PAH Flashcards

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1
Q

blood flow of oxygen-poor blood through the heart

A

superior/inferior vena cava –> right atrium –> tricuspid valve –> right ventricle –> pulmonary valve –> pulmonary arteries

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2
Q

blood flow of oxygen-rich blood through the heart

A

pulmonary veins –> left atrium –> mitral valve –> left ventricle –> aorticle valve –> aorta

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3
Q

pathophysi of PAH

A

pulmonary arterioles narrow –> RV dilates –> pulmonary edema and damage –> thrombi and/or plexiform lesion formation

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4
Q

pulmonary HTN (PH)

A

higher than normal BP in the arteries that carry blood away from the heart into the lungs

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5
Q

levels of PH

A

mean pulmonary artery pressure (MPAP) equal to or greater than 20 mmHg at rest

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6
Q

what is PAH?

A

pulmonary arterial HTN
progressive disease involving endothelial dysfunction
characterized by elevated pulmonary arterial pressure and pulmonary vascular resistance

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7
Q

what are the classifications of WHO PH?

A

1 – PAH
2 – left heart disease
3 – lung disease
4 – chronic thromboembolic PH
5 – PH resulting from unclear mechanisms

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8
Q

what are the causes of PAH?

A

idiopathic/unknown
genetic
drug and toxin exposure
CHD
HIV
connective tissue disorders

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9
Q

what are the causes of PH secondary to left heart disease?

A

CAD
HTN
heart valve disease

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10
Q

what are the causes of PH secondary to lung disease?

A

COPD
interstitial lung disease

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11
Q

what are the causes of chronic thromboembolic PH?

A

old, disorganized blood clots in the lungs create a physical barrier to blood flow

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12
Q

how should chronic thromboembolic PH be treated?

A

surgical removal of clot
medication

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13
Q

what are the causes of PH resulting from unclear mechanisms?

A

sarcoidosis, blood diseases (anemia), history of spleen remove, metabolic disease

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14
Q

what is the incidence of PH by WHO classification?

A

unknown causes > lung disease > left heart disease and PAH > chronic thromboembolic PH

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15
Q

what are the risk factors of PAH?

A

older age
female
poor exercise capacity
high right atrial pressure
right ventricular dysfunction
low CO

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16
Q

what is need in the diagnosis of PAH?

A

right heart catheterization
echocardiogram
exercise testing
biomarkers (BNP)

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17
Q

what are some early signs and symptoms of PAH?

A

dizziness
SOB
palpitations
fatigue
edema (non-specific)

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18
Q

what are the late signs and symptoms of PAH?

A

syncope
jugular venous distension
SOB
chest pain
hepatomegaly
swollen abdomen
low BP (signs of right-sided HF)

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19
Q

what levels are indicative of PAH?

A

over 20 mmHg mPAP
under 15 PAWP
over 2 wood units PVR

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20
Q

what is PAWP?

A

pulmonary arterial wedge pressure
reflects left atrial pressure

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21
Q

what is normal PAWP?

A

4-12 mmHg

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22
Q

what are the indicators of elevated PAWP?

A

left ventricular failure or mitral stenosis

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23
Q

what is PVR?

A

pulmonary vascular resistance
calculated by mPAP and PAWP

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24
Q

what is WHO-FC 1?

A

no limitation of physical activity
ordinary physical activity does not cause undue dyspnea, fatigue, chest pain, or near syncope

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25
Q

what is WHO-FC II?

A

slight limitation of physical activity
comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity causes undue dyspnea, fatigue, chest pain , or near syncope

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26
Q

what is WHO-FC III?

A

marked limitation of physical activity
comfortable at rest but less than ordinary physical activity causes undue dyspnea, fatigue, chest pain, or near syncope

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27
Q

what is WHO-FC IV?

A

inability to carry out physical activity without symptoms (increased discomfort)
signs of right HF
dyspnea or fatigue at rest

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28
Q

what drugs are available to treat PAH?

A

CCB
PDE-5i
sGC stimulator
ERAs
prostacyclins
direct pulmonary vasodilator (NO, inpatient only)

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29
Q

what is the recommended treatment of PAH with cardiopulmonary comorbidity?

A

oral monotherapy with PDE5i or ERA

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30
Q

what is the treatment of PAH in class II or III, low-intermediate risk patients?

