Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clin Lab B3 > Pages 1-11 > Flashcards

Pages 1-11 Flashcards

1
Q

Refrigerated samples?

A

Respiratory specimens
Urine
Stool
Sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Room temp samples?

A

Body fluids
Blood culture
CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
Improper labeling 
Wrong specimen container
Leakage
Unsuitable specimen
Duplicate/repeat specimens
Sterile body fluids NOT sent STAT
A

Rejection criteria

exception to duplicate specimens would be blood cultures for endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What skin rash can kids get from a pacifier…?

well lots of stuff really…

A

Maybe roseola? (high fever -> pink/rosey rash on trunk that then spreads to limbs,neck, face)

(consider herpes too maybe?)

(maybe OM?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MC acute endocarditis bacteria?

A

Staph

acute ABE occurs rapidly during a septicemic episode on healthy cardiac valves…very aggressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MC subacute endocarditis bacteria?

A

MC = Strep viridans

(can also be staph)

(subacute [gradual] infective endocarditis occurs in damaged cardiac valves, e.g., congenital defects, atherosclerosis, RF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PROSTHETIC valve endocarditits?

A

Staph epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

HACEK organisms for endocarditis?

A 
Haemophilus
Aggregatibacter
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Significance of growth of the same organism in repeated cultures?

A

true positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Significance of growth of different organisms in different culture bottles?

A

Probable contamination, bowel spillage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Significance of growth of normal skin flora?

A

likely contamination (staph, corynebacterium, bacillus, propionibacterium, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Significance of organismis such as strep viridans or enterococci?

A

Possible endocarditis (associated w/ low grade fevers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Blood culture protocol?

A

(for bacteremia, endocarditis, sepsis)

1 set = 1 aerobic/1 anaerobic bottle (10 mL/bottle)

Different sites/times, but no more than 4 total sets (so 8 bottles) within 24 hours

Peds get 1 bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Antibiogram is an annual collection of C+S information collected in the institution. Provides a percentage of samples of a given organism that were sensitive to certain abx.

But… doesn’t provide?

A

Sensitivity based on site of infxn or location in hospital (ICU vs non-ICU)

Average MIC

Trend data

(also doesn’t provide concentration differences bw site of infxn and in vitro, inactivation/penetration at the site of infxn, levels of decline in vitro/in vivo)

Inaccurate due to small isolate number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Aside from antibiogram, what are other considerations regarding abx for the patient?

A

Drug allergies, side effects, location of infxn (use least expensive, narrowest spectrum)

other susceptibility tests (disk diffusion, Broth/Agar dilution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In a primary immune response, which Ig binds first? Which is more specific?

A

IgM binds first, but IgG is more specific and lasts longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does a secondary immune response differ from a a primary?

A

In a secondary response both IgM and IgG (memory) react simultaneously whereas in primary response the IgM arrives first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The titer corresponds to the highest dilution factor that still yields a positive reading. Comparing acute vs convalescent sera to one another, a ___ increase indicates an acute infection.

A

4-fold

However, when only an acute sample is submitted, a cutoff value is required and may vary by organism/geography

(example: primary: Day 5 - 1:4 titer, Day 12 - 1:64 titer, secondary - 1:256 titer or higher)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What’s on an acute hepatitis panel?

A

IgM anti-HAV
IgM anti-HBc
HBsAg
anti-HCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Panel for acute Hep A would show?

A

anti-HAV IgM (+)

anti-HAV IgG (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Panel for resolved Hep A would show?

A

anti-HAV IgM (-)

anti-HAV IgG (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HBV panel displaying natural immunity?

A

HBsAg (-)
anti-HBc (+)
anti-HBs (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HBV panel displaying vaccination?

A

HBsAg (-)
anti-HBc (-)
anti-HBs (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HBV panel showing acute infxn?

A

HBsAg (+)
anti-HBc (+)
IgM anti-HBc (+)
anti-HBs (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

HBV panel showing chronic inxn?

