paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

A 3-year-old boy presents to the GP with nightly coughing bouts for the last 2 weeks. He has noisy breathing with an inspiratory whoop but no cyanosis or other signs on clinical examination. The GP diagnosis the patient with a whooping cough.

Which of the following would be the best first-line treatment for this patient?

A

NICE guidelines suggest that if admission is not needed, you should prescribe an antibiotic if the onset of the cough is within the last 21 days. In children over 1-month-old, the first line antibiotics are macrolides (specifically azithromycin or clarithromycin for children aged 1 month or older, and non-pregnant adults).

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2
Q

When do you usually immunize people from whooping cough?

A

infants are routinely immunised at 2, 3, 4 months and 3-5 years. Newborn infants are particularly vulnerable, which is why the vaccination campaign for pregnant women was introduced
neither infection nor immunisation results in lifelong protection - hence adolescents and adults may develop whooping cough despite having had their routine immunisations

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3
Q

Is subconjunctival haemorrhage dangerous in whooping cough?

A

No- persistent coughing may cause subconjunctival haemorrhages or even anoxia (body/brain completely loses oxygen) leading to syncope & seizures

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4
Q

What are the complications of bronchiectasis?

A

Subconjunctival haemorrhage
Seizures
Pneumonia
Bronchiectasis

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5
Q

How do you treat bordatella pertussis?

A

infants under 6 months with suspect pertussis should be admitted
in the UK pertussis is a notifiable disease
an oral macrolide (e.g. clarithromycin, azithromycin or erythromycin) is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread
household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis
antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness
school exclusion: 48 hours after commencing antibiotics (or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics )

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6
Q

A 32-year-old woman gives birth to a baby boy at 39 weeks gestation in a ventouse (vacuum-assisted) delivery. Shortly after, she asks one of the doctors to review her baby, concerned about a swelling on his forehead.

On examination, the neonate has a soft, puffy swelling overlying the vertex. It appears to cross suture lines.

Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best advice to give to the mother?

A

Reassure and advise the parent that this should go down within a few days
This is capput succedeneum
Caput succedaneum is a puffy swelling that usually occurs over the presenting part and crosses suture lines
Occurs shortly after childbirth

Caput succedaneum describes oedema of the scalp at the presenting part of the head, typically the vertex. This may be due to mechanical trauma of the initial portion of the scalp pushing through the cervix in a prolonged delivery or secondary to the use of ventouse (vacuum) delivery.

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7
Q

How can you tell the difference between caput succedaneum and cephalohaematoma?

A

Caput succedaneum is present at childbirth
Resolves within days
Typically forms over vertex and crosses suture lines

Cephalohematoma doesn’t cross suture lines, typically develops several hours after childbirth and takes months to resolve
Most common in parietal region

Both have conservative management

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8
Q

A 8-year-old boy presents to the GP as his mother is worried about a fever that is not settling with regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. He has had the fever for 7 days now.

On examination, he has a widespread erythematous rash on his torso and arms. In particular, his palms and soles of his feet are very red. There is conjunctival injection with no discharge. Tender cervical lymphadenopathy is palpated. You measure his temperature at 38ºC.

Following resolution of this condition, which of the following investigations should be used to screen for potential complications

A

This question describes a patient with Kawasaki disease. This should always be suspected if a child has a fever lasting longer than 5 days and resistant to anti-pyretics. In the later stages, the fever may subside, but further symptoms can develop, such as palms and sole desquamation, abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhoea, headache and joint pain. A serious complication that needs to be screened for is coronary artery aneurysms, and this can be diagnosed using echocardiography. Angiography could be used to diagnose aneurysms but echocardiography is preferred. The other investigations would not be used for screening for coronary artery aneurysms.

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9
Q

How do you manage kawasaki disease?

A

high-dose aspirin
Kawasaki disease is one of the few indications for the use of aspirin in children. Due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome aspirin is normally contraindicated in children
intravenous immunoglobulin
echocardiogram (rather than angiography) is used as the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms

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10
Q

What is kawasakis?

A

Kawasaki disease is a type of vasculitis which is predominately seen in children. Whilst Kawasaki disease is uncommon it is important to recognise as it may cause potentially serious complications, including coronary artery aneurysms.

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11
Q

How does kawasakis present?

A

high-grade fever which lasts for > 5 days. Fever is characteristically resistant to antipyretics
conjunctival injection
bright red, cracked lips
strawberry tongue
cervical lymphadenopathy
red palms of the hands and the soles of the feet which later peel

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12
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for kawasakis?