A
  1. ERA + PDE-5i therapy
  2. evaluate risk at follow up
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31
Q

at treatment follow up, how should an intermediate risk of PAH be treated?

A

add PRA or switch from PDE-5i to sGC

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32
Q

at treatment follow up, how should an intermediate-high or high risk of PAH be treated?

A

add IV or SQ prostacyclins
evaluate lung transplantation

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33
Q

how should PAH in class II or III, high risk be treated?

A
  1. ERA + PDE5-i therapy + IV/SQ prostacyclins
  2. evaluate risk
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34
Q

what test should be conducted following PAH diagnosis?

A

vasoreactivity rest in cath lab to predict the response to CCBs

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35
Q

what does a positivity vasoreactivity test mean?

A

drop in mPAP over 10 mmHg with PAP under 40 mmHg and stable-improved cardiac output
CCBs can be used (but guaranteed to have a response)

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36
Q

when should CCB therapy be assessed in PAH?

A

3-6 months after initiation then every 6-12 months after

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37
Q

what CCBs should be used to treat PAH?

A

long acting nifedipine
long acting diltiazem,
amlodipine

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38
Q

why can verapamil not be used in PAH?

A

has negative inotropic effects

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39
Q

what drugs used to treat PAH act in the nitric oxide pathway?

A

PDE5-i
sGC stimulators

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40
Q

how does the nitric oxide pathway influence the body?

A

vasodilation
antiproliferation

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41
Q

what is the MOA of PDE-5i

A

increase the levels of cGMP to promote muscle relaxation and vasodilation
reduce conversion of cGMP to GMP

42
Q

what drugs are PDE-5i?

A

sildenafil
tadalafil

43
Q

what are the benefits of PDE-5i in PAH treatment?

A

improved 6MWD and functional capacity

44
Q

what is 6mwd?

A

6 minute walk distance

45
Q

what drugs should be avoided when taking a PDE5i?

A

riociguat and nitrates due to increase risk of hypotension
CYP3A4 substrates

46
Q

what are the SE of PDE5i?

A

flushing
HA
dyspepsia
visual disturbances (blue-tinged vision)
priapism
tinnitus/hearing loss
sudden vision loss
hypotension

47
Q

what is riociguat?

A

adempas
soluble guanylate cyclase stimulator (sGCs)
used as an alternative to PDE5i in PAH therapy

48
Q

what are the benefits of riociguat in PAH treatment?

A

improves exercise capacity, WHO FC, and time to clinical worsening
has anti proliferative and anti-remodeling activity

49
Q

what drugs are ERAs?

A

bosentan
ambrisentan
macitentan

50
Q

what is bosentan?

A

mixed ETa ETb ERA

51
Q

what is ambrisentan?

A

ETa selective ERA

52
Q

what is macitentan?

A

mixed ETb and ETa ERA

53
Q

what is the location and function of ETa receptors?

A

located on pulmonary smooth muscle walls
function in vasoconstriction, proliferation, and inflammation

54
Q

what is the location and function of ETb receptors?

A

located on endothelium and muscle cells of vascular walls
on endothelium, function in vasodilation, stimulate NO and prostacyclin production
on muscle cells, function in vasoconstriction and cell proliferation

55
Q

how do ETb receptors express in PAH?

A

up regulated in the media of blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction

56
Q

what are the benefits associated with ERAs?

A

improved exercise capacity, functional capacity, hemodynamic parameters, time to clinical worsening, and WHO FC

57
Q

how long does it take to see improvement while on ERA?

A

8-10 weeks

58
Q

what is the MOA of ERAs?

A

block endothelin receptors on VSM to reduce vasoconstriction and cell proliferation

59
Q

what is the AE of ERAs?

A

peripheral edema (A>B>M), LFT abnormalities (B>M>A), anemia

60
Q

what are SE specific to ambrisentan?

A

HA
nasal congestion

61
Q

what are the black box warnings of ERAs?

A

embryo-fetal toxicity (avoid in pregnancy)
hepatotoxicity (bosentan only)

62
Q

what are the CI of ERAs?

A

hepatic impairment – dont start if LFT over 3x ULN

63
Q

what should be monitored in ERAs?

A

pregnancy status
LFTs
hemoglobin

64
Q

what are the effects of prostacyclin activation?

A

vasodilation and antiproliferation (stimulate cAMP)

65
Q

what drug classes are involved in the prostacyclin pathway?