A

HBsAg (+)
anti-HBc (+)
IgM anti-HBc (-)
anti-HBs (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lab criteria for Acute HBV?

A

Anti HBc IgM (+)

or

HBsAg (+) and HAV IgM (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

IgM Anti HBc (-) AND HBsAg (+) or HBV DNA (+) or HBeAg (+)

OR

HBsAg (+) or HBV DNA (+) or HBeAg (+) twice at least 6 months apart

A

Either of those criteria would indicate chronic HBV infxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Confirmed vs presumed case of HBV?

A

Confirmed case: meets lab criteria

Presumed: Pt w/ single HBsAg (+) or HBV DNA (+) or HBeAg (+) and does not meet acute case definition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If HBeAg is (+), it is equivalent to a positive HBcAg marker and shows that the virus is replicating actively and the patient is infectious

A

However, presence of antiHBe means that replication activites have decreased and the patient is less infectious or not at all.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

HBcAg is totally degraded in the serum and is not detectable, but a portion survives as HBeAg.

Regarding HBcAg, what’s measurable?

A

Anti-HBc are produced against HBcAg and are measurable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

FIRST immune response against HBV infection, indicates active infection or flare against natural exposure.

As immune response matures, this is replaced by IgG anti-HBc

A

IgM anti-HBc

note that anti-HBc is absent in those who have been vaccinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Made in response to HBcAg, refers to presence of either IgG or IgM and does not discriminate. Presence indicates prior or current Hep B infection

A

total anti-HBc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

indicates active infection (acute or chronic).

Used as a quantitative test to monitor response to therapy, mainly in chronically infected patients.

“Viral load”

A

HBV DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Most people who are infected develop chronic disease

A

HCV (rarely detected acutely)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hep C has 6 genotypes. Most Americans have genotype 1.

2 and 3 respond better to therapy.

A

check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

EIA assay (screening) to detect HC-Ab, confirmed by?

A

RIBA (recombinant immunoblot assay) or HCV RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CSF fluid (meningitis)…

  1. Mostly PMNs (low glucose)?
  2. Mostly lymphocytes (but normal glucose)?
  3. Mostly lymphocytes (but low glucose)?
  4. Mostly eosinophils?
A
  1. bacterial
  2. viral
  3. fungal
  4. parasitic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Spirochetes?

A
  1. Treponema/syphilis (non-treponemal [titer] screening -> treponemal confirmation)
  2. Borrelia burgdorferi/Lyme dz (serology IgM/IgG -> Western Blot confirmation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Traveler’s diarrhea?

A

E. coli (ETEC) -> cramps/watery diarrhea from food/water (culture usually not performed unless special patient)

Other traveler’s diarrheas listed: Shigella, EIEC/EHEC/EPEC, Salmonella, Campy, Cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Urethritis… Frequently asymptomatic in females, but can present with dysuria, discharge or pelvic inflammatory disease.

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

Send UA, Urine culture (if pyuria seen, but no bacteria,
suspect Chlamydia)

Chlamydia screening is now recommended for all females ≤ 25 years

You should always also treat for chlamydia when treating for gonnorhea!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most common cause of UTI in women?

A

E. coli most common cause (85%)

S. saprophyticus – young sexually active females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Frequent cause of UTI in men?

A

Enterobacteriaceae

Ssx: urethritis (sterile culture: discharge, dysuria, frequency)
Ssx: prostatitis (obstructed urine flow: “complicated UTI”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Healthy adult women (>12), non-pregnant, no fever/N/G/flank pain

Diagnosis: dipstick UA (no culture or lab test needed)

A

Uncomplicated UTI

44
Q

Females w/ comorbid medical conditions, ALL males, indwelling foley catheters, urosepsis/hospitalization

Diagnosis: UA, urine culture, further labs if appropriate

A

Complicated UTI

45
Q

For neisseria gonorrhea labs, send?

A

Send UA, urine culture.

