Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

What is croup?

A

common viral upper airway infection
affects children 6months - 3yrs
larynx inflammation causes barking cough, stridor and may have low fever

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2
Q

Causes of croup

A

parainfluenza virus is most common cause
other viral causes = influenza A and B, measles, adenovirus, resp synctial virus
bacterial causes = staphylococcus aureus, streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilius influenzae and moraxella catarrhalis

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3
Q

How does croup spread?

A

droplet spread
outbreaks can occur in childcare settings eg school
most common in autumn
more common in males

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4
Q

Croup pathophysiology

A

following coryzal prodrome, WBCs infiltrate larynx, trachea and large bronchi, causing inflammation
- this causes oedema, results in partial airway obstruction
- when significant, airway obstruction increases work of breathing and causes stridor

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5
Q

Mild croup

A
  • occasional barking cough
  • no audible stridor at rest
  • no or mild suprasternal and/or intercostal recession
  • child happy and prepared to eat, drink and play
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6
Q

Moderate croup

A

-frequent barking cough
- easily audible stridor at rest
- suprasternal and sternal wall retraction at rest
- no or little distress or agitation
- child can be placated and is interested in its surroundings

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7
Q

Severe croup

A
  • frequent barking cough
  • prominent inspiratory (and occasionally expiratory) stridor at rest
  • marked sternal wall retractions
  • significant distress and agitation, or lethargy and restlessness
  • tachycardia occurs w/ more severe obstructive symptoms and hypoxaemia
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8
Q

When should a child be admitted for croup?

A
  • moderate or severe croup
  • <3months of age
  • known upper airway abnormalities
  • uncertainty about diagnosis
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9
Q

Croup clinical features

A

coryzal prodrome which progresses over 12-48hrs to include:
- low fever <38ºC)
- hoarseness
- barking cough (worse at night)
- stridor - insidious and progressive

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10
Q

Features of respiratory distress

A

tachypnoea
cyanosis
head bobbing
nasal flaring
subcostal and intercostal recession
suprasternal and sternal recession
diaphragmatic breathing
use of accessory muscles

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11
Q

Croup investigations

A

clinical - barking cough and stridor

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12
Q

Croup differentials

A
  • viral upper resp tract infection - seal like barking cough less common
  • bronchiolitis - causes wheeze
  • epiglottitis - absence of barking cough, muffled hot potato voice
  • foreign body aspiration - history, abrupt onset during daytime
  • bacterial tracheitis - school-age, reluctant to cough due to pain
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13
Q

Croup management

A

Supportive
Oral dexamethasone
Parents advised that symptoms usually resolves w/in 48hrs, and to escalate if stridor is hear or symptoms worsen
Arrange follow up

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14
Q

Moderate - severe croup management

A

supportive
oral dexamethasone
nebulised epinephrine
supplemental oxygen
advise parents
children can be discharged home after 2-4hrs of obs following epinephrine, given no stridor at rest

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15
Q

Croup complications

A

resp distress
pneumonia
pulmonary oedema
epiglottitis
bacterial tracheitis

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16
Q

What is bronchiolitis?

A

acute bronchiolar inflammation seen in infants and young children

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17
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?

A

respiratory synctial virus (RSV) in 75-80% of cases

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18
Q

Bronchiolitis clinical features

A

coryzal symptoms (including mild fever) precede:
- dry cough
- increasing breathlessness
- wheezing, fine inspiratory crackles (not always present)
- feeding difficulties associated w/ increasing dyspnoea

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19
Q

Bronchiolitis investigations

A

immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV

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20
Q

Bronchiolitis management

A

supportive
nasal suction
oxygen
hydration

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21
Q

Causes of asthma

A
  • genetic: FH, predisposition
  • environmental: allergens, air pollution, tobacco smoke
  • infections: viral, bacterial
  • sensitisation and atopy: eczema, food allergies
  • sociodemographic: socioeconomic, urban v rural living
  • lifestyle: dietary, physical activity
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22
Q

Asthma definition

A

condition characterised by variable airflow limitation and airway hyper-responsiveness in response to number of stimuli
can eventually result in permanent airway remodelling and therefore limitations in reversibility of airflow limitation

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23
Q

What is a HEADS assessment?

A

Home
Education
Activities
Drugs and alcohol
Suicidality / sex

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24
Q

BINDS

A

Birth / perinatal
Immunisation
Nutrition / feeding
Developmental
Social

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25
Q

Normal development gross motor milestones

A

Newborn = flexed arms and legs, equal movements
3 months = lifts head on tummy
6 months = chest up w/ arm support, rolls
9 months = pulls to stand
1 yr = walking
2 yrs = walks up steps
3 yrs = jumps
4 yrs = hops
5 yrs = rides bike

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26
Q

Normal devlopment fine motor and vision milestones

A

4 months = grasp an object, uses both hands
8 months = takes cube in each hand
12 months = scribbles w/ crayon
18 months = builds tower of 2 cubes
3 yrs = tower of 8 cubes

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27
Q

Normal development speech, language and hearing milestones

A

3 months = laughs and squeals
9 months = ‘dada’ ‘mama’
12 months = 1 word
2 yrs = 2 words sentences, names body parts
3 yrs = speech mainly understandable
4 yrs = knows colours, can count 5 objects
5 yrs = knows meaning of words

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28
Q

If they aren’t walking by … it is considered a red flag

A

18 months

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29
Q

Normal development social / self care milestones

A

6 weeks = smiles spontaneously
6 months = finger feeds
9 months = waves bye
12 months = uses spoon / fork

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30
Q

Cranial nerve exam in infants

A

Observe movements, scars, head shape, VP shunts etc
II = blink response to bright light, red reflex, visual fields via distraction
III,IV,VI = inspect for eye aligned in conjugate gaze, fix/follow and doll’s eye manoeuvre, pupillary response
V = suck
VII = observe face
VIII = observe behavioural response to loud noise
IX, X = assess suck and swallow w/ feeding
XI = symmetry of neck movements, head control
XII = tongue movements during feeding / sucking

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31
Q

Child development red flags

A

Gross motor - not sitting by 1yr, walk by 18m
Fine motor - hand preference before 18m
SLT - not smiling by 3m, no clear words before 18m
Social - no response to carers interaction by 8wks, not interested in playing w/ peers by 3yrs
Regression

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32
Q

What is a macular rash?

A

non-palpable rash w/ colour changes in limited areas
eg measles, rubella

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33
Q

What is a papular rash?

A

palpable rash w/ raised, solid lesions and colour changes in limited areas up to 0.5cm
eg Gianotti-Crosti, pityriasis rosea

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34
Q

What is a vesicular rash?

A

elevate lesions that are filled w/ clear fluid <0.5cm
eg chicken pox, herpes simplex, herpes zoster

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35
Q

What is acute epiglottitis?

