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Anki 3a exports > paediatrics anki 4 > Flashcards

paediatrics anki 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of conjunctivitis doo you see in patients with Kawasaki?

A

Bilateral and non exudative

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2
Q

Why is aspiring usually contraindicated in children and when is it used as treatment?

A

Risk of Reye’s syndrome
Used as treatment of Kawaski’s

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3
Q

What kind of vurs is the measles morbillivirus?

A

Single stranded, enveloped RNA virus

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4
Q

When might the chicken pox rash leave scars?

A

If blisters have been scratched or infected

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5
Q

When is school exclusion recommended in patients with chicken pox?

A

In most infectious periods:1-2 days before rash and until all lesions have dried and crusted over (5 days post rash onset)

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6
Q

Who is most at risk from rubella?

A

Unvaccinated pregnant women due to risk of congenital rubella syndrome

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7
Q

When are rubella outbreaks most common?

A

In winter and spring

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8
Q

When are patient with rubella most infecitous?

A

From 7 days before symptoms start to 4 days after rash onset

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9
Q

Who does staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome mainly affect?

A

Mainly infants: those <5
Adults with renal insufficiency or immune compromise

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10
Q

When are children immunised against whooping cough?

A

2, 3, 4 months and 3-5 years
Pregnant women

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11
Q

Who should be admitted if presenting with suspected whooping cough?

A

Infants under 6 months

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12
Q

When should patients with whooping cough be kept off school?

A

Until 48 hours after commencing antibiotics OR 21 days from symptom onset if no antibiotics

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13
Q

When are pregnant women offered the whooping cough vaccine?

A

Women who are 16-32 weeks pregnant

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14
Q

When should children with slapped cheek suyndrome be excluded from school?

A

No exclusion necessary-no infectious once rash emerges

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15
Q

What might fifth disease cause in adults?

A

Acute arthritis

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16
Q

When are children with Fifth’s disease infectious?

A

3-5 days before rash onset

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17
Q

Why might parvovirus B19 result in an aplastic crisis?

A

Reduces erythropoiesis

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18
Q

What organisms commonly cause pneumonia in neonates?

A

Group B strep
Klebsiella
Staph aureus

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19
Q

What organisms commonly cause pneumonia in infants and young children?

A

Most common: RSV
S pneumonia
Staph aureus
Also bordatella pertussis, chlamydia trachomatis

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20
Q

What organisms commonly cause pneumonia in children aged >5years?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia
Strep pneumoniae
Chlamydia pneumoniae

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21
Q

What symptoms might point more towards a viral cause of pneumonia?

A

Wheeze
Hyperinflation

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22
Q

When should children with pneumonia be admitted to hospital

A

O2<93%
Severe tachypnoea
Grunting
Not feeding

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23
Q

When should children with oneumonia be followed up?

A

At 4-6 weeks

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24
Q

What would you expected to find on spirometry in a patient with asthma?

A

FEV1 reduced
FVC normal
FEV1/FVC<70%

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25
Q

What should patients who have been hospitalised for an asthma attack be given on discharge?

A

Oral prednisolone for at least 3 days
Follow up and review of medication and inhaler technique
Trigger for attack investigations

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26
Q

What might you see on a CXR of a patient with croup and why?

A

Steeple sign
Subglottic narrowing in severe or atypical cases

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27
Q

Whta is bacterial tracheitis?

A

Pseudomembranous croup
Similar to viral croup but caused by Staph aureus
Rare and a lot more dangerous

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28
Q

What might be seen on a CXR in a patient with bronchiolitis?

A

Hyperinflation of lungs
Flattening of diaphragm
Horizontal ribs
Increased hilar bronchial markings

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29
Q

When might bronchiolitis prophylaxis be given?

A

Children <9 months with chronic lung disease/prematurity
Children <2 years with severe immunodeficiency

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30
Q

What is the treatment for bronchiolitis obliterans?

A

Supportive
Immunosuppressive agents->cyclosporin, prednisone etc

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31
Q

What organism can cause chest infections in patients with cystic fibrosis?

A

Psuedomonas aeruginosa

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32
Q

What might be seen on an x ray in a patient with acute epiglottitis and why?