Pelvic exam – send discharge samples for gram stain culture, culture, PCR

46
Q
  1. Recurring UTIs means?

2. Relapse vs reinfection

A
  1. Minimum 2 UTIs in 6 months or ≥ 3 in 1 year

2. Relapse (same organism); reinfection (previous or second organism)

47
Q

Most common pathogen for cystitis, prostatitis,

pyelonephritis?

A 
– Escherichia coli
–Staphylococcus 
saprophyticus
–Proteus mirabilis
–Klebsiella
–Enterococcus
48
Q

Most common pathogen for urethritis?

A
  • Chlamydia trachomatis

* Neisseria Gonorrhea

49
Q

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes without intracellular pathogens are characteristic of the mucopurulent discharge seen in men with?

A

nongonococcal urtheritis

50
Q

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes with intracellular

pathogens are characteristic of the mucopurulent discharge seen in men with

A

GC

51
Q
  • Intense perivaginal itching or burning
  • Thick white cottage cheese texture, odorless and adherent to the vaginal walls
  • Dysuria, normal vaginal pH (4.0-4.5
A

Candidiasis “yeast infection” (fungal)

52
Q
  • Slightly malodorous gray white discharge
  • Often asymptomatic, possible UTI
  • Increased vaginal pH > 4.5, positive amine test
A

Gardnerella vaginalis (bacterial vaginosis)

53
Q
  • Copious amounts of this frothy green/yellow/gray discharge, requires motile organism
  • Vaginal and exocervical epithelium are edematous and erythematous “strawberry cervix”
  • Vaginal soreness and dyspareunia, often asymptomatic
  • Increased vaginal pH (5.0-6.0)
A

Trichomoniasis vaginalis (parasitic)

54
Q

increased vaginal pH suggests?

A

bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis

55
Q

increased vaginal pH suggests?

A

bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis

56
Q

Detects “jerky” motility of Trichomonas

clue cells indicative of bacterial vaginosis

fungal elements/budding yeast

A

saline wet prep

57
Q

For vaginosis, a Gram stain identifies?

A

“clue cells” – epithelial cells covered by bacteria

58
Q

Definitive diagnosis for treponema/syphilis?

A

Direct testing (skin lesions, placenta, umbilicus)

Darkfield microscopy

59
Q

Non-treponemal screening tests…

A

RPR

VDRL(CSF)

sensitive but not specific

60
Q

Confirmatory treponema tests

A

FTA-ABS

MHA-TP

TP-PA

(positive results for life)

61
Q

screening test that looks for non-specific antibodies (cardiolipin) in that many indicate syphilis

A

RPR

62
Q

Syphilis… Follow up positive screen with confirmation tests

A

MHA-TP (microhemagglutination T. pallidum) or FTA-ABS (fluorescent treponemal antibody)

Pos RPR (1:16) + Neg confirm = False positive RPR

Pos RPR (1:16) + Pos confirm = Active disease

63
Q

Serologic monitoring is critically important during follow-up of treated syphilis

A

Suggested 3, 6, and 12-month intervals after treatment, compared with the pretreatment baseline.

Important safety tip! Use the same testing assay (eg, RPR or VDRL) from the same lab for all follow-up examinations

64
Q

Detection w/in 25 days (average)

Within 3 months positive status

4th generation assays can detect within 12 days

A

HIV

65
Q

Rapid antigen tests

Home or POL

ELISA based assay from patient’s blood (military screening)

A

HIV screening

66
Q

Western blot for confirmation of HIV status.

Original specimen pos? Individual is notified of initial HIV+ status. Then?

A

Second specimen positive? -> individual notified of
confirmed HIV + status

Second specimen negative? request a 3rd specimen…

3rd specimen neg? Pt is neg.
3rd specimen pos? Pt notified of confirmed pos

(all notifications are face to face)

67
Q

HIV Positive result requires antibodies against ?

A

1 envelope protein (gp41, gp 120/gp 160)

AND

1 core protein (p17, p24, p55) or 1 enzyme protein (p31, p51, p66

68
Q

Follow up for HIV indeterminate status… Repeat WB + HIV viral load and repeat serology after?