A

prostacyclins
prostacyclin IP receptor agonists

66
Q

what agents are prostacyclins?

A

epoprostenol
treprostinil

67
Q

what dosage form does epoprostenol come in?

68
Q

what dosage form does treprostinil come in?

A

IV
SQ (prefered)
inhaled
PO

69
Q

what drug is a prostacyclin IP receptor agonist?

69
Q

what dosage form is selexipag?

70
Q

what are the indications of parenteral prostacyclins?

A

first line treatment of class IV PAH
first line treatment of rapidly progressing class III PAH
standard treatment of severe PH with RV failure

71
Q

what are the benefits of prostacyclins?

A

improve symptoms, 6MWD, hemodynamics, and mortality (epoprostenol only)

72
Q

what is the MOA of prostacyclins?

A

induce vasodilation in all vascular beds and inhibit platelet aggregation
has cytoprotective and anti proliferative effects

73
Q

what are the common SE of prostacyclins?

A

HA
jaw and limb pain
flushing/skin rash
NVD
thrombocytopenia (more i epoprostenol)
hypotension

74
Q

what are the SE of oral prostacyclins?

A

diarrhea
anemia

75
Q

what are the SE of inhaled prostacyclins?

A

cough
throat irritation

76
Q

what are the SE of IV prostacyclins?

A

line infections
erythema

77
Q

what are the SE of SQ prostacyclins?

A

site pain
infusion site reactions

78
Q

what happens if you missed a dose of oral treprostinil?

A

if over 2 doses are missed, you must re-titrate
dosed BID or q8h

79
Q

what happens if therapy is interrupted in selexipag?

A

if over 3 days, titrate is required again
do not crush or chew tablets

80
Q

what are the CI of selexipag?

A

strong CYP2C8 inhibitors (gemfibrozil)

81
Q

what is unique about inhaled treprostinil?

A

1 ampule is 24 hour of therapy with 2-3 minute treatments
a DPI is a new cartridge with each session so no charging

82
Q

what is the dosing of treprostinil?

A

start in hospital at 1-3 ng/kg/min
titrate q8-12h up to 10-20 ng/kg/min
then weekly at home by 2 ng/kg/min increments up to goal dose of 50-80 ng/kg/min

83
Q

why is SQ preferred in treprostinil?

A

avoids risk of central lines compared to IV

84
Q

what is flolan?

A

non-thermostable product of epoprostenol whose back-up cassettes must be kept on ice

85
Q

what is veletri?

A

thermostable product of epoprostenol that is stable for 48 hours

86
Q

when should epoprostenol be co-administered?

A

never with any other fluids due to increase in CV collapse and death risk
incompatible with everything

87
Q

what is the result of abrupt d/c of epoprostenol?

A

accelerated PH crisis

88
Q

what are the CP of epoprostenol?

A

always needs back-up cassette prepared

89
Q

what are common medication errors of prostacyclins?

A

flushing of line
calculation or concentration error
programming error
pump turned off
inappropriate change in weight

90
Q

what are the most common SE of combo therapy between ERA and PDE5-i?

A

nasal congestion
peripheral edema
headache
dizziness
anemia

91
Q

is triple or dual therapy more effective in newly diagnosed PAH patients?

92
Q

what cardiopulmonary comorbidities?

A

any condition that may worsen left ventricular function or lung function (to then worsen RV function and PH)

93
Q

what are cardiovascular comorbidities?

A

obesity
HTN
diabetes
coronary artery disease

94
Q

what is a pulmonary comorbidity?

A

interstitial lung disease (fibrotic lungs)

95
Q

what is sotatercept?

A

activin signaling inhibitor

96
Q

when are diuretics used in PAH?

A

may be used with right HF symptoms
monitor kidney function and weight

97
Q

when are CV drugs used in PAH?

A

to treat underlying (left-sided) heart disease that requires their use

98
Q

what PAH agents are safe to use in pregnancy?

A

CCBs
PDE5i
prostacyclins

99
Q

what PAH agents are to be avoided in pregnancy?

A

ERAs
riociguat
selexipag

100
Q

how is O2 used in PAH?

A

use supplemental O2 if needed at sea level or an extended time at altitudes > 1500 m

101
Q

when should lung transplantation?

A

consider in FC III or IV patients with inadequate response to maximal pharmacotherapy