A

Lateral:Thumb sign-Epiglottis swelling
Posterior-anterior:Steeple sign-Subglottic narrowing

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33
Q

What organism most commonly causes viral induced wheeze?

A

RSV/rhinovirus

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34
Q

What should you consider if you find a focal wheeze in a child and what should you do?

A

Focal wheeze-> focal airway obstruction->inhaled foreign body/tumour-> urgent senior review

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35
Q

Why are children most prone to otitis media?

A

Have narrower eustachian tube , more horizontal, less developed immune systems>easier for bacteria to colonise

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36
Q

What would be seen on otoscopy of a patient with otitis media?

A

Bulging tympanic membrane-> loss of light reflex

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37
Q

What should be used if impetigo is likely caused by MRSA?

A

Topical mupirocin

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38
Q

When should patients with mpetigo be referred to secondary care?

A

Suspected complications
Immunocompromised and widespread infection

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39
Q

What is toxic shock syndrome?

A

severe, life-threatening condition characterized by the sudden onset of shock, multi-organ failure, and rash.

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40
Q

What organisms most commonly cause toxic shock syndrome?

A

Group A strep
S.aureus
MRSA

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41
Q

Why is clindamycin used in toxic shock syndrome?

A

Inhibits the produciton of superantigen

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42
Q

Whta condition is this rash likely to be seen in?

A

Scarlet fever

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43
Q

Why is fetal circulation different?

A

Lungs don’t work so are bypassed and bloods need to get to placenta and back

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44
Q

When might murmurs be further investigated in children?

A

Murmur louder than 2/6
Diastolic
Louder on standing
Symptomatic->failure to thrive, feeding difficulty, cyanosis or SOB

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45
Q

Where would a murmur caused by mitral regurgitation be heard the loudest?

A

5th intercostal space
Mid clavicular line

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46
Q

Where would a murmur caused by tricuspid regurgitaiton be heard the loudest?

A

5th IC Left sternal border

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47
Q

Where would a murmur form a ventricular septal defect be heard loudest?

A

Left lower sternal border

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48
Q

Where would a murmur caused by aortic stenosis be heard the loudest?

A

2nd IC Right sternal border

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49
Q

Where would a murmur caused by pulmonary stenosis be heard loudest?

A

2nd IC Left sternal border

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50
Q

Where would a murmur caused by hypertophic obstructive cardiomyopathy be heard the loudest?

A

4th IC Left sternal border

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51
Q

Within how many days does the ductus arteriosus close?

A

Stops functioning within 1-3 days of birth
Closes completely within first 2-3 weeks

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52
Q

What murmur is associated with a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Continuous crescendo-descrescendo ‘machinery’ murmur that may continue during second heart sound

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53
Q

Why are patients with atrial spetal defects more susceptible to strokes from DVTs?

A

Clot can travel from right atrium to left atrium across ASD-> left ventricle->aorta-> brain-> large stroke

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54
Q

What murmur would you find in a patient with an ASD?

A

Mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur loudest at the upper left sternal border with a fixed split second heart sound

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55
Q

What might be the only indication of coarctation of the aorta in a neonate?

A

Weak femoral pulses

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56
Q

What kind of murmur is associated with coarctatin of the aorta?

A

Mid-systolic heard below the left clavicle and below the left scapula, maximal over the back

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57
Q

Why is prostaglandin E used for treatment of the coarctaiton of the aorta?

A

Keeps the ductus arteriosus open so blood is able to flow through into the systemic circulation distal to the coarctation

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58
Q

Where does the narrowing typically occur in coarctation of the aorta?

A

Just before the ductus arteriosus

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59
Q

What murmur is associated with a VSD?

A

Loud, harsh, pan-systolic murmur heard most in left lower sternal border in 3rd and 4th IC space
May be a systolic thrill on palpation

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60
Q

What part of the tetralogy of fallot determines the degree of severity of the cyanosis

A

Pulmonary stenosis

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61
Q

When is tetralogy of fallot most commonly diagnosed?

A

Antenatal scans
Newborn baby check
Heart failure symptoms

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62
Q

Why might a pehnylephrine infusion be used to treat a tet spell?

A

Increases systemic vascular resistance

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63
Q

Why might morphine be used to treat a tet spell?