A

inflammation of epiglottis and surrounding supraglottic structures
can lead to airway obstruction, makes management critical

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36
Q

Acute epiglottitis causes

A
  • most commonly bacterial infection, haemophilus influenzae type B
  • Also streptococcus pneumoniae, grp A streptococci and staphylococcus aureus
  • Viral and fungal infections, and non-infectious causes (eg thermal injury) also contribute
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37
Q

Acute epiglottitis clinical features

A
  • rapid onset of severe sore throat and odynophagia
  • muffled voice or ‘hot potato’ voice
  • stridor
  • resp distress
    fever
    tripod or sniffing position
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38
Q

Acute epiglottitis investigations

A

clinical
can use lateral neck radiographs, blood cultures and swabs, and flexible fiberoptic laryngoscopy

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39
Q

Acute epiglottitis management

A
  • airway management
  • antibiotics eg third-gen cephalosporins
  • supportive care - IV fluids, analgesics, antipyretics
  • monitoring and follow-up
  • vaccinations
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40
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

life-limiting autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene, leads to production of thick, sticky mucus that obstructs organs, primarily affecting resp and GI systems

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41
Q

Where is there mutation in cystic fibrosis?

A

CFTR gene on chromosome 7
(F508del mutation most common)

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42
Q

Cystic fibrosis pathophysiology

A

CFTR protein regulates transport of chloride ions and bicarbonate across epithelial cell membranes
Malfunctioning results in chloride and water retention in cells
imbalance establishes sodium-rich environment outside cell, prompting sodium and water reabsorption
consequently, mucus becomes dehydrated and thickened

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43
Q

Cystic fibrosis resp system implications

A
  • mucus accumulation in bronchi and bronchioles
  • chronic infections
  • progressive lung damage
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44
Q

Cystic fibrosis GI system implications

A
  • pancreatic blockage, hindering release of digestive enzymes
  • intestinal obstruction
  • liver involvement / biliary duct obstruction
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45
Q

Cystic fibrosis reproductive system implications

A

Males = congenital bilateral absence of vas deferens - renders infertile
Females = thickened cervical mucus can lead to reduced fertility. Irregular menstrual cycles

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46
Q

Salt imbalance in cystic fibrosis

A

malfunctioning CFTR in sweat ducts results in diminished reabsorption of chloride, and sodium
imbalance leads to salty sweat, posing risks of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, particularly during increased sweating

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47
Q

What are the 3 common causes of bronchiolitis?

A

RSV
rhinovirus
adenovirus

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48
Q

Common organisms causing respiratory infection

A

strep pneumoniae
haemophilus influenzae
pertussis
mycoplasma
influenza viruses

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49
Q

Breathlessness differentials in children

A

asthma
bronchiolitis
pneumonia
croup
foreign object
whooping cough

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50
Q

Causes of green vomit in neonates

A

malrotation / volvulus
duodenal atresia (double bubble)

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51
Q

What can cause projectile vomiting in children?

A

pyloric stenosis

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52
Q

Approach to radiology

A
  • What is the clinical context - who/what/wh
  • technically adequate?
  • medical devices?
  • Airway, air trapping?
  • Breathing spaces - too black, too white?
  • Cardiac / mediastinum
  • Diaphragm / pleura
  • Everything else - apices, bones, cardiac, diaphragm, edges
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53
Q

What do red current jelly stools usually mean?

A

intussusception - donut shape on scan

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54
Q

Causes of wheeze

A

asthma
bronchiolitis
viral induced wheeze

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55
Q

Causes of stridor

A

croup
foreign body aspiration
anaphylaxis
bacterial tracheitis
epiglottitis

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56
Q

What are the types of recession in breathing?

A

tracheal tug
supraclavicular
sternal
intercostal
subcostal

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57
Q

What is tested for on the newborn blood spot screening programme

A

cystic fibrosis
sickle cell
congenital hypothyroidism
phenylketonuria
MCADD (medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency)
maple syrup urine disease
isovaleric acidaemia
glutaric aciduria type 1
homocystinuria

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58
Q

Primary sign of CFTR dysfunction

A

GI tract w/ symptomatic meconium ileus, seen prior to newborn screening test

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59
Q

What is meconium ileus?

A

intestinal obstruction caused by abnormally thick and impacted first stool, causes abdominal distension, bilious green vomiting and failure to pass meconium in first few days of life

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60
Q

Clinical features of cystic fibrosis

A

chronic cough
recurrent wheeze
chronic resp infections
malabsorption in GI tract
failure to thrive

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61
Q

Resp manifestations of cystic fibrosis

A

persistent cough
wheezing and dyspnea
recurrent resp infections
nasal polyps and chronic sinusitis

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62
Q

GI manifestations of cystic fibrosis

A

meconium ileus
pancreatic insufficiency
distal intestinal obstruction syndrome
biliary cirrhosis
GORD

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63
Q

Endocrine manifestations of cystic fibrosis

A

cystic fibrosis related diabetes
growth failure

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64
Q

Reproductive manifestations of cystic fibrosis

A

male infertility
female fertility issues

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65
Q

Cystic fibrosis screening and diagnostic tests

A

newborn screening - blood spot test, measure elevated IRT lvls
sweat chloride test (>60 mmol/L)
genetic testing

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66
Q

Monitoring tests of cystic fibrosis

A

sputum culture
pulmonary function tests
chest radiography / CTs
blood tests
bone density assessments

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67
Q

Cystic fibrosis diagnosis

A
  • child w/ no symptoms but a +ve screening test
  • child w/ clinical features of CF, confirmed by sweat chloride or gene test results
  • child w/ solely clinical features of CF, but sweat chloride or gene test normal
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68
Q

Cystic fibrosis management

A
  • Airway clearance: chest physio, high-frequency chest wall oscillation, exercise
  • Pharmacological: mucolytics, bronchodilators, anti-inflammatories, antibiotics, CFTR modulators
  • Nutritional: pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy, fat-soluble vitamin supplementation, high energy diet
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69
Q

Management of cystic fibrosis complications

A
  • Diabetes: regular screening and early intervention w/ insulin therapy and diet modification
  • Liver disease: monitoring, early intervention w/ urseodeoxycholic acid
  • Bone health: VitD and calcium supplementation, exercise, bisphosphonate therapy
    Fertility: assisted reproductive tech
    Lung transplantation
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70
Q

What causes the airflow obstruction of asthma?

A
  • smooth muscle constriction: due to direct effects of contractile agonists released from inflammatory cells, accounts for rapid changes in airflow limitation
  • mucous production: mucous hypersecretion and plugs
  • bronchial inflammation: IgE-dependent release of mediators from mast cells, cause stimulation and contraction of smooth muscle. Results in further oedema and worsened airflow limitations
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71
Q

Mast cell mediators

A

histamine
tryptase
leukotrienes
prostaglandins

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72
Q

Asthma symptoms

A

episodes of wheezing, coughing and shortness of breath

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73
Q
A
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74
Q

Severe asthma exacerbation symptoms

A

altered mental state
maximal work of breathing accessory muscle use/recession
exhaustion
significant tachycardia
unable to talk
silent chest

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75
Q

Investigating suspected asthma aged 5 - 16

A

fractional nitric oxide
FeNO ≥ 35 ppb

If not available, measure bronchodilator reversibility w/ spirometry. Diagnose if
FEV1 increase ≥ 12% from pre-bronchodilator measurement, or
FEV1 increase ≥ 10% of predicted normal FEV

If not confirmed by these but still suspected, perform skin prick testing to house dust mite, or measure total IgE lvl and blood eosinophil count

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76
Q

Investigating suspected asthma in children under 5

A

treat w/ inhaled corticosteroids w/ regular review
attempt objective tests if still have symptoms at 5
refer to specialist resp paediatrician

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77
Q

What are eosinophils?

