paeds essential conditions Flashcards

1
Q

How is bilirubin formed?

What % of term babies develop jaundice in first week of life?

What’s the difference between conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin?

A

Formation of Bilirubin:

Red blood cells –> Haem broken down —> Bilirubin = transported to liver as unconjugated bilirubin, bound to albumin—> conjugation in the liver = become water soluble —> conjugated bilirubin excreted in the bile into duodenum —> stercobilinogen = makes faeces brown

60% term babies develop jaundice in first week of life

Usually unconjugated cause (pre-hepatic) – conjugated would indicate a worrying post hepatic cause

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2
Q

DDx for neonatal jaundice:

< 24 hrs

  • unconjugated? 2
  • conjugated? 4

24hrs - 2 wks

  • unconjugated? 3
  • conjugated? 4

> 2 wks

  • unconjugated? 4
  • conjugated? 3
A

nb unconjugated is much more common!!

< 24 hrs UNCONJUGATED

  • haemolytic disease (eg rhesus, HBO incompatibility, hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency)
  • neonatal sepsis

< 24 hrs CONJUGATED (ie neonatal hepatitis)

  • hepatitis A or B (also a1-antitrypsin)
  • TORCH infections
  • Inborn errors of metabolism (eg galactosaemia)
  • CF

24hrs - 2wks UNCONJUGATED

  • PHYSIOLOGICAL
  • hypothyroidism
  • haemolysis/sepsis

24hrs - 2wks CONJUGATED
- (as above - ie hep, torch, metabolism, CF)

> 2wks UNCONJUGATED

  • breast milk jaundice (but should have resolved by now)
  • haemolysis
  • sepsis
  • hypothyroidism

> 2wks CONJUGATED

  • BILIARY ATRESIA
  • choledochal cyst
  • neonatal hepatitis

JAUNDICE IN FIRST 24hrs IS NEVER PHYSIOLOGICAL!

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3
Q

PHYSIOLOGICAL JAUNDICE:

  • when does it appear? and when should it go by?
  • pathophysiology?
  • what four things exacerbate it? 4
A

Appears after 24hrs, peaks day 3-4

Usually self-resolving by 14 days

Presents and progresses in cephalic to caudal direction

Immaturity of hepatic bilirubin conjugation process

Breakdown of foetal haemoglobin

EXACERBATED BY:

  • bruising (eg forceps)
  • polycythaemia
  • dehydration (eg caused by poor feeding)
  • prematurity
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4
Q

Give four examples of haemolytic disorders which can result in neonatal jaundice? (briefly describe each)

What blood test is done to rule these out?

A

RHESUS-HAEMOLYTIC DISEASE: affected infants are usually identified antenatally and monitored and treated when necessary. If not identified early then children can be born with anaemia, hydrops and hepatosplenomegaly

ABO INCOMPATIBILITY: now more common than rhesus disease. Most ABO abs are IgM and so do not cross the placenta but some women who are group O have IgG abs which can cross the placenta and start breaking down the red cells of the group A infant. The jaundice can be striking but there are usually fewer other severe symptoms in ABO compared to RHESUS

G6PD DEFICIENCY - develop haemolytic anaemia and jaundice. Mainly affects male infants

HEREDITARY SPHEROCYTOSIS

tests for haemolytic antibodies should be done - COOMB’S TEST

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5
Q

NEONATAL JAUNDICE Hx

  • most important question? (and two red flag answers to this)
  • prenatal Qs to ask? 2
  • Qs to ask about labour? 7 (which 3 of these are risk factors for neonatal sepsis)
  • Qs to ask about post-natal? 6 (incl feeding, bowels etc)
  • conditions to ask if FHx of? 2
  • other FHx to ask? 2
A

AT WHAT AGE DID THE JAUNDICE DEVELOP?

  • <24hrs = red flag
  • > 2wks = red flag

PRENATAL

  • full antenatal care received? (if not may have missed rhesus or other screening etc)
  • get any infections in pregnancy? (or in contact with anyone - list torch)

INTRAPARTUM

  • gestation born?
  • method of delivery?
  • any trauma to baby during delivery? (bruising/forceps etc)
  • how long mebranes ruptured for? (>12hrs sepsis)
  • any fever? (sepsis)
  • any high foetal HR? (sepsis)
  • have to stay in NICU for any period?

POST NATAL

  • general behaviour (active/alert or lethargic/needing to be woken)
  • how fed? (breast or bottle)
  • any feeding difficulties?
  • when pass meconium (>48 hrs could be CF)
  • How stools been since (pale, chalky = red flag for biliary atresia)
  • wet nappies (lack of could mean infection/dehydration)

FHx

  • any previous children (any problems)
  • cosanguinity? (inborm errors)
  • CF
  • spherocytosis
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6
Q

Exam for NEONATAL JAUNDICE:

- what looking for? 10

A

nb you effectively do a full NIPE exam! (maybe minus the hips)

  • is baby alert / well
  • how handle / tone (hypothyroid)
  • extent of jaundice (norm spreads from head towards feet)
  • does it blanch to pressure? (hard to see if non-white)

ANY SIGNS OF DEHYDRATION

  • mucous membranes
  • dry nappy
  • sunken FONTANELLE)

ANY FEATURES OF TORCH

  • petechiae
  • anaemia
  • hepatosplenomegaly
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7
Q

Investigations for neonatal jaundice:

  • initial test for all?
  • initial bloods? 4
  • other tests to consider to help find cause? 4
  • what further tests should be done if infant still jaundiced after 14 days? 2
A

Measure trans-cutaneous bilirubin

if high, need to find cause:

  • FBC (shows anaemia, low or high WCC)
  • LFTs (esp proportion conjugated or not)
  • Group + save (compare w mothers)
  • COOMBS TEST

OTHER TESTS

  • TORCH screen
  • Septic screen
  • TFTs
  • Urine metabolic scvreen (inborn errors)

IF STILL JAUNDICE AFTER 14 DAYS (look for biliary atresia)

  • liver USS
  • liver isotope scan
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8
Q

NEONATAL JAUNDICE:

  • three symptomatic management options? when use each?
  • what other management is needed?
A

1) DO NOTHING
- if unconjugated bilirubin is lower than line for phototherapy
- reasssure parents that it is self-limiting AND safety net
- encourage feeding if struggling

2) PHOTOTHERAPY
- if unconjugated bilirubin above line for phototherapy
- baby lies under UV light with eyes protected
- have breaks for feeding, changing nappies etc
- measure bilirubin every 4-6 hours during phototherapy
- stop phototherapy once levels of bilirubin have dropped to at least 50micromol/L below threshold for treatment

3) EXCHANGE TRANSFUSION
- if unconjugated bilirubin above line for exchange transfusion (though can try phototherapy first)

REMEMBER JAUNDICE <24hrs is ALWAYS pathological and needs further investigation

FIND AND TREAT UNDERLYING CAUSE!
- unless just physiological!

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9
Q

BILIARY ATRESIA

  • what is it?
  • management? 1

GALACTOSAEMIA:
- what it it?

A
  • absence of intra or extra hepatic bile ducts
  • causes conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
  • stool becomes clay coloured
  • leads to liver failure and death

Kasai procedure within 6 weeks of life can achieve adequate biliary drainage

GALACTOSAEMIA

means you can’t break down galactose

can cause neonatal hepatitis and jaundice

nb these conditons have nothing to do with each other (except that they both cause jaundice) they’re just on the same card because I accidently deleted one
an inborn error of metabolism

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10
Q

What is the complication that can occur if there are high levels of unconjugated bilirubin in the neonate?

A

specific form of brain injury known as KERNICTERUS

This occurs because babies have very thin blood-brain barriers that are not that efficient at keeping things out (this is also why they are more prone to meningitis). As a result of this the high levels of unconjugated bilirubin in their blood crosses this barrier readily - the unconjugated bilirubin collect in the basal ganglia

This bilirubin can damage the brain and the spinal cord and this can be life-threatening for the baby

Initial symptoms

  • Poor feeding
  • Irritability
  • High-pitched cry
  • Lethargy
  • Apnoea
  • Hypotonia
  • Seizures - late sign
  • Muscle spasms - late sign

Child can go on to develop cerebral palsy, learning difficulties and hearing problems

nb this is very rare now as most jaundice is picked up

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11
Q

What vaccinations are babies given at:

  • 8 weeks? 3
  • 12 weeks? 3
  • 16 weeks? 3
  • 1 year? 4
  • 2 years? 1
  • 3yrs 4mnths? 2
  • 12-13 years? 1
  • 14 years? 3

nb number refers to the number of injections - some vaccines cover more than one infection - list these if applicable

A

8 WEEKS

  • diptheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, haem influenzae type B (HiB), hep B (6-in-1)
  • rota virus (oral)
  • Meningitis B

12 WEEKS

  • pneumococcal
  • 6-in-1 (2nd dose)
  • rotavirus (oral) (2nd dose)

16 WEEKS

  • 6-in-1 (3rd dose)
  • Men B (2nd dose)

ONE YEAR

  • Hib/Men C (1st dose)
  • MMR (1st dose)
  • pneumococcal (2nd dose)
  • Men B (3rd dose)

2 YEARS
- flu vaccine (nasal) given EVERY year

3 YEARS 4 MONTHS

  • MMR (2nd dose)
  • 4-in-1 preschool booster (diptheria, tetanus, pertussis + polio)

12-13 YEARS
- HPV vaccine (1st dose)

14 YEARS

  • HPV vaccine (2nd dose, 6-12 mnths after 1st)
  • 3-in-1 teenage booster (tetanus, diptheria, polio)
  • Meningococcal group A, C, W and Y disease (MenACWY)

nb injections are generally given in thigh up to 12mnths then generally arm older than that

nb don’t use alcowipes to wipe skin before immunisations!! as may affect vaccines

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12
Q

What additional vaccines should be offered to infants / children at risk?

when give?

A

Heb B (at birth)

BCG (any age from birth - 16yrs)

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13
Q

Which common vaccines are live attenuated? 4

other live attenuated vaccines? 3

who should these NOT be given to?

A
  • rotavirus
  • MMR
  • intranasal influenza
  • BCG
  • oral polio
  • oral typhoid
  • yellow fever

SHOULD NOT BE GVEN IF IMMUNOCOMPROMISED

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14
Q

General contraindications to any childhood vaccines? 5

A
  • if younger than schedule
  • acutely unwell with fever
  • has had anaphylactic reaction to previous dose
  • undiagnosed neurodevelopmental condition
  • live attenuated vaccines to immunocompromised

also if severe egg allergy, give certain immunisations (esp MMR) under controlled conditions

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15
Q

How is consent taken to give childhood vaccines?

where are childhood vaccines recorded?

A

written consent is taken at beginning of new schedule
- then verbal consent before each vaccine

record in red book
- record serial number and site of each injection

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16
Q

What diseases are covered in the 6-in-1 vaccine?

  • common side effects? 4
  • rare side effects? 2
A
  • diptheria
  • tetanus
  • pertussis
  • polio
  • haem influenzae type B (HiB)
  • hep B

COMMON

  • swelling
  • redness
  • papule at site
  • fever

RARE

  • febrile convulsions
  • anaphylaxis
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17
Q

MMR

  • contraindications? 4
  • side effect? 3
A

CONTRAINDICATIONS

  • immunocompromised children (is live vaccine)
  • pregnant girls
  • children with neurological conditions
  • severe egg allergy

SIDE EFFECTS

  • rash
  • fever in 5-10 days
  • mild mumps at 14 days
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18
Q

What do these vaccine abbreviations stand for:

  • DTaP
  • IPV
  • HiB
  • Td
A
  • DTaP = diptheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis
  • IPV = inactivated polio vaccine
  • HiB = Haemophilus influenzae type B
  • Td = tetanus and diptheria
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19
Q

Causative organisms in meningitis in:

  • neonates? 3
  • infants / children? 4
  • adolescents / adults? 2
A

NEONATES (ie first 4 wks)

  • group B strep
  • e. coli
  • listeria

INFANTS / CHILDREN

  • haemophilus influenzae
  • neisseria meningitis
  • strep pneumoniae
  • viral

ADOLESCENTS / ADULTS

  • neisseria meningitis
  • strep pneumoniae
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20
Q

MENINGITIS IN NEONATES

  • changes in vital signs? 3
  • other symptoms/signs? 7
A

VITAL SIGNS

  • fever
  • low HR
  • high BP

OTHER SIGNS

  • irritable
  • poor feeding
  • lethargy / coma
  • seizures (30%)
  • respiratory distress
  • bulging fontanelle (often meningococcal)
  • non-blanching rash (meningococcal)

DO NOT GET CLASSICAL SIGNS OF MENINGISM (have a LOW threshold of suspision)

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21
Q

MENINGITIS IN INFANTS / CHILDREN

  • signs of meningism? 3
  • other symptoms? 4
  • other signs/obs? 5
  • clinical signs? (two, which is which)
A
  • fever
  • headache
  • neck stiffness
    ^ from 2 years old

OTHER SYMPTOMS

  • refusing food
  • lethargy
  • unsettled
  • nausea + vomiting

OTHER SIGNS

  • cold peripheries
  • non-blanching rash (meningococcal)
  • reduced GCS
  • high BP
  • low HR

CLINICAL SIGNS

Kernig’s sign (K for Knee)
= bend knee up and then extend knee -> pain / resistance

Brudzinski’s sign
= flex pt neck and then hips + knee will flex in response

^ both very specific and sensitive

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22
Q

MENINGITIS IN ADOLESCENTS / ADULTS

  • Symptoms / signs? 7
  • clinical signs? (two, which is which)
A
  • fever
  • headache
  • neck stiffness
  • photophobia
  • muscle aches
  • nausea + vomiting
  • non-blanching rash (meningococcal)

CLINICAL SIGNS

Kernig’s sign (K for Knee)
= bend knee up and then extend knee -> pain / resistance

Brudzinski’s sign
= flex pt neck and then hips + knee will flex in response

^ both very specific and sensitive

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23
Q

If suspect meningococcal meningitis in community, what do you do immediately? (what to do if allergy?) and within how long?