A

Decreases respiratory drive resulting in more effective breathing

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64
Q

Why might beta blockers be used to treat a tet spell?

A

Relax right ventricle and improve flow to pulmonary vessels

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65
Q

Why might IV fluids be used to treat a tet spell?

A

Increases the pre-load, increasing the volume of blood flowing to the pulmonary vessels

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66
Q

What might be seen on a CXR in a patient with transposition of the great arteries

A

Egg-on-side appearance

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67
Q

When do patients with Ebstein’s anomaly typically present?

A

A few days post birth when the ductus arteriosus closes

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68
Q

What murmur is associated with congenital aortic valve stenosis

A

Crescendo decrescendo ejection systolic murmur
Heard loudest at 2nd IC, R sternal border
Radiates to carotids

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69
Q

What murmur is associated with congenital pulmonary valve stenosis

A

Ejection systolic murmur
Loudest at 2nd IC left sternal border

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70
Q

When might desmopressin be used as a treatment for nocturnal enuresis?

A

> 7 years and still struggling
Need rapid control e.g. child going to a sleep over may be offered a short term course

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71
Q

What is the typical triad of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

AKI
Thrombocytopenia
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

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72
Q

Which is more commmon: primary or secondary haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Secondary(AKA typical)

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73
Q

What might be seen on an FBC in a patient with haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Hg<8-microagniopathic haemolytic anaemia
Negative Coombs test
Thrombocytopenia
High platelets

74
Q

What might be seen on a blood film in a patient with haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Fragmented blood film
Schistocytes
Helmet cells

75
Q

What might you see in the U&Es of a patient with haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

AKI
High urea and creatinine

76
Q

What might you see on a stool culture in a patient with haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Evidence of STEC infection: OCR for Shiga toxins

77
Q

What might be seen in a patient’s coagulation studies if they have suspected haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Normal

78
Q

What might you do if a child is having atypical/recurrent UTI’s?

A

Consider further investigations or prophylaxis
Secondary care referral

79
Q

What is vesicoureteral reflux?

A

Urine flows backwards from bladder into ureters and potentially into the kidneys, sometimes resulting in recurrent UTI’s

80
Q

What is Wilms’ tumour?

A

AKA nephroblastoma
Malignant embryonic tumour originating from the developing kidney

81
Q

What should be avoided in patient with phimosis/paraphimosis?

A

Forcible retraction
Can cause scarring

82
Q

What might suggest an atypical presentation of nephrotic syndrome

A

<1 yrs
Poor response to steroids

83
Q

What would be seen on light microscopy in a patient with minimal change disease?

A

Nothing

84
Q

What would be seen on electron microscopy in a patient with minimal change disease?

A

Fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes

85
Q

What is used to treat patient with minimal change disease if they don’t respond well to steroids?

A

Cyclophosphamide/ciclosporin

86
Q

What would be seen on light microscopy in a patient with post strep glomerulonephritis?

A

Hypercellular glomeruli

87
Q

What would be seen on lectron microscopy in a patient with post strep glomerulonephritis

A

Subendothelial ‘humps’ (immune complex deposition)

88
Q

What would be seen on immunofluorescence in post strep glomerulonephritis

A

Starry sky appearance-IgG, IgM and C3 deposits along GBM and mesangium

89
Q

What might be tested in a patient with likely rapidly progressive GN?

A

ANCA

90
Q

What should be monitored in patients on testosterone therapy?

A

Polycythaemia(effect on erythropoeisis)
Changes in bone mineral density(DEXA scans)
Prostate status
LFTs: synthetic hormones can affect liver status

91
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome?

A

Condition only affects females and is caused by either only having one chromosome or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes45XO/45,X

92
Q

Will gonadotrophin levels be high or low in patients with Turner’s syndrome?

A

High-elevated

93
Q

What is the triple test(Down’s syndrome)?

A

14-20 weeks
B-HCG(higher)
AFP(lower)
Serum oestriol(lower)

94
Q

What si the quadruple test (Down’s syndrome)?

A

Same as triple test but also includes inhbin A(higher)

95
Q

What routine follow up investigations should be done for patients with Down’s syndrome?

A

Regular thryoid checks(2 yearly)
Echo to diagnose cardiac defects
Regular audiometry
Regular eye checks

96
Q

What is William’s syndrome?