A

specifically involved in type 2 inflammation (key pathway in asthma), making them a targeted marker for disease activity
Release cytotoxic proteins like eosinophil peroxidase and major basic protein, which damage epithelial cells and perpetuate inflammation
Eosinophils are activated by IL-5 and other cytokines in T2 pathway, distinguishing them from neutrophils or lymphocytes

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78
Q

What is fractional exhaled nitric oxide?

A

lvl of nitric oxide produced by airway epithelial cells in response to eosinohpilic inflammation (hallmark of asthma)
pt exhales steadily into device, measured conc in parts per billion

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79
Q

What is IgE?

A

plays central role in allergic asthma by mediating hypersensitivity reactions through binding to high-affinity IgE receptors on mast cells and basophils
Upon allergen exposure, cross-linking of bound IgE triggers release of inflammatory mediators (histamine, leukotrines), leading to airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction and asthma symptoms

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80
Q

Give an example of anti-IgE therapy

A

omalizumab

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81
Q

Asthma differentials

A

Viral induced wheeze (<3)
bronchiolitis
protracted bacterial bronchitis
inhaled foreign body
cystic fibrosis
structural airway abnormality

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82
Q

Asthma management aged 5-16 (check if this has changed)

A
  1. Short-acting beta agonist
  2. SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid
  3. SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
  4. SABA + ICS + LABA
  5. SABA + switch ICS/LABA for maintenance and reliever therapy (MART)
  6. SABA + paeds moderate-dose ICS MART
  7. SABA + either: increasse ICS, trial of additional drug, or seek advice
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83
Q

Asthma management <5yrs

A
  1. Short-acting beta agonist
  2. SABA + 8wk trial of paed moderate dose ICS (start on low-dose and work up if symptoms resolved)
  3. SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
  4. stop LTRA and refer to specialist
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84
Q

What is maintenance and reliever therapy (MART)?

A

form of combined ICS and LABA treatment in a single inhaler, used for both daily maintenance therapy and relief of symptoms as required

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85
Q

What are the features of poorly controlled asthma?

A

3+ days per wk w/ symptoms or 3+ days per week requiring use of bronchodilator for symptomatic relief or 1+ night per wk awakening due to asthma symptoms

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86
Q

What is otitis media?

A

common infection of middle ear , may be bacterial or viral in nature
found mainly in <4s
often self resolve and no lasting effects

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87
Q

Microbial pathogens that cause otitis media

A

Bacterial:
streptococcus pneumoniae
haemophilus influenzae
moraxella catarrhalis

Viral:
respiratory syncytial virsu
influenza virus
rhinoviruses

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88
Q

Risk factors of otitis media

A

eustachian tube dysfunction
age - children more at risk
immunodeficiency
allergies
tobacco smoke exposure
bottle feeding
daycare attendance

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89
Q

What are the eustachian tubes?

A

allow ventilation and drainage of middle ear
any dysfunction can lead to -ve middle ear pressure, fluid accumulation and subsequent infection

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90
Q

Conditions affecting ciliary motility

A

cystic fibrosis
primary ciliary dsykinesia
Kartagener’s syndrome

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91
Q

Otitis media pathophysiology

A

occurs 2ndary to oedema and narrowing of eustachian tube
Oedematous eustachian tube prevents middle ear from draining, predisposing it to bacteria colonisation
low pressure in middle ear can cause earache
rupture of TM will resolve pressure differential and relieve pain

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92
Q

Why are children predisposed to otitis media?

A

eustachian tubes are narrower and more prone to blockage
tubes are more horizontal, inhibiting drainage (this is why pinna is pulled down for paed exam)
children have less developed immune systems, more prone to upper resp tract infections, common cause of tube oedema

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93
Q

Acute v chronic otitis media

A

Can be w/ effusion
Chronic has a build up of fluid behind an intact TM, must be present for >3 months
Chronic suppurative = discharge present >2wks, persistent ear discharge through perforated tympanic membrane

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94
Q

Symptoms of otitis media

A

Otalgia (ear ache)
fever (around 50%)
hearing loss
recent viral URTI symptoms
ear discharge

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95
Q

Possible otoscopy findings in otitis media

A

bulging tympanic membrane - loss of light reflex
opacification or erythema of TM
perforation w/ purulent otorrhoea
decreased mobility if using pneumatic otoscope

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96
Q

Otitis media investigations

A

clinical examination
tympanometry - change outer ear pressure, play sound and analyse reflected sound waves degree of reflection

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97
Q

Otitis media diagnosis

A
  • acute onset of symptoms: otalgia or ear tugging
  • presence of middle ear effusion: bulging or TM, otorrhoea or decreased mobility of pneumatic otoscopy
  • inflammation of TM
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98
Q

Otitis media differentials

A

impacted cerumen
otitis externa
foreign body
cholesteatoma
bullous myringitis
mastoiditis
labyrinthitis
conditions causing referred pain

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99
Q

Otitis media v otitis externa

A

otitis externa has erythematous ear canal +/- exudate
ensure visualisation of TM to exclude perforated OM or other signs of concurrent OM

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100
Q

Otitis media management

A

most cases resolve w/out antibiotics, manage pain w/ analgesia
Abx = amoxicillin, erythromycin or clarithromycin
if abx don’t resolve, consider alternative diagnosis, referral
management to prevent recurrence = avoid passive smoking, avoid flat or supine feeding

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101
Q

What grps should be given abx for otitis media?

A

children <2 w/ bilateral OM
children <3 months w/ temp over 38
Om w/ ear discharge
those systemically unwell
those at high risk of complication

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102
Q

Otitis media complications

A

chronic OM
tympanic membrane perforation
hearing loss
mastoiditis
bacterial meningitis
extradural or subdural abscess
labrinthitis
facial paralysis

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103
Q

What is otitis externa?

A

Swimmer’s ear
inflammatory condition affecting exernal auditory canal and pinna
acute <6wks or chronic

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104
Q

Otitis externa risk factors

A

water exposure
high humidity
trauma to auditory canal
narrow ear canals
immunosuppression

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105
Q

Causes of otitis externa

A
  • Infection: Bacterial = staph aureus, pseudomonas aeruginosa
    Fungal = aspergillus species and candida albicans
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Contact dermatitis
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106
Q

Symptoms of otitis externa

A

ear pain
ear itch
ear discharge

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107
Q

Otitis externa otoscopy findings

A

view may be limited secondary to discharge, debris or swelling
red, swollen or eczematous canal

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108
Q

Otitis externa management

A

topical abx or combined topical abx w/ steroid
if tympanic membrane is perforated = aminoglycosides not used
debris = remove
if canal is extensively swollen then ear wick sometimes used

2nd line: consider contact dermatitis 2nd to neomycin
oral abx if infection spreads
taking swab inside canal
empirical use of antifungal agent

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109
Q

Otitis externa complications

A

malignant otitis externa more common in elderly diabetics - extension of infection into bony ear canal and soft tissues deep to bony canal
IV abx may be required

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110
Q

What is glue ear?