A

Give IM BenPen IMMEDIATELY (within 30mins)

  • if pen allergic, ceftriaxone

transfer to hospital immediately

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24
Q

Investigations for suspected meningitis:

  • bedside? 2
  • bloods? 9
  • imaging? 1
A

lumbar puncture (unless CI)

urine analysis

bloods:

  • FBC
  • U+E
  • LFT
  • clotting
  • CRP
  • Blood cultures
  • whole blood PCR
  • Glucose (do compare w LP)
  • VBG

CXR

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25
Q

Contraindications for performing an LP on someone with suspected meningitis? 6

A
  • signs of raised ICP
  • focal neuro signs / focal seizures
  • shock or CV instability
  • evidence of coagulopathy
  • infection of skin at site of LP
  • signs of meningococcal septicaemia

nb bulging fontanelle is NOT a contraindication for LP

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26
Q

What changes do you see (ie high, normal, low) on LP for bacterial, viral and TB meningitis on:

  • neutrophils?
  • lymphocytes?
  • protein?
  • glucose?
  • appearance?
  • opening pressure?
A

BACTERIAL MENINGITIS

  • neutrophils = HIGH
  • lymphocytes = normalish
  • protein = HIGH
  • glucose = LOW
  • appearance = cloudy/purulent
  • opening pressure = HIGH

VIRAL MENINGITIS

  • neutrophils = normalish
  • lymphocytes = HIGH
  • protein = normalish
  • glucose = normal
  • appearance = cloudy / purulent
  • opening pressure = normal

TB MENINGITIS

  • neutrophils = normalish
  • lymphocytes = HIGH
  • protein = HIGH
  • glucose = LOW
  • appearance cloudy / purulent
  • opening pressure = high or normal

nb mumps is unusual in being associated with a low glucose level in a proportion of cases. A low glucose may also be seen in herpes encephalitis

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27
Q

1st line empirical abx management of bacterial meningitis:

  • aged <1 month? 2
  • aged 1-3 months? 2
  • aged >3 months? 1
  • additional medication to add if over 3 months? 1
  • what else needs to be done from a public health perspective if confirmed case of bacterial meningitis? 2
A

< 1 month

  • gentamicin
  • amoxicillin

1-3 months

  • cefotaxime
  • amoxicillin

> 3 months
- cefotaxime

ALWAYS SAY YOU WOULD CONSULT TRUST GUIDELINES THOUGH!!!

also if > 3 months
- steroids (to decrease likelihood of neuro sequelae)

PUBLIC HEALTH

  • prophylactically treat contacts / household members
  • inform public health
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28
Q

Potential complications of meningitis:

  • immediate? 5
  • long term? 4
A

IMMEDIATE

  • sepsis
  • seizures
  • DIC
  • cerebral oedema
  • hydrocephalus (dt blockage of ventricle outlets)

LONG TERM

  • hearing loss
  • focal paralysis
  • seizures
  • cerebral palsy (if under 2 years)
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29
Q

What is meningococcal septicaemia?

normal causative organism?

what % also have meningitis?

which two age groups most common in?

A

acute bacteraemia with vasculitis

neisseria meninigtidis

60% also have meningitis

nb subtypes of N. Men are: A/B/C/W/Y

two waves of incidence:

  • < 5 years
  • adolescence
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30
Q

Signs of meningococcal septicaemia? 6

A
  • fever
  • mottling
  • cold peripheries
  • leg pain
  • breathing difficulties
  • non-blanching rash
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31
Q

What investigations make up a ‘septic screen’? 4

who should these always be performed in?

A
  • blood cultures
  • urine analysis
  • CXR
  • LP

(also stool culture, if loose stools)

always perform in child with fever of unknown origin aged < 3 months

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32
Q

blood tests to do if suspect meningococcal septicaemia? 8

Management? 6

A
  • FBC
  • U+E
  • LFT
  • clotting
  • CRP
  • blood cultures
  • VBG
  • glucose

manage using BUFALO

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33
Q

Non-blanching rash:

  • what is the pathophysiology? (ie, why doesn’t it blanch)
  • what are the three different names given to them? (depending on size)
A

Red/Purple non-blanching discolouration of the skin dt haemorrhage from small blood vessels under the skin

PETECHIAE
- < 2mm diameter

PURPURA
- 3-10mm fiameter

ECHYMOSIS
- > 1cm diameter

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34
Q

Causes of purpura in children:

  • infective? 2
  • iatrogenic? 1
  • other causes? 5
A

INFECTIVE

  • viral (most commonly enterovirus eg HFAM, coxsackie, polio)
  • septicaemia (most commonly meningococcal)

IATROGENIC
- drug reactions

OTHER

  • Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
  • Congenital bleeding disorders
  • Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
  • Henoch-Schonlein purpura (or other vasculitis)
  • Non-accidental injury (or accidental trauma)

nb raised superior vena cava pressure (e.g. secondary to a bad cough) may cause petechiae in the upper body but would not cause purpura

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35
Q

Investigations for purpura in children:

  • bedside / obs? 2
  • bloods? 4
  • if signs indicative f sepsis? 6
  • if likely caused by drugs?
  • if diagnosis unclear?
A

nb also take full Hx and examine (don’t forget joints for HSP and abdo exam/organomegaly for cancers)

  • BP
  • urine-analysis (to look for HSP)
  • FBC
  • U+E
  • clotting screen
  • blood cultures

if suspect sepsis:
- BUFALO

  • stop any potential causative drugs

if diagnosis unclear, consider skin biopsy

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36
Q

IRON DEFICIENCY ANAEMIA:

  • three groups of causes? (with 3 example for 1st, 2 examples for 2nd and 4 examples for 3rd
  • biggest source of iron for children?
  • what can increase the absorption of iron?
A

INADEQUATE INTAKE

  • vegetarien/vegan
  • fussy eater
  • over-reliance on cow’s milk

MALABSORPTION

  • coeliac disease
  • parasitic disease (eg hookworm)

BLOOD LOSS

  • meckel’s diverticulum
  • NSAIDs
  • cysts / tumours
  • oesophagitis

FORTIFIED BREAKFAST CEREALS have loads of iron in

vitamin C increases absorption

nb breast and cow’s milik is a poor source of iron - formula feed better , but this is why should wean at 6 months

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37
Q

IRON DEFICIENCY ANAEMIA:

  • most common presentation?
  • systemic symptoms? 4
  • mood / behavioural symptoms? 3
A

normally asymptomatic!!
- most toddlers tolerate surprisingly low Hb

  • easily tired
  • slow feeding in infants
  • pallor (conjunctiva, palmar creases, tongue)
  • breathlessness
  • mood changes / irritability
  • reduced cognitive + psychomotor performance
  • PICA (eating unusual items, eg soil, chalk, gravel)

also ask about blood loss and symptoms of malabsorption (eg vomiting, failure to thrive)

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38
Q

possible blood tests for iron-deficiency anaemia? 4

possible findings of these?

A

FBC

  • low Hb
  • low MCV
  • low MCH
  • low MCHC

U+E
- for anaemia of chronic disease, eg renal

FERRITIN
- low, low iron stores

BLOOD FILM
- microcytic hypochromic anaemia

can also test for coeliac is suspect

ANAEMIA IS NOT A DISEASE - IT IS A SIGN (ie look for underlying cause)

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39
Q

1st line management of iron deficiency anaemia:

  • lifestyle?
  • medication? 1

what to screen for if don’t respond? 2

A

encourage iron-containing food

  • fortified formula
  • fortified breakfast cereals
  • mean
  • green veg
  • beans
  • egg yolk

avoid prolonged cow’s milk consumption to detriment of solids intake

ORAL FERROUS SULPHATE
- dose depend on age and kg

IF NO RESPONSE AFTER 6 MONTHS, screen for:

  • thalasaemmia
  • coeliac disease
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40
Q

ASTHMA:

  • pathophysiology?
  • risk factor to always ask about?
A

Chronic airway inflammation, bronchial hyper-reactivity, reversible airway obstruction.
Mucosal oedema, bronchoconstriction, hyper-secretion of mucus

always ask about FHx and PNHx of atopy (ezcema, asthma, hayfever - also allergy)

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41
Q

How to differentiate between asthma and viral-induced wheeze?

  • age?
  • onset?
  • timing?
  • physical exam findings?
  • FHx/PMHx?

what is the main difference in management in the acute setting?

A

AGE:

  • asthma = normally diagnosed by age 5, but hard to diagnose in infants/toddlers
  • viral-induced = normally under 5 (80% grow out of it)

ONSET:

  • asthma = worse with triggers (see other flashcard)
  • viral-induced = symptoms associated with co-existing URTI

TIMING:

  • asthma = interval symptoms (ie worse at night and early in morning and following triggers)
  • viral induced = no interval symptoms

PHYSICAL EXAM FINDINGS:

  • asthma = wheeze found on auscultation (+ reduced PEFR)
  • viral-induced = clinical findings less likely

FHx / PMHx

  • asthma = strong FHx/PMHx of atopy
  • viral-induced = Hx less likely

Don’t use steroids in acute management of viral-induced wheeze

nb both are responsive to bronchodilators

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42
Q

What two things should you always ask about in social hx of a child with a resp problem?

A
  • do parents smoke?

- any pets?

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43
Q

Four main symptoms of asthma?

A
  • wheeze
  • cough
  • difficulty breathing
  • chest tightness
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44
Q

Triggers for asthma? 8

A
  • exercise
  • cold (or damp air)
  • pets
  • dust mites
  • pollen
  • mould
  • tobacco smoke
  • with emotions or laughter
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45
Q

Aside from viral-induced wheeze, what other DDx to exclude if suspect asthma? 5

A
  • TB
  • URTI
  • recurrent aspiration
  • CF
  • congenital heart disease
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46
Q

FEATURES OF ACUTE ASTHMA:

  • acute severe attack? 5
  • life-threatening attack? 8

incl O2 sats and PEFR

A

ACUTE SEVERE ATTACK

  • Sats < 92%
  • PEFR 33-50% best or predicted
  • can’t complete sentences in one breath (or too breathless to talk or feed)
  • HR >125 (if >5 years) or >140 (if 2-5 years)
  • RR >30 (if >5 years) or >40 (if 2-5 years)

LIFE-THREATENING ATTACK

  • Sats < 92%
  • PEFR < 33% best or predicted
  • silent chest
  • poor resp effort
  • cyanosis
  • hypotension
  • exhaustion
  • confusion

also look for signs of resp distress (eg accessory muscle use)

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47
Q

MANAGEMENT OF ACUTE ASTHMA (aged over 2 years)

  • acronym? 7
  • 1st line? 4
  • 2nd line? 2
A

O SHIT ME

ESCALATE EARLY!