A

Neurodevelopmental disorder caused by a microdeletion on chromosome
Usually random deletion rather than inherited

97
Q

What is transient synovitis?

A

Self-limiting condition characterised by the temporary inflammation of the synovial lining of the hip joint, often resulting in a limp in affected children

98
Q

Whhat red flags in a child with a limp migh prompt an urgen specialist assessment

A

Fever
Appears unwell, abnormal observations
<3 years old

99
Q

What organisms are usually implicated in septic arthritis?

A

S.aureus-most common
Others: gonococcus, streptococcus spp, gram negative bacillli

100
Q

What joints are most commonly affect by septic arthritis?

A

Hips
Knees
Ankle

101
Q

What might be seen on examinatin of a patient with osgood schlatter

A

Swelling and tenderness over tibial tubercleI severe: visible/palpable lump at tibial tuberosity

102
Q

What tests are done in a clinical exam to screen for developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Barlow test: attempts to dislocate articulate femoral head(downward pressure on knees through femur to see if it dislocates posteriorly)
Ortolani test(attempt to relocate dislocated femoral head(palms on knees and thumbs on inner thigh and 4 fingers on outer thigh, abduct hips under pressure to see if it will dislocate anteriorly)

103
Q

What test results would be found in a patient with polyarticular JIA

A

RF: mostly negativeIf positive: tends to happen more in adolescents and disease pattern more like RA in adults

104
Q

What test results would be found in a patient with oligoarticular JIA?

A

Usually normal/mildly elevated inflammatory markers
ANA often positiveRF usuaally negative

105
Q

What is torticollis?

A

Painful neck-> local MSK irritation causing pain and spasms in neck muscle

106
Q

Which leukamia is most common in children?

A

ALL

107
Q

Where is a bone marrow biopsy taken from?

A

Iliac crest

108
Q

What symptoms indicate Richter’s transformation?

A

Patients become very unwell suddenly with one of:
Fever with no infection
Weight loss
Night sweats
Nausea
Abdominal pain
Lymph node swelling

109
Q

Where do metastatic brain tumours that spread to the brain most commonly come from?

A

Lung-most common
Breast
Bowel
Skin-melanoma
Kidney

110
Q

What would be seen on histology in a patient with a pilocytic astrocytoma?

A

Rosenthal fibres(corkscrew eosinophilic bundle)

111
Q

Where does a medulloblastoma arise from and where does it spread to?

A

Within the infratentorial compartment-> spreads through the CSF

112
Q

What would you expect to see on histology in a patient with a medulloblastoma?

A

Small blue cells
Rosette pattern of cells with many mitotic figures

113
Q

Where does a neuroblastoma arise from?

A

Neural crest of adrenal medulla(most commonly) and sympathetic nervous system

114
Q

When is surgery indicated for a patient with intussusception?

A

Non-operative management has failed
Child presents with peritonitis or perforation
Child is haemodynamically unstable

115
Q

When should a PPI be considered for a child with GORD?

A

Unexplained feeding difficulties( refusing feeds, gagging, choking)
Distressed behaviour
Faltering growth

116
Q

What part of the CNS is affected by spastic cerebral palsy?

A

Damage to pyramidal pathways-UMN’s-> increased tone

117
Q

When should the APGAR score be assessed?

A

1 minute, and 5 minutes
If low: repeat at 10 minutes

118
Q

What might a low APGAR score at 5 minutes be associated with?

A

Cerebral palsy

119
Q

When does surfactant production start and when does it reach adequate levels?

A

Starts at 26 weeks
Adequate levels at about 35 weeks

120
Q

What is transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

Parenchymal lung disorder characterised by pulmonary oedema caused by delayed resorption and clearance of total alveolar fluid
Mc cause of respiratory distress in term babies

121
Q

Why do normal term babies often get transient hypoglycaemia?

A

Common in first few hours after birth
Can utilise alternate fuels like ketones and lactate so no sequelae

122
Q

Which side is gastroschisis most common on?

A

Right side

123
Q

Which organs are usually implicated in gastroschisis?

A

Usually small intesine
Rare: stomach and liver too

124
Q

Which is associated with a higher mortality rate: exompahlos or gastroschisis?