A

otitis media w/ effusion
fluid accumulation in middle ear
usually self-limiting and resolves w/in few months

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111
Q

Glue ear risk factors

A

age
seasonality (winter and early spring)
atopy (asthma, eczema, allergic rhinitis)
craniofacial abnormalities (cleft palate, Down syndrome)

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112
Q

Underlying causes of glue ear

A

Eustachian tube dysfunction leading to -ve pressure in middle ear, promoting transudation of fluid from surrounding tissues. Contributing factors =
infections
passive smoking
bottle feeding

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113
Q

Glue ear pathophysiology

A
  1. Eustachian tube dysfunction causes retraction of tympanic membrane and pooling of secretions in middle ear
  2. Inflammatory processes - increased mucus production by goblet cells and hypertrophy of mucosal glands in middle ear. Overproduction outpaces drainage capacity, leading to accumulation
  3. Osmotic gradient - fluid contains high concs of glycoproteins and ions, draws water into middle ear from surrounding tissues
  4. Biofilm formation by bacteria on mucosal surface in chronic cases, can resist abx treatment and host immune responses, contributing to persistence or reccurence
  5. Viscous fluid-filled middle ear - glue ear. Dampens vibrations of tympanic membrane and ossicles
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114
Q

Glue ear typical presentation

A

child between 2-5 presents w/ hearing difficulties
child not responding to sounds or instructions as expected
may also exhibit speech and language delay due to impaired auditory input

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115
Q

Clinical features of glue ear

A

hearing loss
tinnitus
speech and language delay
behavioural changes
balance problems

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116
Q

Glue ear otoscopic exam

A

dull or retracted tympanic membrane w/ limited mobility on pneumatic otoscopy
visible bubbles or air-fluid lvl behind tympanic membrane indicating middle ear effusion

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117
Q

Glue ear differentials

A

acute otitis media
chronic suppurative otitis media
eustachian tube dysfunction

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118
Q

Glue ear management

A

majority resolve spontaneously w/in 3 months
encourage autoinflation (valsalva manoeuvre or politerisation)

surgery intervention:
myringotomy and grommet insertion
adenoidectomy
tympanostomy and balloon dilation

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119
Q

What is myringotomy and grommet insertion?

A

myringotomy = small incision in tympanic membrane
grommet = ventilation tube inserted into middle ear to equalise pressure and facilitate drainage of accumulated fluid
grommets typically fall out spontaneously after 6-12 months, during which time they must be monitored for complications eg otorrhoea, tympanic membrane perforation or scarring

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120
Q

Glue ear complications

A

hearing loss
speech and language delay
tympanic membrane atrophy or retraction
bacterial superinfection
mastoiditis
meningitis

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121
Q

What is periorbital cellulitis?

A

eyelid and skin infection in front of orbital septum where inflammation and infection remains confined to soft tissue layers superficial to orbital septum

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122
Q

What is orbital cellulitis?

A

post-septal infection involving orbit’s soft tissues posterior to orbital septum
can cause optic nerve compression leading to vision loss
muscles of orbit affected, usually due to bacterial sinusitis
life-threatening

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123
Q

Risk factors of periorbital and orbital cellulitis

A

age <5
sinusitis
trauma
lack of Hib infection
boys

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124
Q

Underlying causes of periorbital and orbital cellulitis

A

staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
streptococcus pneumoniae
haemophilus influenzae type B
bacteroides species
fungal cause can occur in immunocompromised or following trauma w/ soil or plants

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125
Q

Periorbital and orbital cellulitis pathophysiology

A
  1. Initial infection typically occurs in adjacent structures (eg paranasal sinus)
  2. Bacteria invades through direct extension or by haematogenous spread
  3. Once inside tissue, bacteria releases endotoxins that trigger inflammatory response, results in increased vasc permeability leading to oedema and erythema, neutrophil recruited which phagocytose pathogens and release proteolytic enzymes causing further tissue damage
  4. If not treated promptly, disease progresses and extends posteriorly to orbital fat and ocular muscles
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126
Q

Periorbital cellulitis classification

A

Primary = direct inoculation or extension from local facial or eyelid infections
Secondary = 2nd to sinusitis, particularly from ethmoid sinuses

127
Q

Periorbital and orbital cellulitis severity classification

A

grp 1 inflammatory oedema
grp 2 orbital cellulitis
grp 3 subperiosteal abscess
grp 4 orbital abscess
grp 5 cavernous sinus thrpmbosis

128
Q

Periorbital and orbital cellulitis presentation

A

unilateral eyelid erythema, oedema and tenderness
systemic - fever, malaise
ocular pain, impaired vision and restricted eye movement
proptosis in orbital cellulitis

129
Q

Periorbital and orbital cellulitis investigations

A

CT sinus and orbits w/ contrast
MRI
bloods

130
Q

Periorbital and orbital cellulitis differentials

A

allergic reaction
dacryocystitis - lacrimal sac infection
blepharitis - eyelid inflammation

131
Q

Periorbital and orbital cellulitis management

A

abx - empiric IV after getting cultures (cefotaxime / clindamycin)
surgical intervention
close monitoring
prevent by ensuring up to date immunisations against strep pneumoniae and hemophilus influenzae tybe b

132
Q

Periorbital and orbital cellulitis complications

A

subperiosteal abscess
cavernous sinus thrombosis
optic neuritis
meningitis
brain abscess
epidural abscess
sepsis
toxic shock syndrome

133
Q

What is an atrial septal defect?

A

abnormal opening in atrial septum, allowing blood flow from left to right atria due to higher pressure in left

134
Q

Atrial septal defect pathophysiology

A

oxygenated blood shunted from left to right, increasing pulmonary blood flow
augmented vol load on RHS leads to dilation of both atrium and ventricle
over time, vol overload can cause R vent hypertrophy due to increased workload, can also cause elevated pulmonary artery pressures
Increased pulmonary circulation causes enhanced venous return to LHS, potentially enlarging LA and LV
systemic cardiac output may be reduced despite overall increased cardiac work as portion of oxygenated blood recirculates

135
Q

Consequences of chronically elevated pulmonary pressures

A

vasc changes w/in lungs, including medial hypertrophy and intimal proliferation w/in small pulmonary arteries
changes further exacerbate pulmonary HTN and can lead to Eisenmenger syndrome: reversal of shunt direction occurs due to significantly elevated right-sided pressures

136
Q

Atrial septal defect classification

A

Ostium secundum ASD: most common (70%), central part of septum
Ostium primum ASD: endocardial cushion defect, abnormalities of AV valves
Sinus venosus ASD: near entry point of superior or inferior vena cava
Coronary sinus ASD: rare, unroofing of coronary sinus

137
Q

Size of atrial septal defect

A

from small = <5mm to large = >15mm

138
Q

Atrial septal defect investigations

A

echo - TTE (transthoracic) and TEE (transesophageal)
chest x-ray
EEG
cardiac MRI or CT

139
Q

Atrial septal defect management

A

Evaluate w/ echo
Decision-making to close
Treat w/ percutaneous device closure, surgical repair or medical management
Post-procedure = recommend dual antiplatelet therapy for 6 months to prevent thrombus formation on device

140
Q

Atrial septal defect complications

A

pulmonary HTN
RSHF
atrial arrhythmias
stroke
migraine w/ aura
pulmonary arteriovenous malformations
mitral valve prolapse

141
Q

What are the types of viral induced wheeze?

A

episodic wheeze - symptom of viral URTI and symptom free in between events
multiple trigger wheeze - URTI and other factors trigger wheeze

142
Q

Symptomatic treatment of viral induced wheeze

A

SABA inhaler via spacer 4hrly up to 10 puffs
LTRA and ICS via spacer
for multiple trigger wheeze = trial ICS or LTRA for 4-8wks

143
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

LRT infection and lung parenchyma infection which leads to consolidation

144
Q

Pneumonia epidemiology

A

highest incidence in infants
viral cause more common in young infants
bacterial more common in older children
viral disease more common in winter

145
Q

Pneumonia causes

A

Neonates = grp B strep, E.coli, Klebsiella, Staph aureus
Infants = strep pneumoniae, chlamydia
School age = strep pneumoniae, staph aureus, grp A strep, mycoplasma pneumoniae

146
Q

Pneumonia clinical presentation

A

usually precede URTI
fever
SOB
lethargy
signs of resp distress
On examination - dullness, crackles, decreased breath sounds, bronchial breathing
wheeze and hyperinflation more typical of viral infection

147
Q

Pneumonia investigations

A

mainly clinical
CXR - fluid in lungs (associated w/ staph)

148
Q

Pneumonia treatment

A

manage at home w/ analgesia
if admitted, oxygen therapy and IV fluids
Abx:
neonates = broad spec IVAbx
infants = amoxicillin / co-amox
over 5s = amox / erythromycin

149
Q

Pneumonia complications

A

risk of parapneumonic collapse and empyema, follow up at 4-6wks w/ fluid sample

150
Q

What is strabismus?

A

misalignment of the eyes
when not aligned, images on retina will not match and pt experiences double vision

151
Q

Strabismus pathophysiology

A

on childhood, eyes haven’t fully established connections w/ brain, brain copes by reducing signal from less dominant eyes
results in one dominant eyes and one eye which will be ignored
when left untreated, lazy eye becomes more and more disconnected from brain and problem worsens (abmblyopia)

152
Q

Esotropia v Exotropia

A

Esotropia = inward position squint - affected eye deviates towards nose
Exotropia = outward position squint - affected eye deviated towards ear

153
Q

What is a concomitant squint?

A

differences in control of extra ocular muscles

154
Q

Hypertropia v hypotropia

A

hypertropia = upward moving affected eye
hypotropia = downward moving affected eye

155
Q

Causes of squint

A

idiopathic
hydrocephalus
cerebral palsy
space occupying lesion eg retinoblastoma
trauma

156
Q

Squint investigations

A

eye movements and inspection
fundoscopy
visual acuity
Hrischberg’s test = shine torch from 1m away, when pt looks at light, observe reflection of light source on their cornea (should be central and symmetrical)
Cover test = cover one eye and ask pt to focus on object, move cover to other eye and watch movement of other eye and observe any exo/esotropia

157
Q

Squint management

A

treatment must start before 8yrs
occlusive patch - cover good eye and force weak eye to develop
atropine drops in good eye - causes blurred vision and force weak eye to develop

158
Q

Atrial septal defect causes

A

maternal smoking in 1st trimester
FH of CHD
maternal diabetes
maternal rubella

159
Q

Atrial septal defect clinical presentation

A

tachypnoea
poor weight gain
recurrent chest infections
soft, systolic ejection murmur heard in 2nd intercostal space
wide, fixed split S2 sound

160
Q

What is ventricular septal defect?

A

most common heart defect
opening in interventricular septum, causes left to right shunting, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and right ventricular volume overload

161
Q

Ventricular septal defect causes

A

Genetic = chromosomal disorders eg Down, Edwards, Patau, DiGeorge
Environmental = prenatal exposure to teratogens, maternal illness, advanced maternal age, premature birth

162
Q

Ventricular septal defect pathophysiology

A

left-to-right shunt due to higher pressures in LV, oxygenated blood from LV pushed into RV instead of being ejected into systemic circulation via aorta
increases pulmonary blood flow, vol overload on both RS chambers
can cause hypertrophy and dilation of chambers

163
Q

Moderate v severe ventricular septal defect

A

moderate = enlarged atria and ventricles, leads to pulmonary HTN and congestive HF
severe = severe pulmonary HTN and early onset HF

164
Q

Ventricular septal defect clinical presentation

A

can be symptomless
pansystolic murmur at lower left sternal border
poor feeding
tachypnoea
dyspnoea
failure to thrive

165
Q

Ventricular septal defect investigations

A

Echo - TTE, TOE
cardiac MRI
x-ray showing cardiomegaly

166
Q

Ventricular septal defect differentials

A

atrial septal defect
patent ductus arteriosus
pulmonary stenosis

167
Q

Ventricular septal defect management

A

diuretics - pulmonary congestion
ACE inhibitors to reduce systemic pressure
interventional cardiac catheterisation
surgical repair

168
Q

Ventricular septal defect

A

Eisenmenger syndrome
heart failure
endocarditis
pulmonary HTN
aortic regurgitation
arrhythmias
stroke

169
Q

What is tetralogy of fallot?

A

most common cyanotic congenital heart disease
overriding aorta
large VSD
pulmonary stenosis
R.vent hypertrophy

170
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot causes

A

more common in males
rubella
increased age of mother (>40)

171
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot pathophysiology

A

decreased r. vent flow
dilated and displaced aorta
Mild = asymptomatic but as heart grows, develops cyanosis aged 1-3
Moderate = cyanosis and resp distress in first few months of life
Extreme = often detected on antenatal scan, present w/ cyanosis in first few hrs of life

172
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot presentation

A

irritability
cyanosis
clubbing
poor feeding
poor weight gain
ejection systolic murmur in pulmonary region (from pulmonary stenosis)
tet spells

173
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot investigations

A

CXR - boot shaped heart
MRI / cardiac catheter
echo

174
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot treatment

A

prostaglandin infusion PGE1 to maintain ductus arteriosus
beta blockers
morphine to reduce resp drive
surgical - repair under bypass 3months - 4yrs but needs ICU post op

175
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot complications

A

pulmonary regurgitation
lifelong follow up

176
Q

What is transposition of the great arteries?

A

aorta rises from right ventricle and pulmonary artery from left ventricle

177
Q

Transposition of great arteries risk factors

A

more common in males
mum > 40
rubella
maternal diabetes
alcohol consumption

178
Q

Transposition of great arteries pathophysiology

A

deoxygenated blood delivered systemically
mixing needs to be possible to sustain life - patent foramen ovale, VSD or patent ductus arteriosus must be present alongside

179
Q

Presentation of transposition of great arteries

A

cyanosis in first 24hrs of life
R vent heave
loud S2 heart sound
systolic murmur if VSD present
sometimes PD / VSD can make symptoms however w/in a few wks they will develop resp distress, poor feeding etc

180
Q

Transposition of great arteries diagnosis

A

low SATS
echo
CXR - egg on a string due to narrowed mediastinum and cardiomegaly
metabolic acidosis

181
Q

Transposition of great arteries treatment

A

PGE1 infusion to ensure PDA and mixing of blood
surgical correction before 4wks

182
Q

What is truncus arteriosus?

A

heart defect where only one large blood vessel comes out of heart instead of the two separate aorta and pulmonary artery
VSD usually present
blood mixes, heart has to pump harder, leads to HF

183
Q

What is a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

persistent connection between aorta and pulmonary artery
normal in utero but usually closes w/in first 10-15 mins of life
causes left to right shunt

184
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus risk factors

A

female
prematurity

185
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus presentation

A

resp distress
apnoea
tachypnoea
tachycardia
continuous machinery murmur at left sternal edge

186
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus diagnosis

A

echo
ECG / CXR

187
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus management

A

cardiac catheterisation to close around 1yrs or sooner
in premature infants = indomethacin or ibuprofren - inhibits prostaglandin and stimulates closure

188
Q

What is rheumatic fever?

A

develops following immunological reaction to recent (2-6wks ago) streptococcus pyogenes infection
can affect multiple organ systems eg heart, joints, skin and CNS

189
Q

Rheumatic fever pathogenesis

A
  • streptococcus pyogenes infection -> activation of innate immune system leading to antigen presentation to T cells
  • B and T cells produce IgG and IgM antibodies and CD4+ T cells activated
  • cross-reactive immune response (T2 hypersensitivity), mediated by molecular mimicry
  • CW of streptococcus pyogenes includes M protein, virulence factor that’s highly antigenic, antibodies against M protein cross-react w/ myosin and arteries smooth muscle
  • response leads to features of rheumatic fever
190
Q

What are Aschoff bodies?

A

small granulomatous lesions found in heart muscle in rheumatic fever

191
Q

Rheumatic fever diagnosis

A

evidence of recent streptococcal infection and either 2 major criteria or 1 major w/ 2 minor

Major:
- erythema marginatum (non-pruritic erythematous macules or annular lesions w/ clear centres and well-defined margins on trunk and proximal extremities)
- Sydenham’s chorea (involuntary movements, muscular weakness and emotional disturbance)
- polyarthritis
- carditis and valvulitis
- subcutaneous nodules

Minor:
- raised ESR or CRP
- pyrexia
- arthralgia
-prolonged PR interval

192
Q

Rheumatic fever management

A

Abx - penicillin, erythromycin
anti-inflammatory therapy - aspirin or NSAIDs, corticosteroids
diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta blockers for HF
anticonvulsants for Sydenham chorea

193
Q

What is the most common cause of vomiting in infancy?

194
Q

GORD risk factors

A

preterm delivery
neurological disorders

195
Q

Clinical features of GORD

A

typically develops before 8wks
vomiting / regurgitation following feeds

196
Q

GORD diagnosis

A

24-hr pH monitoring or pH impedence studies

197
Q

GORD management

A

advise 30 degree head up position during feeding
infants should sleep on back as per guidelines
ensure infant not overfed, consider smaller and more frequent feeds
trial of thickened formula
trial of alginate therapy (gaviscon)
PPI not recommended in infants and children as isolated symptom
prokinetic agents only used w/ specialist advice

198
Q

When should a PPI be considered for GORD in infants and children?

A

if there is:
unexplained feeding difficulties
distressed behaviour
faltering growth

199
Q

GORD complications

A

distress
failure to thrive
aspiration
frequent otitis media
in older children dental erosion may occur

200
Q

What percentage of children have a cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy? When does it present?

A

around 3-6% of all children
presents in first 3 months

201
Q

Cow’s milk protein intolerance / allergy classification

A

immediate (IgE mediated), seen w/in 2hrs of ingestion - CMPA
delayed (non-IgE mediated), up to 48hrs after ingestion - CMPI

202
Q

Clinical features of cow’s milk protein intolerance / allergy

A

diarrhoea
vomiting
abdo pain
faltering growth
constipation
eczema, rash
asthma-like symptoms

203
Q

What other symptoms and conditions can cow’s milk protein intolerance be associated with?

A

iron deficiency anaemia due to GI blood loss
behavioural changes eg irritability
sleep disturbance

204
Q

Cow’s milk protein intolerance / allergy investigations

A

dietary elimination (2-6wks) and reintroduction
skin prick test
specific IgE testing

205
Q

Cow’s milk protein intolerance / allergy differentials

A

lactose intolerance
GORD
eosinophilic oesophagitis

206
Q

Cow’s milk protein intolerance / allergy management if formula-fed

A

mild-moderate symptoms = extensive hydrolysed formula (eHF) milk
severe CMPA = amino-acid based formula
around 10% infants also intolerant to soya

207
Q

Cow’s milk protein intolerance / allergy if breast fed

A

continue breast-feeding
eliminate cow’s milk protein from maternal diet, consider prescribing calcium supplements to mother
use eHF milk when breastfeeding stops, until 12 months of age and at least for 6months

208
Q

What is infantile colic?

A

paroxysms of persistent and uncontrollable crying in an otherwise healthy infant
affects approx 15-20% of infants, more frequent in first 6wks of life

209
Q

Causes of colic

A

faulty feeding techniques
infrequent burping
stressful pregnancy and birth
possible GI origin based on gut biomes
tobacco smoke and nicotine exposure

210
Q

Clinical features of colic

A

Colic cry = louder, higher, screaming, more piercing/grating
unable to consoled, clear beginning and end with no explanation
facial flushing
tense abdomen
drawing legs up to abdomen
clenched fist
back arching
circumoral pallor

211
Q

What is the Wessel criteria?

A

defines infantile colic:
- unexplained crying or fussiness (otherwise healthy, other causes ruled out)
- resolves by 3months
- lasts >3hrs a day
- occurs >3 days per week
- persists for >3 weeks

212
Q

What red flags should be absent in infantile colic?

A

fever
diarrhoea, vomiting, abdo distension
reduced conscious state
signs of trauma
poor feeding
poor weight gain and growth
signs of developmental delay

213
Q

Infantile colic differentials

A

normal crying
intussesception
cow’s milk protein allergy
GORD
lactose overload / intolerance
UTI

214
Q

Infantile colic management

A

caregiver education and support
appropriate feeding techniques
dietary changes

215
Q

What is the most common cause of non-bilious vomiting in children?

A

pyloric stenosis

216
Q

Risk factors of pyloric stenosis

A

male
firstborn
FH of pyloric stenosis
maternal smoking
bottle feeding
preterm birth
ethnicity - caucasian and hispanic
erythromycin

217
Q

Clinical features of pyloric stenosis

A

projectile non-bilious vomiting - follows a feed, child hungry and irritable after episode
haematemesis in around 10%
weight loss / inadequate gain
dehydration
stool changes
firm, non-tender 1-2cm mass in URQ of abdo
visible peristalsis

218
Q

Signs of dehydration in infants

A

sunken fontanelles
sunken eyes
dry mucous membranes
poor skin turgor
decreased tearing
lethargy
tachycardia
prolonged CRT
decreased urine output

219
Q

Excess vomiting leads to…

A

severe hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic dehydration
w/ metabolic alkalosis

220
Q

What is pyloric stenosis?

A

result of hypertrophy of pylorus muscles of stomach leading to gastric outlet obstruction
infant well at birth then present w/ vomiting from 2-8wks

221
Q

Pyloric stenosis classical triad

A

palpable pyloric mass
visible peristalsis
non-bilious, forceful projectile vomiting

222
Q

Investigations of pyloric stenosis

A

classical triad
assessment of degree of dehydration
weight and height tracked
blood gas
‘target sign’ on US, pyloric thickness >3mm and length >15-17mm

223
Q

Pyloric stenosis differentials

A

intestinal malrotation and volvulus
duodenal atresia
necrotising enterocolitis
tracheoesophgeal fistula
meconium ileus
Hirschprung
GORD

224
Q

Pyloric stenosis management

A

correct metabolic imbalances - NaCl
fluid bolus for hypovolemia
NG tube and aspiration of stomach
Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy

225
Q

Pyloric stenosis complications

A

dehydration
weight loss
electrolyte disturbance
from surgery: anaesthetic risk, persistent vomiting if incomplete, mucosal perforation, infection, foveolar cell hyperplasia

226
Q

Dysphagia vs GORD

A

dysphagia may be due to anatomical abnormalities, neuro disorders or functional issues
GORD characterised by frequent regurgitation associated w/ complications like poor weight gain, distress or resp symptoms

227
Q

What is Hirschsprungs disease?