FIRST LINE

  • Oxygen (driven through salbutamol nebs)
  • Salbutamol nebs
  • hydrocortisone IV (or oral prednisalone)
  • ipraptropium bromide nebs

SECOND LINE

  • Aminophylline IV (or IV salbutamol)
  • Magnesium sulphate IV
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48
Q

DDx of asthma in children under 2? 5

A

under, wheeze is more likely due to another aetiology

  • aspiration pneumonitis
  • pneumonia
  • bronchiolitis
  • tracheomalacia
  • complications of underlying conditions (eg congenital heart disease, CF)
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49
Q

Management options for acute suspected asthma in children under 2 years? 4

A

ONLY TREAT IF VERY UNWELL / SYMPTOMATIC

oxygen (if sats low)

pMDI + spacer + mask of salbutamol

consider inhaled iproatropium bromide if severe

if severe, consider steroids (nb be cautious if repeated episodes as can stunt growth)

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50
Q

LONG-TERM MANAGEMENT OF ASTHMA IN UNDER 5s

  • lifestyle changes? 2
  • 1st line?
  • 2nd line?
  • 3rd line?
  • 4th line?
  • when to go to next line of treatment?
  • what additional device should always be given to children under 5?
  • what to check at every appointment?
A
  • stop parental smoking (if relevant)
  • reduce pet / animal exposure (if relevant)

1st line = salbutamol inhaler PRN

2nd line = regular inhaled steroids (start low dose and build up) OR leukotrine receptor antagonist if steroids CI

3rd line = add leukotriene receptor antagonist (or refer if under 2)

4th line = refer to resp physician

NEXT LINE: if using >3 doses of SABA a week

ALWAYS GIVE SPACERS!! (different ones for diff sizes)

CHECK INHALER / SPACER TECHNIQUE AT EVERY APPT

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51
Q

LONG-TERM MANAGEMENT of ASTHMA in children aged 5-12 years

  • lifestyle changes? 2
  • 1st line?
  • 2nd line?
  • 3rd line?
  • 4th line?
  • 5th line? 2
  • when to go to next line of treatment?
  • what additional device should always be given to children under 5?
  • what to check at every appointment?
A
  • stop parental smoking (if relevant)
  • reduce pet / animal exposure (if relevant)

1st line = salbutamol inhaler PRN

2nd line = regular inhaled steroids (start low dose and build up)

3rd line = add LABA

4th line = increase dose of ICS

5th line = add steroid tablet AND refer to resp physician

NEXT LINE: if using >3 doses of SABA a week

ALWAYS GIVE SPACERS!! (different ones for diff sizes)

CHECK INHALER / SPACER TECHNIQUE AT EVERY APPT

nb children aged > 12, treat as for adults

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52
Q

Side effects of steroids in children? 4

A
  • impaired growth (height, hair, feet)
  • adrenal suppression
  • altered bone metabolism
  • oral candidiasis
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53
Q

BRONCHIOLITIS

  • most common causative organism?
  • most common season?
  • age range most affected?
  • what increases chance of increased severity? 3 (what are these groups given? 1)
A

RSV = 70-80%

winter

under 2 years
- peak incidence is 3-6months

HIGH RISK

  • premature babies w chronic lung disease
  • children w CF
  • congenital heart disease

^ give these groups monoclonal antibodies (palitvizumab) before they leave hospital after birth

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54
Q

BRONCHIOLITIS:

  • resp signs / symptoms? 5
  • other signs / symptoms? 2
  • what other systems to always ask about? 2
  • when to suspect secondary bacterial infection? 2
A

RESP

  • corzyal symptoms (normally precede wheeze etc - eg runny nose, sneezing)
  • high-pitched expiratorywheeze
  • fine inspiratory crackles (not always present)
  • dry cough
  • SOB

OTHER

  • low grade fever (< 39 deg)
  • feeding difficulties

nb symptoms peak day 3-5, though cough may continue for 3 wks

nb viral induced wheeze more likely where solely wheeze and > 1 year

ASK ABOUT:

  • bladder
  • bowels (incl feeding)

SUSPECT BACTERIAL INFECTION IF:

  • focal crackles
  • temp > 39 deg
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55
Q

BRONCHIOLITIS:

  • changes to vital signs? 6
  • possible resp exam findings? 5
  • aside from resp exam, what else should you examine for? 2
A
RR - raised
HR - raised
BP - norm
Sats - should be norm
Temp - mildly raised
AVPU - A

RESP

  • nasal flaring
  • subcostal and intercostal recessions
  • harsh cough
  • wheeze
  • cyanosis!

look in nappies
- no wet nappies for 12 hrs is sign of dehydration

look for other signs of dehydration
- eg fontanelle, skin turgor, mucous membranes etc

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56
Q

BRONCHIOLITIS:

  • when to consider admitting into hosp? 3
  • when to immediately admit (by ambulance) and probs to PICU? 6
A

CONSIDER ADMITTING TO HOSP

  • RR > 60
  • difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral intake (50-75% of normal volume)
  • clinical dehydration (eg no wet nappies for >12 hours)

ADMIT IMMEDIATELY TO HOSP / PICU

  • apnoea (observed or reported)
  • child looks seriously unwell (dr opinion)
  • severe resp distress (eg grunting, marked chest recessions, RR >70)
  • central cyanosis
  • persistent sats <92% on air
  • milk / fluid intake drops below 50%

basically the two indications for admitting someone is either:

  • resp distress
  • feeding problems
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57
Q

If admitted, what are the management options for bronchiolitis? 3

what investigations can you do if severe? 2

what investigations can you do is diagnosis is uncertain? 1

A
  • humidified OXYGEN is given via a head box and is typically recommended if the sats are persistently < 92%
  • nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth
  • suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions

if severe:

  • capillary blood gas
  • CXR

if diagnosis uncertain:
- nasal swab

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58
Q

CROUP:

  • full latin name?
  • age group norm affected?
  • normal causative organism?
  • what section of the history is really important not to miss with croup?
A

acute viral laryngotracheobronchitis

6 months - 6 years

parainfluenzae

vaccination history!
- to exclude epiglottitis cause by HiB

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59
Q

CROUP:

  • common prodrome? 1
  • symptoms / signs? 3
  • when are symptoms worse?
A

prodrome = coryzal symptoms

  • barking cough
  • inspiratory stridor
  • fever

symptoms worse at night

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60
Q

CROUP:
- what scale is used to assess severity?

features of mild, moderate and severe disease on these parameters:

  • frequency of barking cough
  • audible stridor
  • supra and/or intercostal recession
  • behaviour of child

other sign of severe disease

A

WESTLEY SCORE

MILD

  • barking cough = occasional
  • audible stridor = none at rest
  • supra and/or intercostal recession = none
  • behaviour = happy: can eat drink + play

MODERATE

  • barking cough = frequent
  • stridor = easily audible at rest
  • supra and/or intercostal recession = yes
  • behaviour = no / little distress or agitation, child can be placated + is interested in surroundings

SEVERE

  • barking cough = prominent
  • stridor = inspiratory (+ occasionally expiratory) at rest
  • supra and/or intercostal recession = yes, marked
  • behaviour = significant distress + agitation or lethargy or restlessness
  • tachycardia!
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61
Q

CROUP:

  • what severity of croup should be admitted to hosp?
  • other criteria for admission? 3
A

severe AND moderate (ie stridor at rest and intercostal recessions)

other criteria for admission:

  • < 6 months of age
  • known upper airway abnormalities (eg laryngomalacia, down’s)
  • uncertainty about diagnosis (see DDx flashcard)

also if other reasons, eg child looks toxic / cyanosed, dehydration, social situations meaning parent is struggling to look after,

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62
Q

DDx of croup? 4

which is most important to rule out?

A
  • ACUTE EPIGLOTTITIS (drooling present)
  • bacterial tracheitis
  • peritonsilar abscess
  • foreign body inhalation
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63
Q

CROUP:

  • simple investigations to do, in addition to resp exam? 6
  • what should you NOT do when examining? 2
A

just do obs (HR, BP, RR, sats, AVPU, temp) in addition to resp exam
- is a clinical diagnosis

  • try to visualise back of throat
  • distress the child (as this may worsen symptoms)
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64
Q

CROUP MANAGEMENT:

  • medication for all?
  • advice to parents if going home? 4
  • features to tell parents about to bring child in for? 3
  • features to tell parents to call ambulance for? 7
  • additional management options if admitted? 2
A

single dose PO dexamethasone (or can give IM or inhaled steroid if can’t take oral)

if going home (ie mild):

  • symptoms should resolve within 48hrs
  • use paracetamol / ibuprofen if distressed dt fever
  • encourage fluid intake
  • check child regularly, incl at night

BRING TO HOSPITAL

  • continuous stridor
  • skin between ribs is pulling in with each breath
  • child is restless or agitated

CALL AMBULANCE

  • very pale, blue or grey (incl blue lips) for > few secs
  • unusually sleepy or not responding
  • real difficulty breathing (windpipe pulling in , flaring nostrils)
  • really agitated, uncalmable
  • can’t talk (if applicable)
  • can’t swallow
  • drooling

IF ADMITTED

  • high flow oxygen
  • nebulised adrenaline (if still not work then consider intubation)

remember everyone gets same single dose of steroids, regardless of severity

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65
Q

EPIGLOTTITIS:

  • norm causative organism?
  • biggest risk factor?
A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

unvaccinated children

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66
Q

EPIGLOTITTIS:

  • speed of onset?
  • key symptoms / features? 3
  • other symptoms / features? 5
  • what symptom is normally absent (that is present in DDx)? 1
A

rapid onset

  • high temp, generally unwell
  • stridor
  • drooling of saliva

OTHER SYMPTOMS

  • sore throat
  • odynophagia (painful swallowing)
  • muffled voice (‘hot potato’ voice)
  • cervical lymphadenopathy
  • tripoding (older kids)

kids with epiglottitis rarely have a cough (helping to differentiate it from croup)

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67
Q

EPIGLOTITTIS MANAGEMENT:

  • what shouldn’t do? 1
  • who do you need to manage? 2
  • medication? 1
  • what sign on lateral neck xray?
A

DON’T look in mouth!

  • anaesthetist
  • ENT

Abx (once airway secured)

lateral neck x-ray
- thumbprint sign

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68
Q

COMMON CAUSES OF PNEUMONIA IN KIDS:

  • commonest cause overall?
  • neonates? 2
  • children < 5 years? 5
  • children > 5 years? 3
  • what to consider in all ages? 1
A

COMMONEST = STREP PNEUMONIAE

NEONATES

  • Group b strep
  • gram -ve enterococci
CHILDREN < 5 YEARS
- VIRAL: RSV
- strep pneumoniae
- haem influenzae
- bordetella pertussis
- chlamydia trachomatis
(also infrequent, but serious: staph aureus)

CHILDREN > 5 YEARS

  • strep pneumoniae
  • mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • chlamydia pneumoniae

consider TB in all ages! (ask about foreign travel!)

nb hard to tell difference clinically between viral and bacterial pneumonia in kids - tend to treat as bacterial (as also can’t tell on CXR either)

nb don’t focus on learning all that much, just that strep pneumoniae is most common and organisms from mother’s genital tract most common in neonates

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69
Q

PNEUMONIA IN CHILDREN:

  • resp symptoms / signs? 7
  • other symptoms / signs? 4
A

RESP

  • dyspnoea
  • cough
  • wheeze
  • crackles
  • reduced air entry (dull percussion)
  • nasal flaring
  • inter/sub costal recessions

OTHER

  • lethargy
  • poor feeding
  • fever
  • localised chest, abdo or neck pain (suggests bacterial cause)
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70
Q

PNEUMONIA IN CHILDREN:

  • 1st line abx management? 1
  • Abx if pen allergic or suspect atypical cause? 1
  • Abx if severe? 1
  • what to say in osce?
  • other management options? 2
A

amoxicillin = 1st line

macrolides (norm clarithromycin) if atypical (mycoplasma or chlamydia) is suspected (or if pen allergic)

co-amoxiclav if severe (or associated with flu)

I WOULD LIKE TO CONSULT THE TRUST GUIDELINES

  • encourage oral intake (IV fluids if necessary)
  • maintain O2 sats above 92%
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71
Q

Causative organisms in URTI in children:

  • pharyngitis? (3 viral, 1 bacterial)
  • tonsillitis? (1 viral, 1 bacterial)
A

PHARYNGITIS:

  • adenovirus
  • enterovirus
  • rhinovirus
  • group A beta haemolytic strep

TONISILITIS

  • ebstein-barr virus
  • group A beta haemolytic strep

nb just learn that either viral or group A strep (strep pyogenes)

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72
Q

URTI (pharyngitis/tonsilitis)

  • resp symptoms? 4
  • other symptoms? 3
  • signs that make bacterial cause more likely? 4 (name of criteria)
  • what to always ask about in infants? 1
A

RESP

  • painful throat
  • wheeze
  • blocked nose
  • nasal discharge

OTHER

  • fever
  • ear ache
  • abdo pain (mesenteric adenitis - common < 16 yrs - inflammation of abdo lymph nodes)

CENTOR CRITERIA (need 3 or more):

  • tender cervical lymph nodes
  • purulent exudate on tonsils
  • fever
  • absence of cough

always ask about feeding (and wet nappies) in infants

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73
Q

URTI:

  • management for all? 2
  • additional management if suspect bacterial cause? 1
  • which abx should you NOT give? 1
A
  • encourage oral intake
  • analgesia (paracetamol, ibuprofen)

ANTIBIOTICS: penicillin (check this)

DO NOT give ampicillin or amoxicillin (as can get rash if cause is actually EBV)

nb amoxicillin and ampicillin are the same thing!

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74
Q

VIRAL-INDUCED WHEEZE:

  • typical age?
  • what is main two DDx to rule out?
  • management options? 2
A

typically under 5

MAIN TWO DDX

  • asthma (look at triggers, diurnal symptoms, age, hx of atopy)
  • foreign body inhalation (ask hx, onset)

MANAGEMENT

  • salbutamol inhaler (if over 6 months)
  • oxygen, if sats < 92%

nb don’t gve steroids!!