A

Exomphalos

125
Q

What is VACTER syndrome?

A

Verterbal defects
Anorectal malformations
CVR defects
Tracheo-oesophageal defects
Oeophageal atresia
Renal abnormalities

126
Q

Why does necrotising enterocilitis affect premature infants?

A

Lack of defence mechanisms in bowels(gastric acid and digestive enzymes)

127
Q

What would be seen on an abdominal x-ray in a patient with necrotising enterocilitis

A

Dilated bowel loops
Bowel wall oedema
Pneumatosis intestinalis(intramural gas)
Pneumoperitoneum(indicator of severe disease-Rigler sign or Football Sign)

128
Q

What staging system is used to classify necrotising enterocilitis

A

Bell’s classification

129
Q

When is jaundice considered normal/pathological in newborns?

A

First 24 hours-ALWAYS pathological
2-14 days: common and usually physiological
>14 days: prolonged jaundice-should be investigated

130
Q

What might a raised conjugated bilirubin level in a neonate suggest

A

Biliary atresia-> important differential
Rule out with USS/

131
Q

What is toxoplasma gondii and how is it transmitted?

A

Protozoan parasite
Consumption of undercooked meats or exposure to cat faeces

132
Q

What is the treatment for congenital CMV infection?

A

gangiciclovir

133
Q

What problems might someone with a cleft lip/palate experience?

A

Feeding: orthodontic devices
Speech
Increased risk of otitis media

134
Q

What might be done for pregnant women with a known GBS infection?

A

Offer intrapartum IV antibiotic propylaxis -penicllin

135
Q

What would be seen on EEG of a patient with Lennox Gastaut syndrome

A

Slow spike

136
Q

What would be seen on EEG in panayiotopoulos syndrome?

A

Multiple shifting foci predominantly in the occipital region

137
Q

What would be seen on EEG of a patient with benign rolandic epilepsy

A

During sleep: centro-temporal spikes

138
Q

When is it a red flag for a child tp not fix and follow light/face?

A

3 months

139
Q

Where does neuroblastoma most commonly metastasise to?

A

Bone

140
Q

WHat kind of tumour is a Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

Primitive neuroectodermal tumour

141
Q

Which bones are affected by Ewing’s sarcoma

A

Limbs-mc
Pelvis
Ribs
Vertebrae

142
Q

What staging system is used to classify Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Used to be Ann Arbor staging
Now Lugano classification

143
Q

What is von Willebrand disease?

A

Inherited bleeding disorder characterised by a reduced quantity or function of Von Willebrand factor

144
Q

When is the neonatal blood spot screening performed?

A

5-9 days of life

145
Q

When do beta thalassaemia major patients become symptomatic?

A

Levels of HbF(doesn’t contain beta globin) fall
Should be replaced by HbA(2 alpha and 2 beta globin chains) but no beta globin in beta thalassaemia major

146
Q

What monitoring is required for patients with beta thalassaemia

A

Ferritin 3 monthly
Annaul assessment of cardiac, liver, endocrine, audiology and ophthalmology

147
Q

What screening is done for thalassaemia in the UK?

A

Maternal MCH<27pg, iron studies and HPLC If negative, DNA studies/analysis to look for alpha thalassaemia if pregnant woman and baby’s father are from ‘at risk’ parts of the world
During pregnancy allows option for therapeutic abortion of affected fetus

148
Q

What screening is available in the UK for sickle cell?

A

Most cases are picked up on in newbon screening programme
Screening offfered during pregnancy

149
Q

What kind of hypersensitivity reaction is ITP?

A

Type 2

150
Q

When would a bone marrow biopsy be done for ITP?

A

Atypical features:Lymphadenopathy/splenomegaly/changes in WCC
Failure to resolve/respond to treatment
Used to rule out malignancy

151
Q

Why are platelet transfusions only a temporary measure in ITP?

A

Circulating antibodies will destroy the platelets-> giving more will increase rate of platelet destruction

152
Q

What is thrombotic thromocytopenic purpura?

A

Disorder caused by abnormally cleaved vWF due to abnormal ADAMST13 activity->platelet aggreagation, thrombus formation and systemic microangiopathy

153
Q

What is thelarce?

A

First stage of breast development

154
Q

Which is more common and which is more concerning: precocious puberty in females or males?