A

nerve cells of myenteric plexus are absent in distal bowel and rectum, specifically parasympathetic ganglionic cells resulting in lack of peristalsis

228
Q

Hirschsprungs disease risk factors

A

90% present in neonatal period
average = 2 days old
males
Down’s syndrome

229
Q

Hirschsprungs disease pathophysiology

A

most common = short segment, disease confined to rectosigmoid part of colon
ganglion cells of submucosal plexus not present
failure of peristalsis and bowel movements causing obstruction
can lead to bacterial build up and enterocolitis and sepsis

230
Q

Hirschsprungs disease presentation

A

failure to pass meconium (w/in 48 hrs of birth)
abdo distension
bilious vomiting
palpable faecal mass in LL abdo
empty rectal vault

231
Q

Hirschsprungs disease investigations

A

rectal suction biopsy - test for ganglionic cells in anyone who has:
- delayed meconium passage
- constipation in first few wks
- chronic abdo distension
- +ve FH
- faltering growth
contrast enema

232
Q

Hirschsprungs disease management

A

IV Abx
bowel decompression
NG tube
surgery - Swenson, Soave, Dunhamel pull through surgery

233
Q

What is intussusception?

A

one piece of bowel telescopes inside another, leading to ischaemia and bowel obstruction
most common in distal ileum at ileocecal junction
most common cause of obstruction in neonates

234
Q

Intussusception risk factors

A

3months - 3yrs
CF
Meckel’s diverticulum
HSP
rotavirus vaccine >23 wks

235
Q

Intussusception presentation

A

colic abdo pain
pallor
sausage shaped mass palpable in RUQ
redcurrant jelly stools
abdo distension
shock
peritonitis (guarding, rigidity, pyrexia)

236
Q

Intussusception investigations

A

USS - target shaped mass
abdo x-ray - distended small bowel, absence of gas in large bowel

237
Q

Intussusception treatment

A

med emergency
IV fluids
air enema using US to stretch bowel walls and reduce, if unsuccessful, surgery to manually repair
Abx (gentamicin) if perforated or peritonitis

238
Q

What is necrotising enterocolitis?

A

acute inflammatory disease affecting preterm neonates leading to bowel necrosis and multi system organ failure
most common surgical emergency in neonates

239
Q

Necrotising enterocolitis causes

A

low birth weight (1500g)
in first 2 wks of life
prematurity
Abx therapy >10 days
genetic

240
Q

Necrotising enterocolitis presentation

A

new feed intolerance
vomiting and bile
fresh blood in stools
abdo distension
reduced bowel sounds
palpable abdo mass
visible intestinal loops
sepsis

241
Q

Necrotising enterocolitis investigations

A

bloods - thrombocytopenia, neutropenia
cultures
blood gas - acidotic
USS - air in portal system, ascites, perforation
XR - Rigler’s sign

242
Q

What is seen on an x-ray in necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Rigler’s - both signs of bowel are visible due to gas in peritoneal cavity
dilated bowel loops
distended bowel
thickened bowel wall
air outlining falciform ligament

243
Q

Necrotising enterocolitis management

A

nil by mouth
bowel decompression by NG tube
IV cefotaxime
surgery to remove necrotic bowel

244
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

congenital diverticulum of small intestine containing ileal, gastric and pancreatic mucosa, pouch-like structure forms as remnant of the vitelline duct
2cm from ileocecal valve
occurs in 2% of population

245
Q

What supplies Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

ompthalomesenteric artery

246
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum presentation

A

abdo pain
rectal bleeding in children 1-2yrs
obstruction due to intussusception and volvulus
at risk of peptic ulceration

247
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum management

A

removal if symptomatic - resection

248
Q

what is biliary atresia?

A

obstruction of biliary tree due to sclerosis of bile duct, reducing blood flow

249
Q

Biliary atresia risk factors

A

female
neonatal cholestasis 2-8wks
associated w/ CMV
congenital malformations

250
Q

Biliary atresia presentation

A

jaundice post 2 wks
dark urine
pale stolls
apetite disturbance
hepatosplenomegaly
abnormal growth
duodenal atresia - presents in first 24hrs of life, more common in trisomy 21

250
Q

Biliary atresia pathophysiology

A

T1 = common duct is obliterated
T2 = atresia of cystic duct in porta hepatis
T3 = most common, atresia of right and left ducts at lvl of porta hepatis

251
Q

Biliary atresia investigations

A

serum bilirubin - high conjugated bilirubin
raised LFTs
alpha 1 antitrypsin - rule out
sweat test - rule out CF
USS - structural abnormalities

252
Q

Biliary atresia management

A

surgical dissection of abnormalities - Kasai procedure
Abx

253
Q

Biliary atresia complications

A

cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
progressive liver disease

254
Q

Neonatal jaundice pathophysiology

A

breakdown of in-utero Hb
immature liver can’t break down high bilirubin concentrations

255
Q

Physiological v pathological v prolonged neonatal jaundice

A

pathological = onset <24hrs
physiological = starts 2-3 days, peak at day 5, usually resolves by 14 days
prolonged = >14 days in term infants, 21 days in preterm

256
Q

Neonatal prolonged jaundice causes

A

biliary atresia
hypothyroidism
breast milk jaundice (resolves 1.5-4 months)
UTI / infection

257
Q

Pathological neonatal jaundice causes

A

G6PD deficiency
spherocytosis

258
Q

Physiological jaundice causes

A

prematurity
small for dates
previous sibling w/ neonatal jaundice

259
Q

Neonatal jaundice presentation

A

yellow colour
drowsiness
signs of infection

260
Q

Neonatal jaundice investigations

A

TCB (transcutaneous bilirubin) - used over 35 wks gestation, non-invasive
serum bilirubin
total and conjugated bilirubin
Coombs test
infection screen

261
Q

Neonatal jaundice management

A

treatment threshold graphs for specific gestation
phototherapy for above threshold
below threshold have lvls monitored and rechecked w/in 24hrs
repeat bilirubin 4-6 hrs after commencing phototherapy and 6-12 hrly once lvls stabilise
stop phototherapy once over 50umol/L of treatment line
recheck 12-18hrs after stopping
If severe = exchange transfusion

262
Q

Complications of neonatal jaundiace

A

Kernicterus - bilirubin induced encephalopathy and irreversible neurological damage
> 360umol/L

263
Q

What is an exchange transfusion?

A

used in severe jaundice cases (rise of >8.5umol/L/hour) , and signs of kernicterus
exchange of blood w/ donated plasma to decrease lvl of circulating bilirubin
via umbilical artery or vein

264
Q

Causes of organic failure to thrive

A

GI - GORD, IBD, CMPA
metabolic - coeliac, CF
thyroid disorders
chronic - congenital heart disease
infections - HIV, TB

265
Q

Causes of non-organic failure to thrive

A

behavioural issues
family dynamics
usually attributed to inadequate caloric intake

266
Q

What is failure to thrive?

A

condition of insufficient weight gain or inappropriate growth in infants and children
manifestation of underlying medical or psychosocial issues

267
Q

Secondary causes of constipation

A

Hirschsprung’s disease
CF
hypothyroidism
spinal cord lesions
sexual abuse
intestinal obstruction
cows milk intolerance

268
Q

Constipation clinical presentation

A

<3 stools a wk
hard stools that are difficult to pass
rabbit dropping stools
straining and painful passage of stools
abdo pain
overflow soiling caused by faecal impaction
palpable hard stools in abdomen

269
Q

Constipation management

A

correct any reversible contributors eg high fibre diet, good hydration
movicol - laxative
disimpaction regimen may be needed w/ high dose laxative at first, followed by half disimpaction dose as maintenance

270
Q

What’s the most common cause of UTIs in children?

A

Escherichia coli (80%)
others include klebsiella pneumonia, proteus mirabilis, enterococcus spp, staphyloccocus saprophyticus

271
Q

Features of a LUTI (cystitis)

A

dysuria
frequency
urgency
haematuria
suprapubic pain or tenderness
foul-smelling urine
enuresis

272
Q

Features of an UUTI (pyelonephritis)

A

fever
flank pain or costovertebral angle tenderness
abdo pain
nausea and vomiting
lethargy or irritability
poor feeding or failure to thrive

273
Q

UTI management

A

<3 months = refer
>3 months, UUTI = consider admission, oral abx (cephalosporin or co-amox x7-10days)
>3 months, LUTI = oral abx x3days (trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin or co-amox)
abx prophylaxis not given after first UTI but should be considered w/ recurrent UTIs

274
Q

What is Down’s syndrome?

A

genetic disorder
extra copy of chromosome 21, 3 copies total
1/700 live births

275
Q

Down’s syndrome risk factor

A

increase risk w/ increasing maternal age
30 yrs = 1/1000
35 yrs = 1/300
40yrs = 1/100

276
Q

What is the most common mode of Down’s syndrome?

A

nondisjunction = 94%
Robertsonian translocation = 5%
mosaicism = 1%

277
Q

What is mosaicism?

A

presence of 2 genetically different populations of cells in the body

278
Q

Down’s syndrome clinical features

A

hypotonia
small head w/ flat back
short neck
short stature
flattened face and nose
low set ears
single palmar crease
prominent epicanthic folds
upward sloping palpebral fissures

279
Q

Complications of Down’s syndrome

A

cardiac = endocardial cushion, vent septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of fallot
subfertility
learning difficulties
short stature
repeated resp infections
acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
hypothyroidism
Alzheimer’s
atlantoaxial instability
vision and hearing problems

280
Q

Screening for Down’s syndrome

A

combined test - 11-14wks, US looking at thickness on back of neck (thickened) and beta-HCG (raised) and PAPPA (reduced)
if women book later in pregnancy either triple or quadruple test offered between 15-20wks

281
Q

Triple and quadruple Down’s syndrome test

A

triple = 14-20wks, beta-HCG (raised), AFP (low), serum oestriol (low)
quadruple = triple + inhibin-A (high)

282
Q

Down’s syndrome management

A

MDT approach
regular screening of complications - echo, thyroid checks, eye checks and audiometry

283
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

umbrella term for tendency to have seizures which are transient episodes of abnormal electrical activity in the brain

284
Q

What are the types of seizures?

A

generalised tonic-clonic
focal
absence
myoclonic
tonic / atonic

285
Q

What are generalised tonic-clonic seizures?

A

loss of consciousness w/ tonic (rigidity) and clonic (rhythmic jerking)
phase w/ possible tongue biting, incontinence, groaning and irregular breathing
postictal period - confused, drowsy and irritable

286
Q

Generalised tonic-clonic seizure management

A

sodium valproate
lamotrigine
carbamezapine

287
Q

What are focal seizures?

A

begin in temporal lobes and affects speech, memory and emotions
can present w/ hallucinations, memory flashbacks and deja vu

288
Q

Focal seizure management

A

lamotrigine
levetiracetam

289
Q

What is an absence seizure?

A

most common in children, become blank and stare into space then abruptly return to normal
unaware of surroundings during
10-20 secs

290
Q

Absence seizures management

A

stop with age
ethosuximide

291
Q

What are myoclonic seizures?

A

sudden brief muscle contractions where person remains awake
often part of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

292
Q

Myoclonic seizure management

A

sodium valproate
levetiracetam

293
Q

What are tonic/atonic seizures?

A

sudden tension/stiffness affecting body

294
Q

Tonic / atonic seizure management

A

sodium valproate
lamotrigine

295
Q

Epilepsy investigations

A

full history
EEG after second simple tonic-clonic seizure
MRI brain
blood electrolytes, glucose, cultures and LP considered

296
Q

Management of acute seizures

A

recovery position if possible
soft under head
remove obstacles
make note of start and end time
call ambulance if >5mins

297
Q

Sodium valproate side effect

A

teratogenic
liver damage
hair loss
temors

298
Q

Carbamezapine side effects

A

agranulocytosis
aplastic anaemia

299
Q

Ethosuximide side effects

A

night tremors
rashes
N & V

300
Q

Lamotrigine side effects

A

DRESS syndrome (Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms)
leukopenia

301
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

med emergency
seizure >5 mins or 2 or more seizures w/out regaining consciousness
management = secure airway, high conc o2, assess cardiac and resp function
IV lorazepam, repeat after 10mins
buccal and rectal available in community

302
Q

What are febrile convulsions?

A

seizure + high fever 6months - 5yrs
simple = generalised tonic clonic, <15mins, once during febrile illness
complex = focal, >15mins or multiple times during same illness

303
Q

Febrile convulsions investigations

A

rule out other causes eg epilepsy, syncopal episode, trauma, space-occupying lesions and neurological infection

304
Q

Febrile convulsions management

A

identify and manage infection
control fever w/ simple analgesia
parental education
(prognosis slightly higher for epilepsy in future)

305
Q

What is eczema?

A

atopic dermatitis
common chronic inflammatory skin disorder characterised by pruritus and xerosis

306
Q

Eczema pathophysiology

A

defects in normal continuity of skin barrier
provides entrance for irritants, microbes and allergens that create immune response, leads to inflammation

307
Q

Eczema clinical presentation

A

usually in infancy
dry, red, itchy skin w/ sore patches over flexor surfaces (elbows, knees) and face and neck
often episodic w/ flares

308
Q

Eczema management

A

Maintenance = emolients eg E45, diprobase, use often, after washing and before bed to create artificial barrier over skin
Flare ups = thicker emolients eg cetraben ointment or topical steroids eg hydrocortisone and betnovate (beclomethasone), help keep moisture locked overnight
specialist treatment = topical tacrolimus, oral corticosteroids and methotrexate

309
Q

What is eczema hepeticum?

A

viral skin infection in pts w/ eczema caused by herpes simplex virus or varicella zoster virus

309
Q

Eczema herpticum presentation

A

widespread, painful, vesicular rash w/ systemic symptoms
lymphadenopathy

310
Q

Eczema herpeticum management

A

viral swabs of vesicles, treatment usually started based on clinical appearance
Aciclovir - oral or IV

311
Q

Eczema herpeticum complications

A

life-threatening in immunocompromised
bacterial superinfection - Abx