A

Repeat serology after 3 months (EIA → WB)

(if an at risk patient, they might still be seroconverting. If they’re low-risk patient, they probbaly don’t have the disease)

69
Q

Bacterial agents of pharyngitis?

A 
GAS
M pneumoniae
C pneumoniae
N gonorrhea
C diptheria
A haemolyticum

(GAS, Gonorrhea definitely get throat swabs… assuming the rest would as well)

(bacterial pharyngitis… look for furry tongue, whitish spots, swollen uvula)

70
Q

Viral agents are more common causes of pharyngitis

A

Adenovirus (suspect this esp. with conjunctivitis)
Coxsackie
EBV (*can look like GAS and have exudate… look for atypical lymphocytes on blood smear)

Herpes simplex
CMV
HIV

71
Q

Age -younger kids

Sudden onset

Headache

Vomiting

High fever

A

Bacterial pharyngitis

72
Q

Age – young adults

Slow progression

Coughing

Rhinorrhea

Low Grade fever

Conjunctivitis

A

Viral pharyngitis

73
Q

With what disease would you associate these with?

History of congenital heart disease, IV drug use, recent dental work, or rheumatic fever

Heart murmur

Splinter hemorrhages, Roth spots, Osler’s nodes, clubbing, Janeway lesions.

A

infectious endocarditis

74
Q

Blood culture with viridans strep or enterococci with low grade fever, think

A

endocarditis

75
Q

Small bowel, secretoy diarrhea, usually self-limiting…

what agents you think?

A

viral, Giardia, vibrio, E coli (ETEC)

76
Q

Inflammatory, large bowel, positive fecal leukocyte, with mucus and PMNs

Longer duration

what agents you think?

A

Salmonella

Shigella

Campy

77
Q

Bloody diarrhea, fecal leukocyte positive, Large bowel invovlement

Longer duration w/ potentai complications

what agents you think?

A

E coli O157:H7

78
Q

Pediatric patients presents w/ non-bloody diarrhea, febrile or afebrile, think?

A

viral infection

79
Q

Pediatric patient presents w/ bloody diarrhea (febrile or afebrile), think?

A

Bacterial infection

afebrile, think complication like intussusception, HUS, pseudomembranous colitis

80
Q

Monocytes in fecal leukocytes?

A

typhoid fever

81
Q

Released by neutrophils, indicator of intestinal inflammation (e.g., IBD, bacterial infections)

A

lactoferrin

82
Q

Preferred test for suspected bacteria diarrhea… bloody or diarrhea > 3 days , hx of travel

IDs specific pathogen

A

Stool culture

83
Q

Big three for regular stool culture?

A

Salmonella, shigella, campy

extended stool culture - “little 3” - vibrio, yersinia, E coli

84
Q

Fecal leukocyte
Fecal fat
Macroscopic pH

A

Fresh specimen (less than an hour)

85
Q

Cary Blair medium (for culture/EIA)

Formalin/PVA (for O+P)

A

delayed transport

86
Q
  • Investigate the cause of chronic diarrhea and loose, fatty, foul-smelling stools (steatorrhea). Indicator of impaired digestion and/or malabsorption
  • Excess fat is present in the stool and the person may experience prolonged diarrhea with stomach pain, cramps, bloating, gas and weight loss
  • Qualitative – suspension of stool onto a glass slide, adding a fat stain, and observing the number and size of fat globules that are present. Quantitative (if necessary) 24, 48, 72 hour collection – more precise
A

Fecal fat•

87
Q
  • To screen for leukocytes (WBCs) in the stool. Indicator of intestinal inflammation, suggestive of infection by stool pathogens such as Salmonella, Shigella, or Campylobacter which are able to invade tissues or produce toxins to cause damage.
  • Distinguish between inflammatory and non-inflammatory conditions. Typically reported in a semiquantitative manner (few, moderate, many)
A

Leukocytes (Lactoferrin)

88
Q

• Large number of ___ in the stool may be seen in chronic bacillar dysentery, chronic ulcerative colitis, colonic abscess