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75
Q

CYSTIC FIBROSIS

  • what % in UK are carriers?
  • chance of CF if both parents carriers?
  • which protein is the mutation in?
  • neonatal screening? 1
A

1 in 25 are carrier

if both parents carriers:

  • 1 in 4 will have CF
  • 2 in 4 will be carriers
  • 1 in 4 will be normal

mutation in CFTR protein (chloride channels)
- causes faulty exchange of chloride and sodium -> lots of mucus -> defective mucociliary clearance

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76
Q

CYSTIC FIBROSIS:

  • neonatal screening? 1
  • diagnostic test? 1
  • findings on CXR? 3
  • finding on lung function test? 1
A

screening: Day 5 blood spot test in all babies (tests trypsin levels)

(if screening comes back +ve or any FHx of CF, do sweat test)

diagnostic: sweat test (if CF, have abnormally high sweat chloride)

nb there are things that cause a false positive sweat test (but don’t bother learning)

nb genetic test is also normally done to confirm!

CXR

  • hyperinflation
  • peri-bronchial thickening
  • bronchiectasis (signet ring sign)

lung function test = obstructive resp defect

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77
Q

CYSTIC FIBROSIS:

  • common presentations? 4 (excl neonatal screening)
  • what % are diagnosed aged over 18?
  • what specific questions should you ask about if suspecting CF? 5
A

1) MECONIUM ILLEUS
- around 20%
- can include billous vomiting
- less commonly, prolonged jaundice

2) RECURRENT CHEST INFECTIONS
- around 40%

3) MALABSORPTION
- around 30%
- failure to thrive (despite huge appetite)
- steatorrhoea

4) OTHER FEATURES
- around 10%
- eg liver disease

most are picked up on newborn screening, but 5% are diagnosed after age 18

Qs to ask

  • any delay in passing first meconium?
  • jaundice as a neonate? (or now)
  • number of chest infections?
  • growth? (weight and height - plot it!)
  • consistency of stools?
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78
Q

CYSTIC FIBROSIS:

- signs on examination? 7

A
  • crackles
  • chest deformity
  • nasal polyps
  • evidence of malnutrition
  • finger clubbing
  • firm enlarged liver + splenomegaly
  • delayed puberty
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79
Q

CYSTIC FIBROSIS:

- main complications? 8

A
  • bronchiectasis / chronic infections
  • nasal polyps + sinus infections
  • diabetes (not everyone gets it but, if they do, tend to develop it in teenage years)
  • nutritional deficiencies -> poor growth
  • liver problems
  • fertility problems (men infertile, women subfertile)
  • osteoporosis
  • mental health problems (secondary to living with a chronic disease)
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80
Q

CYSTIC FIBROSIS MANAGEMENT:

  • exercise? 1
  • nutrition? 3
  • prophylactic meds for infection? 3
  • other medications? 3
  • end-stage management option? 1
A
  • regular (at least twice daily) chest physio
  • high calorie diet (incl high fat intake)
  • fat soluble vit supplements (ADEK)
  • CREON (pancreatic enzymes) taken with food
  • prophylactic antibiotics
  • pneumococcal vaccine
  • influenza vaccine
  • mucolytics (nebulised enzymes, take during physio)
  • steroids
  • lumacaftor/ivacaftor - ie orkambi (now funded by NHS)
  • heart + lung transplant

nb people w CF shouldn’t meet others w CF! for risk of sharing bugs!

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81
Q

Constipation:

  • first thing to ask?
  • normal frequency of bowel movement?
  • what to ask about the stool appearance? 2
  • what to ask the child about opening their bowels? 2
  • what posture to ask parents about?
  • (in summary of above points, what 6 things do you want to know about the constipation)
  • what does overflow soiling look like?
  • apart from bowels, what else GI/urinary-related should you ask about in hx? 7
A

WHEN STARTED

  • any triggers?
  • illness/dehydration?
  • weaning?
  • life change?

frequency varies hugely from 3 times a day to 3 times a week
- is not that helpful as an indicator (consistency more important) but still ask anyway

ask about:

  • consistency - how hard (show them bristol stool chart)
  • any blood?

ask child if it hurts when they go for a poo? and if they ever try to ‘hold a poo in’?

typical retentive posturing: typically straight legged, tiptoed, back arching posture

so want to know:

  • frequency
  • consistency
  • blood
  • pain
  • retentive behaviour

can also ask parents about if they notice any abdo BLOATING

Overflow soiling = commonly very loose, very smelly, stool passed without sensation

ALSO ASK ABOUT:

  • nutrition (content of diet)
  • appetite
  • weight gain / loss
  • fluid intake
  • urinary function
  • nausea + vomiting
  • any diarrhoea
82
Q

What age is chronic constipation most common in children?

what age should children be faecally continent by?

what is encopresis?

A

Chronic constipation most common age 2-4 whilst potty training

Child should be faecally continent by age 2-3
- Abnormal if later than 5 years

Encopresis:
Voluntary passage of whole formed stools in inappropriate places, by child who is mature enough to be continent. – Often behavioural problem

83
Q

What is a common cause of sudden onset constipation in children?

what should you, therefore, always ask about?

A

following an acute illness as child may have not eaten or drunk for a few days and so may be dehydrated -> constipation

always ask about any recent illnesses

84
Q

Risk factors for constipation in children? 6

A
  • diet
  • lack of exercise
  • holding of stools
  • change in routine (incl birth of sibling, starting school)
  • genetics
  • medication
85
Q

Red flags for constipation? 9

A
  • failure to pass meconium as a newborn (ie it took >48 hours)
  • Reported from birth or first few weeks of life
  • failure to thrive / faltering growth
  • ribbon stools
  • abdominal distension
  • absence of witholding manouveres
  • bladder dysfunction
  • abnormal neuro findings (lower limb weakness, sacral dimple)
  • empty rectal ampulla on PR
86
Q

FUNCTIONAL CONSTIPATION:

  • what is it?
  • three groups of factors that contribute to it?
  • describe the cycle that often develops?
  • criteria used to describe it?
A

functional constipation is caused by situational, psychological, developmental or dietary issues

nb 95% of constipation is functional (organic is rare)

BEHAVIOURAL
- young children may ignore the urge to defecate, negative feelings towards public toilets

FOOD ALLERGIES
- milk, egg, wheat being the most common allergies associated with constipation

DIETARY FACTORS
- reduced fluid and dietary fibre intake

THE CYCLE
- constipation -> hard stools -> anal fissure -> painful defecation -> witholding -> further constipation and harder stools (as longer in the bowel, more water is absorbed) etc

ROME CRITERIA FOR FUNCTIONAL CONSTIPATION (2 or more in a child with developmental age of at least 4)

  • less than 3 defecations per week
  • at least one episode of faecal incontinence in a week
  • hx of painful or hard bowel movements
  • presence of large mass in the rectum
  • hx of large diameter stools that may obstruct the toilet

(nb technically these criteria must be filled for at least once a week for 2 months before diagnosis)

87
Q

What to examine in a child with constipation? 5

when should a PR be performed?

A
  • height and weight (plot on customised growth chart)
  • abdomen (palpable faeces, distension, bowel sounds)
  • anal area (examine for fissures)
  • spine (deep sacral cleft or tuft of hair)
  • neuro of LL

PR is not normally required, if it is, do under GA

88
Q

ORGANIC CONSTIPATION:

  • what is it?
  • six groups of causes? (4 common, 2 rare)
A

results from a documented pathological condition

  • ie opposite to functional
  • only about 5% of constipation in children is organic

CAUSES

  • anatomical malformations
  • endocrine
  • GI diseases (eg coeliac)
  • neuropathic diseases
  • abnormal abdominal musculature (rare)
  • connective tissue disorders (rare)

nb if hypermobility of joints, ask about GI symptoms - as often get reflux / constipation too

89
Q

two main endocrine causes of constipation in children?

What should you always ask about in the history to assess likelihood of one of these?

A
  • hypercalcaemia
  • hypothyroidism
ask about FHx of any autoimmune conditions:
- coeliac
- hypothyroid
- diabetes 
etc
90
Q

PRESUMED FUNCITONAL CONSTIPATION:

- what three organic causes to rule out?

A

RULE OUT

  • coeliac
  • hypothyroidism
  • hirschprung’s (if failure to thrive or in infancy)

(see later flashcard for hirschprungs)

91
Q

FUCNTIONAL CONSTIPATION VS HIRSCHPRUNG’S DISEASE:

  • delayed meconium
  • age at onset
  • faecal incontinence
  • history of fissure
  • failure to thrive / malnutrition
  • enterocolitis
  • abdo distension
  • presence of stool on PR
A

delayed meconium

  • func = no
  • hirsch = common

age at onset

  • func = after 2 years
  • hirsch = at birth

faecal incontinence

  • func = common
  • hirsch = very rare

history of fissure

  • func = common
  • hirsch = rare

failure to thrive / malnutrition

  • func = uncommon
  • hirsch = possible

enterocolitis

  • func = none
  • hirsch = possible

abdo distension

  • func = rare
  • hirsch = common

presence of stool on PR

  • func = palpable stool
  • hirsch = empty
92
Q

before commencing management for functional constipation, children should be assessed for faecal impaction
- what are the three factors suggestive of faecal impaction?

A
  • symptoms of severe constipation
  • overflow soiling
  • faecal pass palpable in abdomen (PR should only be carried out by a specialist)

if found, often start management of impaction in hospital before going to outpatient

  • is same as for constipation but higher doses
  • nb symptoms may get worse before get better
93
Q

management of functional constipation:

  • dietary? 3
  • lifestyle / behaviour? 2
  • medication? (1st and 2nd line) (incl duration of medication)
A

DIET

  • plenty of fluids
  • avoid excessive cow’s milk
  • some fibre, but not loads (need less than adult)

LIFESTYLE / BEHAVIOUR

  • regular toileting
  • reward-based system

MEDICATION

  • 1st line: movicol paediatric plan (aka polythylene glycol or PEG)
  • 2nd line: Senna (or other stimulant)

give laxatives for at least 3-6 months

  • aim for one soft, easy to pass bowel motion a day
  • slowly taper off dose, but increase if get symptoms again

nb commonest cause of treatment failure is stopping laxatives too early

94
Q

What type of laxatives are:

  • Bisacodyl
  • Coloxyl drops
  • Lactulose
  • Liquid parafin
  • PEG (aka movicol)
  • Senna
A

OSMOTIC

  • Lactulose
  • PEG (aka movicol)

STIMULANT

  • Bisacodyl
  • Senna

STOOL SOFTENER

  • Coloxyl drops
  • Liquid parafin
95
Q

GASTROENTERITIS:

  • two predominant symptoms?
  • other symptoms/red flags to ask about? 7
  • questions to ask to help determine cause? 3
A
  • vomiting
  • diarrhoea

ASK ABOUT:

  • consistency of stools
  • blood in stools
  • blood in vomit
  • appetite / food intake (% of normal)
  • fluid intake (what type of fluid, water or rehydration?)
  • abdo pain
  • fever

TO DETERMINE CAUSE

  • anyone else sick? (house or nursery/school)
  • recent travel?
  • any new food in last 48hrs? (ie food poisoning)
96
Q

GASTROENTERITIS:

  • common causative organisms? 3
  • normal duration of vomiting?
  • normal duration of diarrhoea?
  • commonest complication of gastroenteritis?
A

normally viral

  • rota virus
  • adenovirus
  • norovirus

less common:
- salmonella, campylobacter, E. Coli O157, listeria, cholera

vomiting norm: 1-2 days (most stop within 3)

diarrhoea norm: 5-7 days (most stop within 2wks)

commonest complication = dehydration

97
Q

DDx OF GASTROENTERITIS? 7

check these*

A
  • small bowel obstruction (intussusception)
  • appenditicitis
  • food allergy
  • lactase deficiency
  • bacterial sepsis
  • meningitis
  • UTI
98
Q

GASTROENTERITIS

  • signs that suggest mild (2), moderate (4) or severe (5) dehydration?
  • signs that suggest an alternative diagnosis? 7
A

MILD (3%)

  • dry lips + mouth
  • CRT normal

MODERATE (5%)

  • sunken eyes + fontanelle
  • decreased skin turgor
  • fewer wet nappies
  • CRT 2-5s

SEVERE (10%)

  • reduced consciousness
  • high RR
  • high HR
  • late CRT >5s
  • Low BP (v. late sign)

OTHER RED FLAGS

  • fever (temp >38 age under 3mnth, temp >39 age over 3 month)
  • meningism (headache, neck stiffness, photophobia)
  • bilious vomiting
  • blood or mucus in stools
  • severe or localised abdo pain
  • abdo distension
  • rebound tenderness
99
Q

MANAGEMENT OF GASTROENTERITIS:

  • advice if mild dehydration only?
  • options if moderate / severe dehydration? 4 (incl which vitamin)
A

IF MILD

  • advise fluids (incl oral rehydration)
  • hand washing in family
  • stay off school/daycare until 48hrs symptoms free
  • safety net specific red flags to bring back in for

OPTIONS IF MODERATE / SEVERE

  • fluids (oral if possible, or IV)
  • if vomiting, ondasetron
  • can do NG tube if need
  • zinc (can reduce severity of episodes in under 5s)

nb can also consider vit A supplements

(nb advise parents against fruit juice or fizzy drinks as this can worsen - squash is fine)

100
Q

Features of:

  • listeria? 3
  • cholera? 2
A

LISTERIA

  • bloody diarrhoea
  • fever
  • abdo pain

CHOLERA

  • rice water stools
  • rapid dehydration
101
Q

E. Coli gastroenteritis:

  • main clinical feature?
  • how often spread?
  • treatment required?
  • what other condition associated with it?
  • features of this condition?
A
  • bloody diarrhoea

Associated with severe, large outbreaks, Infective dose is very small

  • Point source outbreak = likely to be E.coli
  • Burgers/ products with minced meat = high risk poisoning.

normally just supportive treatment is required!

HAEMOLYTIC URAEMIC SYNDROME associated with E.coli 157. (produces verotoxin)

Triad:

  • Low Hb
  • Low platelets
  • High Urea

Can cause AKI

Early liaison with paediatric nephrology

Monitor fluid balance and electrolytes

Blood transfusion/ dialysis may be required.

102
Q

What is the difference between gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)?

What to always ask about / check when infant presents with GOR?

What features (GI and non-GI) indicate more towards a diagnosis of GORD? 7

A

GOR = effortless passage of gastric contents

  • aka posseting
  • occurs after feeds
  • 50% of babies have
  • develops before 8 wks and usually resolves by a year

GORD = reflux of gastric contents with other symptoms

ALWAYS ASK IF GAINING WEIGHT APPROPRIATELY (check growth chart)

GORD

  • excessive irritability
  • faltering growth
  • persistent cough / stridor
  • hoarseness
  • recurrent pneumonia
  • apnoea
  • Brief resolved unexplained event (BRUE) (Sudden onset pain, limp, apnoea - lasts for less than 60secs)
103
Q

Which infants are more at risk of GORD? 3

A
  • cerebral palsy (or other neuro problem)
  • premature babies
  • chronic lung problems
104
Q

GOR/GORD:

  • investigation? 1
  • 1st line management advice? 3
  • 2nd line management? 1
  • 3rd line management?
A

pH study - overnight oesophageal probe
- though this often not done

1st LINE

  • small, regular feeds (though not more frequent than every 3hrs)
  • wind baby during feeds
  • keep baby upright during / following feeds (at least 25 degs)

2nd LINE
- add thickener to milk or pre-thickened formula (anti-reflux milk)

3rd LINE
- Ranitidine or PPIs

105
Q

ACUTE VOMITING DDx

  • three most common causes (all GI)
  • other GI? 6
  • other? 8
A

MOST COMMON
= overfeeding
= GO-reflux
= gastroenteritis

OTHER GI

  • protein intolerance (eg CMPA)
  • appendicitis
  • obstruction
  • pyloric stenosis
  • malrotation with volvulus
  • small bowel atresia

OTHER

  • viral infection (esp from coughing)
  • acute otitis media
  • UTI
  • sepsis
  • meningitis
  • poisoning
  • endocrine / metabolic problem (eg DKA)
  • raised ICP

also nb other things like ovarian torsion can also cause vomiting

106
Q

Causes of bilious vomiting in neonates? 5

describe for each:

  • cause?
  • age at presentation?
  • investigation?
  • management?
A

DUODENAL ATRESIA
- Few hours after birth
- AXR shows double bubble sign, contrast study may confirm
= Duodenoduodenostomy

JEJUNAL / ILEAL ATRESIA
- norm caused by vascular insufficiency in utero
- Usually within 24 hours of birth
- AXR will show air-fluid levels
= Laparotomy with primary resection and anastomosis

MALROTATION WITH VOLVULUS
- caused by incomplete rotation during embryogenesis
- Usually 3-7 days after birth, volvulus with compromised circulation may result in peritoneal signs and haemodynamic instability
- Upper GI contrast study may show DJ flexure is more medially placed, USS may show abnormal orientation of SMA and SMV
= Ladd’s procedure

MECONIUM ILEUS
- 15-20% of babies with cystic fibrosis, otherwise 1 in 5000
- Typically in first 24-48 hours of life with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting
- Air - fluid levels on AXR, sweat test to confirm cystic fibrosis
= Surgical decompression, serosal damage may require segmental resection

NECROTISING ENTEROCOLITIS

  • risks increased in prematurity, low birth weight and inter-current illness
  • Usually second week of life
  • Dilated bowel loops on AXR, pneumatosis and portal venous air
  • Conservative and supportive (incl abx) for non-perforated cases, laparotomy and resection in cases of perforation of ongoing clinical deterioration
107
Q

CHRONIC VOMITING DDx

  • four most common? (all GI)
  • other GI? 2
  • other? 4 (last 2 think adolescents)
A

ie low-grade daily pattern of vomiting

MOST COMMON:
= GO-reflux
= overfeeding
= cows milk protein intolerance
= food allergy

OTHER GI

  • coeliac disease
  • recurernt obstruction

OTHER

  • space occupying lesion
  • psychogenic / behavioural (esp in younger children)
  • bulimia
  • pregnancy
108
Q

CYCLIC VOMITING:

  • what is it?
  • four common DDx?
A

Cyclic = severe, discrete episodes of vomiting associated with pallor, lethargy +/- abdominal pain
- norm a non-GI cause

  • idiopathic
  • endocrine
  • abdominal migraine
  • CNS disease
109
Q

VOMITING: Qs for Hx:

  • red flag features of the vomit? 3
  • other HPC questions (excl associated symp)? 4
  • associated symptoms? 6
  • PMHx to specifically ask about? 1
  • additional Hx to do in adolescents? 1

(obvs do full PMHx, DHx, FHx, BINDS, SHx as well)

A

RED FLAGS

  • projectile vomiting
  • bile-stained
  • haematemesis (blood or coffee ground)
  • when started? (any proceeding event - think head injury)
  • other features of vomit: volume consistency, colour?
  • how many times? (getting worse?)
  • ever had before?
  • appetite
  • failure to thrive / weight loss (RED FLAG)
  • fluid intake / wet nappies?
  • pain (abdo, head)
  • diarrhoea
  • fever

(do full systems review in kids: eg any resp symptoms, more drowsy, weakness etc)

any PMHx of diabetes?

HEADSS HX in adolescents - this may be bulimia!

110
Q

EXAMINATION FOR VOMITING:

  • what to examine to assess fluid status? 5
  • finding on abdo exam in pyloric stenosis? 2
  • sign to look for which indicates obstruction?
  • what to always do on abdo exam (regardless of age)?
  • aside from abdo exam, what else should you examine / measure in children under 5? 3
  • abdo exam end pieces / bedside tests to consider in children? 6 (acronym - diff to adult one)
  • what examination should you do if no obvious cause?
A
  • fontanelle (under a year)
  • eyes
  • mucous membranes
  • CRT
  • weight

pyloric stenosis

  • olive mass
  • visible peristalsis

look for ABDO DISTENSION for obstruction
- ask parents if they think look more distended than normal!

LISTEN FOR BOWEL SOUNDS

  • ear exam
  • throat exam
  • head circumference (under 2)

END PIECES - SHUGGG

  • Stool sample
  • hernial orifices
  • urine sample
  • external Genetalia
  • GROWTH CHART
  • capillary Glucose

(nb in adults, tend not to do glucose or growth chart, but would do rectal exam - ie SHRUG)

DO NEURO EXAM (incl papilloedema, meningism signs) if no obvious cause of vomiting

111
Q

VOMITING INVESTIGATIONS:

  • blood to do if suspect dehydration?
  • blood to do if suspect pyloric stenosis?
  • options to investigate GORD? 2
  • investigation in all cases of bile-stained vomit? why?
A

suspect dehydration
= U+E

pyloric stenosis
= blood gas (venous or capillary) - assess degree of metabolic acidosis

GORD

  • pH monitoring
  • barium swallow

bile-stained vomit = upper GI contrast study (to exclude malrotation)

112
Q

What changes do you see to chloride and potassium ions in the metabolic alkalosis caused by pyloric stenosis?

A
  • low chloride (as vomiting HCl)
  • low potassium

ie a hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

113
Q

Potential complications of vomiting, esp if sustained? 10

A
  • dehydration
  • electrolyte imbalance
  • GI bleeding
  • mallory weiss tear
  • oesophageal stricture
  • barret’s metaplasia
  • aspiration
  • faltering growth
  • anaemia
  • damage to teeth
114
Q

What are the 4 phases of growth under the age of 18?

A

1) Intrauterine/ prenatal = most rapid phase of growth
2) Infantile
3) Childhood
4) Pubertal

115
Q

average birth weight?

average head circumference at birth?

A

3.3kg (7.8lbs)

35cm circum

116
Q

Nutritional requirements in infants:

  • how many mls/kg/day of milk in first 6 months?
  • what could overfeeding result in? 1
  • at what age should you wean?
A

150ml/kg/day until age 6 months

overfeeding can -> GORD / vomiting

wean at 6 months

117
Q

Maintenance fluids for an infant / child: how may mls/kg/day?

so how much maintenance fluid in a day would a 37kg child need?

A

1st 10kg = 100ml/kg/day

2nd 10kg = 50ml/kg/day

subsequent kg = 20ml/kg/day

for a child of 37kg = (10 x 100) + (10 x 50) + (17 x 20) = 1840 ml/day = 76.6 ml/hr

nb Can do to decimal point in kids, esp neonates, ie don’t round up or down

nb use sodium chloride 0.9%

118
Q

Resuscitation fluids for children:

  • which fluid to use?
  • how many mls/kg to give and over how long?
  • two main exceptions to this dose? how much should give them?
A

0.9% sodium chloride

20 mls/kg over less than 10 mins

exceptions:
- child in DKA
- neonate
(also child w HF)
^ give 10 ml/kg instead
119
Q

TYPE 1 DM

  • four classic presenting symptoms? (excluding DKA)
  • two common ages of presentation?
  • symptoms of DKA? 4
A
  • fatigue / lethargy
  • weight loss
  • polydipsia
  • polyuria

“4 Ts: tired, thirsty, toilet, thin”

peak presentation
= 5-7 years
= puberty

DKA

  • abdo pain
  • vomiting
  • fast, deep breathing (then kussmaul)
  • reduced consciousness
120
Q

TYPE 1 DM:

  • bloods? 2 (diagnostic cut off values)
  • additional bloods if suspect DKA? 4
A

serum blood glucose (random)
- DM if >11.1mmol
^do this straight away as don’t want to send someone away as they may go into DKA

fasting glucose
- DM if >7mmol

nb don’t do HbA1c to diagnose in kids

ALL YOU NEED to diagnose a child with DM is a random blood glucose >11.1 AND signs + symptoms

IF SUSPECT DKA

  • VBG
  • capillary ketones
  • U+Es
  • FBCs (any infection)
121
Q

DKA

  • definition of DKA? (3 values for diagnosis)
  • four broad things you need to give? (acronym) - which order do you give these in?
  • what do you need to monitor (do repeats of) while treating DKA? 3
  • what else to always look for signs of?
A
Diabetes = BM >11mmol
Ketosis = ketones >3mmol
Acidosis = pH <7.3 (or bicarb <18mmol)

KIDS

  • K = potassium (monitor and add to fluids if/when low)
  • I = Insulin (1-2 hrs post fluids)
  • D = Dextrose (after insulin, once BMs start to drop but acidosis still not cleared)
  • S = Saline (give 10ml/kg bolus first then adjust)
1st = Saline
2nd = Insulin
3rd = Potassium (or when need)
4th = dextrose
MONITOR:
- BMs
- blood gas (treatment guided by pH)
- ECG (potassium)
(also obs as well)

ALWAYS LOOK FOR A FOCUS OF INFECTION (esp in known diabetic!)

ALWAYS FOLLOW TRUST GUIDELINES WHEN TREATING DKA

122
Q

COMPLICATIONS OF DKA

  • most common? (risk factors, signs + management)
  • two other complications?
A

1) CEREBRAL OEDEMA (major cause of death)

most common if:

  • pH <7.1
  • new onset DM
  • long symptom duration
  • sodium imbalance

signs

  • headache
  • agitation
  • reduced GCS
  • cushing’s triad (irregular decreased resps, low HR, high BP)

management:

  • mannitol
  • hypertonic saline

2) HYPOKALAEMIA
- arrythmias (do ECG monitoring)

3) ASPIRATION
- dt low GCS

123
Q

Management options for type 1 DM? 2

additional education required? 3

what blood tests used to monitor? 2

what ages is management hardest in?

three long term complications of raised blood sugar?

what associated conditions are screened for regularly? 2

A
  • basal and bolus dosing (BD long-acting and short acting after meals)
  • have rapid-acting 15-20 min before food
  • continuous insulin pump (rapid acting insulin in this)
  • educate about importance of carb counting
  • educate how to take BMs + inject (incl rotating site)
  • educate about DKA and hypo, how to avoid and what signs to look out for and initial management

monitoring:

  • capillary glucose multiple times a day
  • HbA1c

nb low variability in BMs is associated with better outcome than good HbA1c

TEENAGERS FIND IT HARD TO MANAGE! HELP THEM!
- also counsel that need higher insulin doses if ill

LONG TERM COMPLICATIONS:

  • nephropathy
  • neuropathy
  • retinopathy

regularly screen for:

  • thyroid problems
  • coeliac disease
124
Q

HYPOGLYCAEMIA

  • common causes in diabetics? 7
  • symptoms? 4
  • signs? 6
  • capillary blood glucose reading?
A

COMMON CAUSES

  • excess insulin given
  • not enough carbs eaten
  • exercise
  • stress
  • hot weather
  • alcohol consumption (tends to happen overnight after drinking)
  • D+V

SYMPTOMS

  • feeling hungry
  • feeling ‘shakey’
  • headache
  • nausea

SIGNS

  • pallor
  • sweaty
  • tremor
  • tachycardia
  • drowsy / irritable
  • coma or convulsions

Glucose < 4 mmol (nb <2.8 mmol in non-diabetics)

nb common to have mild or moderate hypos even if well controlled
- severe hypos (LOC, seizures) are rare

125
Q

MANAGEMENT OF HYPOGLYCAEMIA:

  • if conscious? 1
  • options if unconscious? 3
  • what to do after give treatment?
A

Conscious pt: sugary snacks (jelly baby) or ‘hypostop’ gel
- RECHECK glucose after 15 mins

Unconscious pt:

  • Hypostop gel can be rubbed into buccal mucosa.
  • If IV access = give 2mls/kg 10% dextrose as bolus, follow with glucose infusion.
  • If critically ill, then glucagon IM (parents can do this)

Recheck serum glucose regularly. Within 15 mins of treatment

126
Q

Two definitions of failure to thrive?

what important to differentiate it from? how to prevent this?

A

FAILURE TO THRIVE (FTT)

1) Drop in at least 2 centiles
2) less than 0.4th centile

differentiate from child who is constitutionally small / short
- use personalised growth charts which take into account parents height + weight

127
Q

DDx of failure to thrive:
what are the three main groups of causes?

other main two groups of causes that doesn’t fit into any of these 3?

A
  • Inadequate caloric intake
  • Inadequate nutrient absorption
  • Increased metabolism

DON’T FORGET

  • genetic abnormalities, eg Turner’s syndrome
  • medications (eg steroids)
128
Q

DDx OF FAILURE TO THRIVE due to:
- Inadequate caloric intake? (4 infants, 4 any age)

by ‘infants’ I mean either only happens in infants or is normally present from birth/early infancy

A

INADEQUATE CALORIC INTAKE:

  • inadequate breast milk supply or poor latching
  • incorrect formula preparation
  • mechanical feeding difficulties (eg cleft lip/palate)
  • reflux
  • poor oral neuromotor coordination
  • poor eating habits (‘fussy’)
  • neglect or abuse
  • mental health conditions (in parent or child)
129
Q

DDx OF FAILURE TO THRIVE due to:
- Inadequate nutrient absorption? (4 infant, 3 any age)

by ‘infants’ I mean either only happens in infants or is normally present from birth/early infancy

A

INADEQUATE NUTRIENT ABSORPTION

  • biliary atresia
  • cystic fibrosis
  • inborn errors of metabolism
  • milk protein allergy
  • coeliac disease (growth chart shows fall off in growth when gluten introduced into diet)
  • chronic GI conditions (eg IBD)
  • anaemia / iron deficiency
130
Q

DDx OF FAILURE TO THRIVE due to:
- Increased metabolism? (2 infant, 5 any age)

nb some of these may be groups of causes

by ‘infants’ I mean either only happens in infants or is normally present from birth/early infancy

A

INCREASED METABOLISM

  • chronic lung disease of immaturity
  • congenital heart disease
  • chronic infection (eg HIV, TB)
  • chronic inflammation (eg asthma, IBD)
  • hyperthyroidism
  • renal failure
  • malignancy
131
Q

RED FLAGS FOR FAILURE TO THRIVE? 8 (ie when to suspect a medical cause)

nb 2 are hx, 6 are exam findings

A
  • cardiac findings suggesting congenital heart disease (eg murmur, oedema, jugular venous distension)
  • developmental delay
  • dysmorphic features
  • failure to gain weight despite adequate caloric intake
  • organomegaly
  • lymphadenopathy
  • recurrent or severe resp or urinary infection
  • recurrent vomiting, diarrhoea or dehydration
132
Q

What is the acronym of what extra to ask about in a paeds hx?

if as patient is presenting with failure to thrive, what physical exam should you perform and what else should you do as an adjunct to this?

what first line blood test would you do for FTT?

A

BINDS

  • birth hx
  • immunisations
  • nutrition (incl bladder + bowel)
  • development
  • social (smoking status of parents, who at home etc)

perform a FULL BODY examination (ie abdo, chest, skin for rashes etc)

plot an individualised growth chart (based on parental height)

blood count (and maybe ferritin) to rule out iron deficiency anaemia

133
Q

What potential underlying cause of failure to thrive might each of these exam findings suggest:

  • poor parent-child interaction 1
  • mental status change 2
  • pale 1
  • dysmorphic changes 1
  • hair colour / texture change 1
  • wasting 2
  • rash, skin changes, bruising 2
  • heart murmur 1
  • respiratory compromise 1
  • hepatomegaly 3
  • peripheral oedema 2
A

poor parent-child interaction
- depression / social stress

mental status change

  • cerebral palsy
  • poor social bonding

pale
- iron deficiency anaemia

dysmorphic changes
- genetic abnormality / undiagnosed syndrome

hair colour / texture change
- zinc deficiency

wasting

  • cerebral palsy
  • cancer

rash, skin changes, bruising

  • cow’s milk allergy
  • abuse

heart murmur
- anatomical cardiac defect

respiratory compromise
- cystic fibrosis

hepatomegaly

  • infection
  • chronic illness
  • malnutrition

peripheral oedema

  • renal disease
  • liver disease
134
Q

CERBRAL PALSY

  • definition (incl age cut off)
  • three different stages when damage is done? which is most common? examples of each?
  • what proportion have an identifiable cause?
A

Non-progressive brain lesion that manifests as motor or postural abnormalities

  • Can occur at any point between conception and 3 years of age
  • Injury after 3 years = acquired brain injury

ANTENATAL (80%):

  • cerebral malformation
  • congenital infection (TORCH)
  • IUGR

INTRAPARTUM (10%):
- birth asphyxia/trauma

POSTNATAL (10%):

  • intraventricular haemorrhage
  • hypoglycaemia
  • meningitis
  • head-trauma

ONLY 1/3 HAVE AN IDENTIFIABLE CAUSE!

SOOOOO IMPORTANT TO ASK ABOUT BIRTH AND ANTENATAL HX

135
Q

Antepartum infections which are teratogenic? acronym? 5

A

TORCH

T - Toxoplasmosis

O - Other:

  • syphilis
  • VZV
  • parovirus B19

R - Rubella

C - Cytomegalovirus

H - HSV

136
Q

CEREBRAL PALSY:

  • definition?
  • signs in a developmental assessment? 3
  • other possible signs? 6
A

non-progressive brain injury

DEVELOPMENTAL

  • delayed motor milestones
  • early hand preference (should be ambidextrous till 18 months)
  • visual and hearing impairment

OTHER SIGNS

  • poor feeding (oromotor incoordination, slow feeding, gagging + vomiting)
  • spasticity (abnormal tone and posturing, hypotonia)
  • abnormal gait, once walking achieved (toe walking)
  • primitive reflexes may persist
  • fits as a neonate
  • poor growth
137
Q

CEREBRAL PALSY:

  • associated non-motor problems? 4
  • what other general medical conditions are they more at risk of? 4
A
  • learning difficulties (60%)
  • epilepsy (30%)
  • squints (30%)
  • hearing impairment (20%)

nb 1/3 of kids with cerebral palsy will have normal intelligence (although maybe more than this - assume that no problem)

AT RISK OF:

  • recurrent resp infection
  • GORD (may be concerns about swallowing)
  • constipation
  • UTI

(also at risk of FTT as use a lot of energy)

138
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF CEREBRAL PALSY:

  • By the site it affects? 3
  • by the type of motor disorder? 4
A

BY THE SITE IT AFFECTS:

SPASTIC DIPLEGIA:

  • Bilateral spasticity
  • toe walking
  • upper motor neuron signs
  • ‘SCISSORING’ gait

SPASTIC HEMIPLEGIA:

  • one side of the body – upper limb is usually more affected than lower limb
  • Hand dominance before 1 year of age
  • ‘CIRCUMDUCTION’ gait

SPASTIC QUADRAPLEGIA:
- all four limbs

BY THE TYPE OF MOTOR DISORDER

SPASTIC CEREBRAL PALSY (70%):

  • Velocity dependent increased muscle tone and weakness in parts of the body affected – due to a lack of cortical inhibition of the spinal reflex arcs
  • Spastic hemiparesis commonly associated with epilepsy

DYSKINETIC (DYSTONIC) CEREBRAL PALSY:
- Involuntary and uncontrollable muscle tone fluctuations, sometimes involving whole body

DYSKINETIC (CHOREOATHETOID) CEREBRAL PALSY:

  • Small, rapid and irregularly repetitive unwanted movements
  • Random and jerky or long slow writhing movements

ATAXIC CEREBRAL PALSY:

  • Impairment of cerebellum
  • often genetic and is rare.

NB DON’T BOTHER LEARNING THE DETAILS - JUST BE AWARE THAT THERE ARE DIFFERENT TYPES!

139
Q

CEREBRAL PALSY:

  • bloods?
  • imaging?
  • other investigations? 4
  • what is severity based on?
A
  • U+E
  • LFT
  • TFT
  • MRI brain
  • hearing tests
  • vision tests
  • EEG
  • karyotyping

Severity based on Gross Motor Function Classification System (I is least severe, V most severe) - look up pictures

140
Q

MANAGEMENT OF CEREBRAL PALSY:

  • medication to help with spasticity? 1
  • which professionals should you consider referral to? 5
A

baclofen (can also use benzos, botox, and orthopods may help)

  • occupational therapy
  • physiotherapy
  • SALT
  • opthalmology (strabismus + other problems)
  • orthopoaedic surgeons (hip dislocation, scoliosis)
141
Q

FEBRILE CONVULSIONS:

  • typical age affected?
  • % of children will have at least one?
  • what increases risk of getting one?
  • common causative infections? 3
A

6 months to 6 years

3% of kids will have at least 1

strong FHx
- ask if parents had febrile seizures when young

  • URTI
  • ottitis media
  • UTI
142
Q

FEBRILE CONVULSIONS:

  • What do you always need to exclude in the acute setting (ie main DDx)?
  • what increases your suspicion of this DDx? 7
A

need to exclude meningitis!!

Increased likelihood of meningitis if:

  • triggered by low-grade fever
  • prolonged hx (>24hrs)
  • young (< 1 year)
  • abx from GP
  • focal
  • prolonged recovery (> 30 mins)
  • no obvious source of infection
143
Q

What are the three features that differentiate between a ‘typical’ and ‘atypical’ febrile seizure?

A

TYPICAL

  • generalised tonic clonic
  • less than 15 mins (norm 3-4 mins)
  • only one per febrile illness
  • should be complete recovery within an hour

ATYPICAL

  • focal seizure
  • over 15 mins (incl status)
  • more than one seizure within 24hrs (or within the same febrile illness)
144
Q

Management of febrile seizure:

  • approach?
  • medication for symptomatic relief? 1
  • what to always find before can discharge?
  • investigations to consider? 5
  • what investigation to do if atypical? 1
  • who should always talk to after first seizure?
A

A-E approach

  • always check the child actually has a fever, if they don’t then it is NOT a febrile convulsion
  • nb treat with benzos if still fitting after 5 mins
  • antipyretics if child irritable (won’t reduce chance of fit though)

NEED TO FIND SOURCE OF INFECTION:

  • ENT exam
  • urine dip
  • CXR
  • bloods
  • capillary glucose

nb if it is a suspected bacterial cause then treat with abx as appropriate

if atypical, do LP (must exclude meningitis)

  • also do if can’t find source of infection!
  • tend to do if under 9months as well

COUNSEL PARENTS!! (see other flashcard for exactly what to counsel parents on)

145
Q

Counselling parents after 1st febrile seizure:

  • chance of recurrence?
  • what increases chance of recurrence? 5
  • how to manage if it happens again? 4
  • what three factors increase chance of epilepsy?
A

chance of recurrence = 1/3rd

increased chance of recurrence is:

  • age < 18 months
  • FHx febrile seizures
  • lower temp triggering seizure
  • shorter duration of fever before fit
  • low social class

IF HAPPENS AGAIN:

  • put in recovery position
  • start timer, call 999 if > 5 mins
  • DON’T put finger (or anything else) in mouth while fitting
  • make sure to find source of infection, good idea to go into walk in /GP afterwards to check okay

INCREASED RISK OF EPILEPSY:

  • atypical febrile seizures
  • abnormal neurology / developmental delay prior to event
  • FHx of epilepsy in 1st degree relative

if 0 risk factors, just population risk of epilepsy, if 3 then 50% risk

DON’T BE SCARED ABOUT SAYING EPILEPSY
- that’s what parents will be thinking anyway!!

146
Q

What can febrile convulsions sometimes be mistaken for?

what are the differences? 3

A

can be mistaken for rigors

RIGORS

  • uncontrolled shivering (as opposed to rhythmic tonic clonic)
  • get peripheral cyanosis
  • not usually sleepy afterwards (no post ictal phase)

nb Febrile convulsions more commonly associeted with viral infections, whereas rigors more likely to be viral or bacterial

147
Q

At what age should you be able to smile?

A

6-8wks

148
Q

at what age do infants tend to sit by?

A

6 months

149
Q

what is a common cause of developmental delay when there is no obvious underlying pathology?

A

neglect or lack of stimulation

150
Q

If a child is slow developing speech, what should you always check? 2

A
  • check their hearing!!
  • check how many languages are spoken at home (if 2+ may be slow to begin with but then become fluent in both)

also be aware that neglect can lead to slow language

also check eyesight if any problem with motor skills

151
Q

What are the four domains of development?

A
  • gross motor
  • fine motor and sight
  • speech and hearing
  • social interaction and play
152
Q

Neonatal reflexes? 5

A
  • moro / startle reflex (lying on back)
  • parachute reflex (lying on belly)
  • grasp reflex (grasp finger)
  • sucking reflex (suck on finger)
  • rooting reflex (tap cheek, they turn towards it)
153
Q

Gross motor general sequence of development:

  • birth? 1
  • 6-8 wks? 1
  • 3 months? 2
  • 4-5 months? 1
  • 6-9 months? 3
  • 10-12 months? 1
  • 13 months? 1
  • 15 months? 1
  • 18 months? 1
  • 2 years? 2
  • 3 years? 2
  • 4 years? 1
  • 5 years? 1
A

birth
- When held prone knees under abdomen

6-8 wks
- Briefly hold head up when held prone

3 months

  • HOLDS HEAD UP
  • loss of palmar grasp

4-5 months
- reaches out for toy

6-9 months

  • rolls front to back (6 months)
  • SITS without support
  • CRAWLS

10-12 months
- CRUISING on furniture

13 months
- walks

15 months
- WALKS ALONE

18 months
- walks well

2 years
- JUMPS with 2 feet together

3 years

  • up & down stairs in adult fashion
  • rides a tricycle

4 years
- stands on one leg for 4 secs

5 years
- skips

154
Q

Fine motor and sight: general sequence of development:

  • birth? 1
  • 6-8 wks? 1
  • 3 months? 3
  • 4-5 months? 1
  • 6-9 months? 1
  • 10-12 months? 1
  • 13 months? 2
  • 15 months? 1
  • 18 months? 1
  • 2 years? 2
  • 3 years? 3
  • 4 years? 2
  • 5 years? 2
A

birth
- startles to sudden noises

6-8 wks
- FIXES & FOLLOWS through 90 degrees

3 months

  • reaches with PALMAR GRASP
  • holds a rattle
  • fixes & follows through 180 degrees

4-5 months
- plays, hands together

6-9 months
transfers object hand to hand

10-12 months
- immature pincer

13 months

  • NEAT PINCER GRIP
  • casting (drops toys deliberately & watches them fall)

15 months
- to & fro scribble

18 months
- 2 block tower

2 years

  • towers 6-7 bricks
  • circular scribble

3 years

  • towers 9-10 bricks
  • copies circle
  • makes a train of bricks

4 years

  • copies a square and cross
  • 10 block tower

5 years

  • copies a triangle
  • draws a man with 3 parts
155
Q

speech and hearing development, general sequence of development:

  • birth? 1
  • 6-8 wks? 1
  • 3 months? 1
  • 4-5 months? 1
  • 6-9 months? 2
  • 10-12 months? 1
  • 13 months? 1
  • 18 months? 1
  • 2 years? 3
  • 3 years? 5
  • 4 years? 4
  • 5 years? 1
A

birth
- quiets to voice

6-8 wks
- vocalises

3 months
- turns to sound at ear level

4-5 months
- squeals

6-9 months

  • BABBLES
  • turns to voice

10-12 months
- double-syllable babble

13 months
- SINGLE WORDS

18 months
- points to one body part

2 years

  • 2 WORD SENTENCES
  • 50 words
  • points to 2 body parts

3 years

  • Name, age, sex on request
  • 1000 words
  • ‘What’s that?’
  • COUNTS TO 10
  • 5 body parts

4 years

  • Tells stories
  • Uses past tense
  • Understands adverbs
  • Counts 1-20

5 years
- knows colours, age, address

156
Q

Social development, general sequence of development:

  • 6-8 wks? 1
  • 3 months? 1
  • 4-5 months? 1
  • 6-9 months? 1
  • 10-12 months? 3
  • 13 months? 2
  • 15 months? 2
  • 18 months? 2
  • 2 years? 2
  • 3 years? 3
  • 4 years? 1
  • 5 years? 3
A

6-8 wks
- SOCIAL SMILE

3 months
- laughs

4-5 months
- excited by food

6-9 months
- STRANGER AWARENESS (around 9 mnths)

10-12 months

  • WAVES BYE
  • plays peek a boo
  • empties cupboard

13 months

  • UNDERSTANDS NO
  • gives up a toy

15 months

  • domestic mimicry
  • indicates wants

18 months

  • drinks from a cup
  • can ask for food & drink

2 years

  • feeds self with spoon
  • has difficulty sharing

3 years

  • MOSTLY DRY BY DAY
  • dresses self
  • understands turn taking

4 years
- parallel play with other children

5 years

  • Names a friend
  • Knows what to do if lost, cold, hungry.
  • Comforts in distress
157
Q

RED FLAGS FOR DEVELOPMENT:

  • not fixing and following by?
  • age of neonatal reflexes until?
  • no sitting without support by?
  • no babbling speech by?
  • hand preference before?
  • not walking by?
  • certain type of walking?
  • no understandable speech by?
A

REFER IF:

  • not fixing and following at 6 weeks
  • neonatal reflexes for longer than 6 months
  • no sitting without support by 12 months
  • no babbling speech by 12 months
  • hand preference before 18 weeks
  • not walking by 18 months
  • exclusively toe walking
  • no understandable speech by 2.5 years
158
Q

What is the definition of gross developmental delay?

A

delay in more than 2 of 4 of the domains of development

159
Q

What additional thing do you have to bear in mind when assessing development if a child is premature?

A

adjust for their gestational age (up until 2 years)

160
Q

What blood test should you do if you find a child to be autistic?

A

do a gene test on all kids with autism

161
Q

What is the blood test to do if you suspect muscular dystrophy?

A

creatinine kinase

162
Q

NOCTURNAL ENURESIS:

  • At what age should children be dry by day and night?
  • definition of enuresis?
  • difference between primary and secondary?
A

night and daytime continence = around 3 or 4 years

ENURESIS
= involuntary discharge of urine by day, night or both, in a child aged 5 years or older, in the absence of congenital or acquired defects of the nervous system or urinary tract

primary = never achieved continence

secondary = child has been continent for at least 6 months before

nb secondary is normally more concerning

163
Q

NOCTURNAL ENURESIS:

  • four causes which should be excluded in all children? 4
  • other causes which could be suspected if management doesn’t work or you suspect them? 2
A

TO EXCLUDE:

  • constipation
  • diabetes
  • UTI (if recent onset)
  • psychological distress

OTHER CAUSES:

  • renal tract abnormalities
  • sexual abuse
164
Q

What questions should you ask in a history for nocturnal enuresis:

  • HPC? 8
  • associated symptoms to ask about? 7
  • questions to ask about lifestyle? 5
A

OPERATES

  • onset? (ever been dry for 6 months?)
  • progression? (freq increasing)
  • exacerbating (stress?)
  • relieving (what have you tried? waking them up etc)
  • associated (see below)
  • timing
  • episodes symptom free
  • severity (IMPACT on life - distressing child and/or parent)

ASSOCIATED SYMPTOMS

  • dry by day? any leakage?
  • constipation?
  • pain on urination
  • polydipsia
  • do they know when they need to pee?
  • do they know when they’ve peed?
  • any problems with lower limb movement / power?

LIFESTYLE

  • what drinking? any caffeine?
  • how much?
  • when?
  • peeing throughout the day?
  • any recent changes? starting school? trauma at home etc?

ALSO ASK IF ANY FHx of bed wetting!

165
Q

First line investigations for nocturnal enuresis? 2

other investigations to consider? 2

A

FIRST LINE:

  • DM testing
  • urineanalysis

OTHER

  • GU tract abnormality screening
  • psychological screening
166
Q

NOCTURNAL ENURESIS:

  • at what age should you start interventions?
  • What other comorbid condition to treat, if present?
  • lifestyle advice? 5
  • 1st line? 1
  • 2nd line? 1
  • 3rd line options? 2
A

7 years

(hard for child to understand before then - though could start some of the behaviour stuff)

TREAT CONSTIPATION, if present

LIFESTYLE

  • increase fluid intake during the day (though not before bed)
  • avoid caffeine
  • encourage regular toilet breaks
  • encourage them to go to the toilet before bed
  • don’t punish them for wet night
  • get them to help you tidy up in the morning

(also stop using nappies and don’t lift a sleeping child to the toilet)

1st line - STAR CHARTS
- reward (non-food) for doing behaviours (ie drinking a lot, going to the toilet before bed etc)

2nd line - ENURESIS ALARM

  • alarm is triggered (auditory or vibrating) when fluid is detected
  • try for at least 4 weeks
  • more successful long-term than medications

3rd line - MEDICATIONS

  • 1st line is desmopression (take just before bed, only a temporary fix)
  • 2nd line is oxybutynin (reduces detrusor muscle instability in children with small bladder capacity + urgency)

alarm and medications only if over 7!

167
Q

UTIs

- possible symptoms in children < 2 years? 8

A
  • temp 38 and above
  • not feeding well / failure to thrive
  • vomiting
  • diarrhoea
  • irritable / lethargic
  • jaundice
  • strong smelling urine
  • haematuria

ie INCREDIBLY non-specific - so do a urine test in any sick child!

168
Q

possible symptoms of UTI in older children:

  • urinary? 4
  • other? 5
  • what other comorbid problem should you always ask about if someone presents with a UTI?
A
  • dysuria
  • haematuria
  • frequency
  • secondary enuresis
  • fever +/- rigor
  • lethargy
  • abdo / loin pain
  • vomiting
  • diarrhoea

still quite non-specific so still just do a dipstick on most unwell children

nb 1+ haematuria is normal, 3+ or more is worrying

ASK IF ANY CONSTIPATION!!

169
Q

examination of child for suspected UTI:

  • what obs are you most interested in? 3
  • which examination do you do?
  • other three things to examine for?
A
  • temp
  • BP (could be dt kidney abnormality)
  • HR

ABDO EXAM

  • tenderness
  • kidney masses
  • size of bladder (large in boys, suspect PUV)

examine for

1) spinal abnormalities (increased risk of UTI)
2) genetalia (any abnormalities?
3) any other sources of infection: throat, ear, chest, fontanelle, wounds

170
Q

Investigations for UTI:

  • first line for all?
  • what to send if that’s positive?
  • what other investigations to consider?
A

urine dipstick, if positive, send for culture

nb if only leucocytes are up (and not nitrites) then may or may not be a UTI, only treat if symptoms!

consider blood cultures if septic or, esp in younger children, do a full septic screen (inc LP) if not a clear source of infection

171
Q

What possible methods of urine collection in infants/young children? 4

A
  • clean catch (hold over a vomit bowel)
  • urine collection pads (which you then squeeze out - don’t just use sanitary towels, cotton wall)
  • also this not ideal!
  • bag
  • suprapubic aspiration
172
Q

What are the three indications for doing a urine sample on a child? (according to NICE)

A
  • any signs/symptoms of a UTI
  • unexplained fever of >38
  • with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell

so basically, vast majority of kids!

173
Q

Management of UTI in children:

  • if under 3 months?
  • upper UTI over 3 months?
  • lower UTI over 3 months?
  • what should always say when prescribing abx in osces?

(abx, route and duration)

A

under 3 months

  • IV cef-something
  • norma do an LP + full septic screen as well

Upper UTI (>3m)

  • IV / oral cef-something
  • 7-10 days

Lower UTI (>3m)

  • oral nitrofurantoin / trimethoprim
  • 3 days

I WILL CONSULT TRUST GUIDELINES!

if not improving within 48 hrs then do USS

174
Q

When is imaging needed for a UTI? (ie features of atypical UTI) 8
- what three imaging modalities can be done? what does each test for?

A
  • ANY child under 3 months
  • culture grows anything other than e coli
  • recurrent UTIs
  • if not improving after 48 hrs of abx
  • poor urine flow
  • abdominal or bladder mass
  • raised creatinine
  • seriously ill / septicaemia

USS (1st line)
- gross abnormality of kidneys or urinary tract

DMSA

  • isotope scan
  • morphology and function

MCUG (micturating cystourethrogram)

  • picks up reflux
  • is a dynamic scan with contrast
175
Q

What structural renal abnormalities can cause recurrent UTIs in children? 5
- What can you give these children?

A

RENAL ABNORMALITIES

  • neuropathic bladder (secondary to spinal probs)
  • vesicoureteric reflux
  • posterior urethral valves (only in boys - get an obstructive picture)
  • duplex kidneys
  • horseshoe kidneys

^can give these children prophylactic abx (should consider in any recurrent UTI in kids, even if can’t find cause)

176
Q

what other, more benign things (ie not kidney/urinary tract abnormalities), can increase likelihood of UTIs in children (and that parents should be counselled about following a UTI)? 6

A

OTHER CONTRIBUTING FACTORS:

  • obstruction from contipation
  • infrequent voiding
  • hurried micturation
  • not enough water intake
  • wiping back to front (in girls)
  • nappies changed too infrequently
177
Q

VESICO-URETERIC REFLUX:

  • what is it?
  • what scan used to diagnose? 1
  • what to monitor? 1
  • what complications? 2
  • management for all? 1
  • management if severe? 1
  • prognosis?
A

reflux of urine from bladder, up the ureters to the kidneys

MCUG to diagnose

monitor renal function with U+E (?any repeat scans?*)

  • recurrent UTIs
  • hydronephrosis -> scarring + CKD

all get prophylactic abx

surgical correction if severe (ie big impact on kidney function)

most resolve spontaneously by age 5
- but renal damage may already have occurred

178
Q

ATOPIC ECZEMA:

  • normal age of onset?
  • risk factors? 2
A

typically before 6 months
- nb clears in around 50% by 5 years and 75% by 10 years

  • PMHx allergies, allergic rhinits, asthma
  • FHx atopy or allergies

nb breastfeeding may reduce risk

179
Q

CLASSIC LOCATION OF ECZEMA LESIONS:

  • infants? 2
  • young children? 1
  • adolescents? 2
A

INFANTS

  • face
  • trunk

YOUNG CHILDREN
- extensor surfaces

ADOLESCENTS

  • flexor surfaces
  • skin creases of face + neck
180
Q

ECZEMA:

- what can trigger ‘flare ups’? 5

A
  • dry skin
  • sweating / heat
  • chemical irritants
  • allergies
  • emotional stress
181
Q

MANAGEMENT OF ECZEMA:

  • routine advice?
  • management of flare ups? 1
  • management if severe? 1
A
  • wash with emollients
  • use emollients (prescribe large quantities)
  • avoid triggers

FLARE UPS
- topical steroids

if using emollients and steroids: emollient should be applied first, wait 30 mins, then apply steroid

severe cases = ORAL CICLOSPORIN (a type of immunosuppressant DMARD)
- also potentially topical tacrolimus

182
Q

Under what age should you always admit a child with a limp?

A

ALWAYS ADMIT CHILD <3 YEARS WITH ACUTE ONSET LIMP

183
Q

SEPTIC ARTHRITIS:

  • what is it?
  • what % of cases present in first 2 years?
  • two mechanisms of cause?
  • most common causative organism?
  • organism to consider in adolescents?
  • which joints most commonly affected in children? 3
A

infectious arthritis of a synovial joint

50% of all cases present in first 2 years
- nb twice as common in males

mechanisms of spread

  • from osteomyelitis
  • from haematogenous spread

most common = staph aureaus

consider neisseria gonrrhoea in adolescents (ie ask sexual hx)

JOINTS

  • 75% lower limb
  • hip most common, then knee, then ankle

nb knee most common in adults

184
Q

SEPTIC ARTHRITIS:

  • what % of infants have a fever on presentation?
  • other signs / symptoms? 4
A

only 50% of infants will have a fever at presentation

  • FEVER
  • systemic signs of infection
  • hot, red, swollen joint
  • reduced range of movement
  • NON-WEIGHT BEARING

nb onset is acute

185
Q

DDx of septic arthritis:

  • most commonly confused? (two ways of differentiating)
  • specific to hip joint? 2
  • other DDx? 4
A

TRANSIENT SYNOVITIS

  • can present almost identically and is more common than septic arthritis, but, because septic is more dangerous, treat as septic arthritis until proven otherwise
  • if non-weight bearing and temp >38.5 then more likely to be septic arthritis
  • perthes disease
  • slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)
  • osteomyelitis
  • trauma
  • tumours
  • 1st presentation of juvenile idiopathic arthritis
186
Q

Investigations for septic arthritis:

  • most useful investigations? 1
  • bloods? 4
  • imaging? 1
  • imaging to consider to exclude osteomyelitis? 1
  • investigation to do if haemophilus influenza found? 1
A

JOINT ASPIRATION

  • send for microscopy and culture
  • do before start abx!!
  • blood cultures
  • FBC
  • ESR
  • CRP

x-ray joints

  • widened joint spaces can suggest effusion
  • later signs: subluxation / dislocation, space narrowing, erosive changes

MRI if diagnosis in doubt, to exclude osteomyelitis

if septic joint with haem influenzae, do LP
- as increased incidence of meningitis

187
Q

Management of septic arthritis:

  • antibiotics given? for how long?
  • other medication to give?
  • surgical option? 1
  • additional things to aid recovery? 2
  • chance of recurrence?
A

whatever the culture is sensitive to

  • normally fluclox (if staph aureus)
  • 6-12 weeks!!!!
  • give analgesia
  • low threshold for irrigation and debridement by surgeons

OTHER

  • splinting: improves pain, allow inflammation to settle
  • physio: to avoid joint stiffness

recurrence up to 10%

  • hip joint has worst prognosis
  • long term follow up needed
188
Q

DOWN’S SYNDROME:

  • what % picked up antenatally?
  • most common mechanism that causes the trisomy?
  • which chromosome is affected?
  • how diagnosis made at birth?
  • biggest risk factor?
A

55% picked up antenatally

most commonly: non-dysjunction of chromosome 21

nb can also have robertsonian translocation and mosaicism but these are rare

KARYOTYPE done at birth, if positive antenatal screening or dysmorphic features suggestive

biggest risk factor = increased maternal age

nb see obs/gyn flashcards for details of antenatal screening

189
Q

DOWN’S SYNDROME POSSIBLE FEATURES:

  • whole body? 2
  • head & face? 8 (ie dysmorphic features
  • limbs?
  • heart? (what % have?)
  • possible congenital abdominal defects? 3
  • what percentage also have congenital heart defects? what types are most common?

(nb med conditions they’re at increased risk of is on another flashcard)

A
  • hypotonia
  • short stature

HEAD + FACE

  • brachycephaly (flat head)
  • up-slanting palpebral fissures
  • epicanthal folds
  • brushfield spots (in iris)
  • short nose
  • small ears
  • stenotic ear canals
  • glossal protrusion

LIMBS

  • single palmar crease
  • sandal gap

CONGENITAL ABDOMINAL DEFECTS

  • pyloric stenosis
  • hirschprung’s
  • duodenal atresia
CONGENITAL HEART DEFECTS (40-50%)
most common:
- ASD/VSD (40%)
- patent ductus arteriosus (5%)
- tetrology of fallot (5%)
190
Q

DOWN’S SYNDROME:

  • what medical conditions are they at increased risk of? 9
  • what cancer are they at risk of? 1

nb dysmorphic features and congenital heart and GI probs are on another flashcard

A

MEDICAL CONDITIONS:

  • Learning difficulties
  • alzheimers (early onset around age 40)
  • repeated resp infections
  • hearing impairment
  • cataracts
  • acquired hypothyroidism
  • subfertility (males almost alway infertile, females subfertile)
  • atlantoaxial instability (can present w spinal cord compression)
  • DDH

higher risk of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

191
Q

Management of patient with down’s syndrome:

  • two important things to do post-natally?
  • what annual check up do they all need?
A
  • detailed cardiac assessment (main limiting factor of life expectancy
  • Hip USS (for DDH)

audiology 1-2 yearly

nb kids can go to mainstream or specialist schooling, depending on level of functioning

192
Q

Fancy name for ‘squint’?

what is a pseudo squint?
- what test is used to differentiate between squint and pseudosquint?

A

squint aka. Strabismus – misalignment of visual axis

Pseudosquint = prominent epicanthal folds – create illusion of squint

use corneal light reflex to test between the two

193
Q

Types of squint:

  • name if going inwards?
  • name is going outwards?
  • name if one going upwards?

which is most common type?

A

esotropia = inwards (aka convergent)
- most common

exotropia = outwards (aka divergent)

hypertropia = one going upwards

nb hypermetropia (long-sightedness) is different from hypertropia

194
Q

TYPES OF SQUINT:

  • two types of squint (incl mechanism)? which is more worrying?
  • causes of more sinister type? 2
  • causes of less sinister type? 3
  • two subtypes of less sinister type?
A
PARALYTIC SQUINT
- varies with gaze direction as is due to paralysis of motor nerves
- rare but could be sinister
= raised ICP
= space-occupying lesions

CONCOMITANT SQUINT
- due to imbalance in extra-ocular muscles
- common
- often corrected with glasses but may need surgery
= refractive error in one or both eyes
= cataracts
= retinal disease / retinoblastoma

CONCOMITANT TYPES:

  • manifest = obvious at all times
  • latent = found on investigation or when tired
195
Q

Examination for squint:

  • first thing to do?
  • things to rule out raised ICP? 2
  • test to rule out retinoblastoma / glaucoma? 1
  • tests to rule out damage to cranial nerves 3, 4 & 6 (ie paralytic squint)? 3
  • test to rule out damage to cranial nerve 2? 1
  • test to rule out pseudosquint? 1
  • final test? 1
A

GENERAL INSPECTION FIRST

RULE OUT RAISED ICP

  • palpate fontanelle (if under 1)
  • opthalmascope (if can’t visualise optic disc, refer to opthalmologist)

RULE OUT RETINOBLASTOMA / CATARACTS
- red reflex

RULE OUT PARALYTIC SQUINT

  • H test
  • accommodation (if old enough)
  • pupillary light relfex

RULE OUT DAMAGE TO OPTIC NERVE

  • snellen chart (use pictures for young kids - do both eyes and make sure not cheating)
  • or do some other form of visual acuity test

RULE OUT PSEUDO SQUINT
- corneal light reflex (get them to stare into distance and shine light on eye and see if reflection on same place in pupil on both eyes)

FINAL TEST
- cover test (ask the child to focus on a object, cover one eye, observe movement of uncovered eye, cover other eye and repeat test)

196
Q

SQUINT

  • at what age to refer? (if no red flags)
  • potential complications is not managed? 2
  • management options? 3

nb this is all if no red flags of raised ICP / space occupying lesions / retinoblastoma / cataracts etc

A

refer to opthalmology if still present at 3 months

untreated squint can lead to amblyopia (aka lazy eye) and cortical blindness

  • glasses (if refractive error)
  • patches (over good eye)
  • surgery to correct rectus muscle misalignment
197
Q

CRYING BABY:

  • common, benign causes? 6
  • red flag associated symptoms of crying which should make you suspect an underlying cause? 7
A

COMMON

  • hunger
  • tired
  • wind
  • colic
  • reflux
  • teething

RED FLAGS

  • inconsolable for >2hours (though if this only red flag then likely colic)
  • temperature (over 38 under 3 months, less strict if older)
  • won’t eat / drink
  • bile-stained or projectile vomit
  • not weeing
  • not pooing (or blood in stools)
  • bulging fontanelle
198
Q

TEMPER TANTRUMS:

  • what age range most common?
  • how to advise parents manage?
A

18 months - 3 years

  • avoid known precipitants
  • divert by distraction
  • teach control by staying calm

work with parents to not give into child’s demands!

199
Q

Management of sleeping problems? 2

A
  • routine

- sleeping in own bed

200
Q

SOURCES OF EMOTIONAL AND BEHAVIOURAL PROBLEMS:

  • child factors? 4
  • family factors? 7
  • child-family relationship? 3
  • wider circle? 3
A

CHILD FACTORS

  • temperament
  • illness
  • developmental (incl ASD etc)
  • disability

FAMILY FACTORS

  • unrealistic expectations
  • social isolation
  • drug & alcohol misuse
  • domestic violence
  • parental ill health
  • poverty
  • parental unemployment

CHILD-FAMILY RELATIONSHIP

  • relationship (incl new or disabled siblings)
  • attachment
  • neglect

WIDER CIRCLE

  • extended family
  • friends
  • nursery / school (bullying etc)