A

Mc in females
More concerning: males-usually has an organic cause

155
Q

What might be needed in a salt-losing crisis in patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Fluids
Sodium chloride replacement

156
Q

When should invesigations be considered in children with obesity?

A

BMI>98th centile
Waist: height ratio >0.5

157
Q

What should be investigated in children with obesity?

A

Associated comorbidities
BP
Fasting lipid profile, insulin and glucose levels
Liver and endocrine function
Pubertal status assessment
Psychological assessment

158
Q

What might be seen on physical exam of a patient with pica

A

Signs of nutritional deficiencies->pallor, spoon-shaped nails etc)GI sx->perforations, obstructions
Dental erosions/abrasions
Psychiatric sx: ASD, OCD sx

159
Q

When should a referral be made to dermatology for eczema?

A

Severe and not responded to optimum topical tx after 1 week(urgent referral)
Dx uncertain
Current management not working
Tx resistant facial eczema
Contact allergic dermatitis suspected

160
Q

When would you consider an ENT referral for allergic rhinitis

A

Red flag features suggesting an alternative/serious diagnosis
Refractory cases
Allergen testing is needed

161
Q

What is urticaria?

A

(Hives) rapid development of itchy erythematous raised wheals that may vary in shape and size
Typically resolve in hours to days
Can occur anywhere in the boday

162
Q

When might a referral to derm/immunology be considered for urticaria

A

Painful /persistent-vasculitis
Not wwell controlled
Angioedema and no wheals that don’t respond
Acute severe due to food/latex allergy
Chronic inducible urticaria-solar/cold urticaria

163
Q

What provides evidence of a recent strep infection in rheumatic fever

A

Raised/rising strep antibodies
Positive throat swab
Positive rapid group A streptococcal antigen test

164
Q

What secondary prophylaxis might be used for patients with rheumatic fever

A

Those who have carditis and persistent valve disease
Prophylactic abx to prevent recurrence of rheumatic fever: phenoxymethylpenicllin

165
Q

When is congenital heart block most likely to develop?

A

Between 18th and 25th week gestatioin
Prenatal scans: fetal bradycardia-reduce risk of progression from first/second degree heart block to complete heart block

166
Q

What things would you look at to assess dehydration in a child?

A

General appearance-confidence
Eye: sunken
Mucous membranes: dry
Tears: absent
Skin turgor
HR, Resp rate, cap refill, BP
Urine output
Weight loss

167
Q

What would be seen on colonoscopy with biopsy in a patient with Crohn’s disease

A

Skip lesions
Cobblestone mucosa
Rose thorn ulcers
Non caseating granulomas

168
Q

What should be done before starting a patient on biologics therapy like infliximab

A

CXR: check for TB as can reactivate latent TB

169
Q

When might surgery be used in treatment of Crohn’s disease

A

Control fistulae
Resection of strictures
Rest/defunctioning of bowel

170
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

Chronic relapsing remitting inflammatory disease that primarily affects the large bowel
Affects rectum first then extends to part of colon then whole colon
Does not spread beyond ileocaecal valve or to small bowel

171
Q

What would be seen on colonoscopy and biopsy and barium enema in a patient with Ulcerative colitis

A

ColonoscopY: continuous inflammation starting at rectum that doesn’t go beyond submucosa
Biopsy: loss of goblet cells, crypt abscesses, lymphocytes
Barium enema: lead-piping inflammation and pseudo polyps

172
Q

What symptoms might a B12 deficiency cause in children?

A

Anaemia
Peripheral neuropathy

173
Q

What symptoms might zinc deficiency cause?

A

Dermatitis
Increased infections

174
Q

What might a vitamin C deficiency cause?

A

Scurvy

175
Q

What is toddler’s diarrhoea?

A

Chronic non-specific diarrhoea usually in 1-5 yr olds

176
Q

What should be prescribe for breastfeeding mother’s eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet?

A

Calcium supplements

177
Q

Why do children with neonatal hepatitis get FTT?

A

Decreased intestinal bile flow->imapired fat digestion+vitamin absorption

178
Q

How should pulses be checked in children and infants?

A

Carotid pulse: children >1yr
Brachial/femoral: infants

179
Q
A
180
Q
A

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