A

WBCs

89
Q

• _____ are seen in ulcerative colitis, invasive E coli diarrhea, Salmonella, Shigellosis

A

Neutrophils

90
Q

• Some stool pathogens produce toxins which provide greater virulence to the invading organism and worsen symptoms for the patient. Rapid identification of toxin producing strains. Provision of optimal therapy for rapid recovery. Various methods depending on target pathogen: enzyme immunoassay, rapid antigen, cell culture (cytotoxin assay), bioassay

A

 Toxin assays

91
Q

 Recommended for inpatients > 3 days or patients on continual antimicrobial therapy

A

o Toxin assay for C diff - toxin A and B, identifies toxigenic strains, determines therapy

92
Q

 Recommended for ALL cases of bloody diarrhea

A

o Toxin assay Shiga toxin - found in Shigella species and shiga toxin producing E. coli serotypes (STEC) e.g. O157:H7

93
Q
  • 0-1 hour suggests ingestion of a chemical

* 1 to 6 hours suggests ingestion of a preformed toxin, such as?

A

Staphylococcus aureus or Bacillus cereus

94
Q

• 8 to 16 hours, such as?

• >16 hours various bacteria and viruses
o May overlap with diarrhea

A

Clostridium perfringens and enterotoxin-producing strains of Bacillus cereus

95
Q

Top 2 parasites causing waterborne diseases in the US?

A

Giardia, cryptosporidium parvum

96
Q

fever/sore throat: chills, vomiting, abdominal pain, fine “sandpaper” rash, diffuse, blanching desquamation afterward. Strawberry tongue

A

scarlet fever (strep pyogenes)

97
Q

 Impetigo: S aureus, MRSA, S pyogenes. Bullous (____) and non-bullous (_____). Nonfollicular. Most common among pre-school children. Progression: macule to honey colored crusty vesicle or pustule, pruritis, fragile vesicles rupture and can spread through scratching, poorly healing wound. More serious form found in Pts w/ pre-existing skin dz (eczema or superinfected chickenpox lesions)

A

BUllous = S aureus

non-bullous = S pyogenes

98
Q

bright red, sharply demarcated rash that is caused by S pyogenes. Sx: perianal rash, itching, rectal pain, blood streaked stools (1/3 of Pts). Primarily occurs in children b/w 6 months and 10 years of age

A

 Perianal streptococcal dermatitis

99
Q

fever and an itchy rash, skin rash of blister-like lesions, covering the body but usually more concentrated on the face, scalp, and trunk

A

 Varicella zoster (chicken pox)

100
Q

backache, delirium, diarrhea, excessive bleeding, fatigue, high fever, malaise, headache, vomiting, raised pink rash progressing simultaneously from macules to papules to pustules then scabs

A

 Variola (small pox)

101
Q

 Varicella vs Variola(SP)

A

VZV – trunk, SP - extremities

VZV – combination scabs, vesicles, pustules, SP – synchronous lesions

VZV – contagious before pox appear, SP – contagious after pox appear

102
Q

rash, Koplik spots (mouth), red eyes/photophobia, coughing, fever, runny nose, sore throat

A

• Measles (Rubeola):

103
Q

fever, headache, general discomfort (malaise), and runny nose before rash appears, mild Sx associated w/ a rash, fever, headache, runny nose. Severe congenital infection.

A

• German measles (Rubella

104
Q

pain, tingling, then blisters on the dermatome. Fever, headache, chills, upset stomach

A

• Shingles (varicella zoster):

105
Q

): rash, fever, headache, slapped cheek appearance on face, then a “lacy” rash on extremities. Severe congenital infection

A

• Fifth disease (erythema infectiosum, parvovirus

106
Q

High fever followed by a rash that appears on trunk, limbs, neck and face. Pink or rose colored, has fairly small sores that are slightly raised

A

• Roseola (erythema subitem, human herpes virus 6

107
Q

fever, sore throat, swollen lymph glands; swollen spleen or liver involvement. Can look like strep throat

A

• Epstein Barr virus

Clin Lab B3 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions