particular movement and whenn that individual sees another individual make that same movement

135
Q

Describe mirror neurons in autism

A

they are less acivated in autistic people