A

Whooping cough should be suspected if a person has an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and has one or more of the following features:
Paroxysmal cough.
Inspiratory whoop.
Post-tussive vomiting.
Undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants.

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13
Q

How do patients with biliary atresia present?

A

Patients typically present in the first few weeks of life with:
Jaundice extending beyond the physiological two weeks
Dark urine and pale stools
Appetite and growth disturbance, however, may be normal in some cases

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14
Q

How do you manage biliary atresia?

A

Kasai procedure
This works by cutting out part of the liver and the bile duct and then attaching the small intestine to the liver
This is effective but infants still often need a transplant by 2 years

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15
Q

How do you investigate biliary atresia?

A

Serum bilirubin including differentiation into conjugated and total bilirubin: Total bilirubin may be normal, whereas conjugated bilirubin is abnormally high
Liver function tests (LFTs) including serum bile acids and aminotransferases are usually raised but cannot differentiate between biliary atresia and other causes of neonatal cholestasis
Serum alpha 1-antitrypsin: Deficiency may be a cause of neonatal cholestasis
Sweat chloride test: Cystic fibrosis often involves the biliary tract
Ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver: May show distension and tract abnormalities
Percutaneous liver biopsy with intraoperative cholangioscopy

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16
Q

What are the complications of biliary atresia?

A

Unsuccessful anastomosis formation
Progressive liver disease
Cirrhosis with eventual hepatocellular carcinoma

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17
Q

A mother brings her 5-week-old newborn baby to see you. She reports that she has noticed that his belly button is always wet and leaks out yellow fluid. On examination, you note a small, red growth of tissue in the centre of the umbilicus, covered with clear mucus. The child is otherwise well, apyrexial and developing normally.

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

An umbilical granuloma is an overgrowth of tissue which occurs during the healing process of the umbilicus. It is most common in the first few weeks of life. On examination, a small, red growth of tissue is seen in the centre of the umbilicus. It is usually wet and leaks small amounts of clear or yellow fluid. It is treated by regular application of salt to the wound, if this does not help then the granuloma can be cauterised with silver nitrate.

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18
Q

What is the difference between umbilical and periumbilical hernia?

A

Umbilical hernia

Up to 20% of neonates may have an umbilical hernia, it is more common in premature infants. The majority of these hernias will close spontaneously (may take between 12 months and three years). Strangulation is rare.

Paraumbilical hernia

These are due to defects in the linea alba that are in close proximity to the umbilicus. The edges of a paraumbilical hernia are more clearly defined than those of an umbilical hernia. They are less likely to resolve spontaneously than an umbilical hernia.

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19
Q

What is omphalitis?

A

This condition consists of an infection of the umbilicus. Infection with Staphylococcus aureus is the commonest cause. The condition is potentially serious as infection may spread rapidly through the umbilical vessels in neonates with a risk of portal pyaemia, and portal vein thrombosis. Treatment is usually with a combination of topical and systemic antibiotics.

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20
Q

What is a persistent urachus?

A

This is characterised by urinary discharge from the umbilicus. It is caused by persistence of the urachus which attaches to the bladder. They are associated with other urogenital abnormalities.

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21
Q

What is persistent vitello intestinal duct?

A

This will typically present as an umbilical discharge that discharges small bowel content. Complete persistence of the duct is a rare condition. Much more common is the persistence of part of the duct (Meckel’s diverticulum). Persistent vitello-intestinal ducts are best imaged using a contrast study to delineate the anatomy and are managed by laparotomy and surgical closure.

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22
Q

When do children start smiling?

A

6 weeks (Refer at ten weeks)

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23
Q

At what ages do children play?

A
Plays 'peek-a-boo'	9 months
Waves 'bye-bye'
Plays 'pat-a-cake'	12 months
Plays contentedly alone	18 months
Plays near others, not with them	2 years
Plays with other children	4 years
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24
Q

A 28-year-old lady is on the post-natal having delivered her first baby at 38 weeks gestation. She had an elective lower segment caesarian section as her baby was in breech position with a failed external cephalic version attempt at 37 weeks. Both mother and baby appear to be happy and healthy and there is no family history of any medical conditions. The baby’s newborn examination was unremarkable. The mother mentions that one of the leaflets given to her during her antenatal appointments discussed screening for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) and asks you whether her baby will need further tests.

A

If a baby is born >36 weeks gestation with breech presentation, then s/he requires a bilateral hip USS at 6 weeks regardless of method of delivery.

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25
Q

What features will patients with DDH present with later in life?

A

Waddling gait
Lumbar lordosis
Pain in lower back

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26
Q

What signs will be on the baby with DDH?

A

extra folds of skin on thigh
restricted abduction
Leg length discrepancy

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27
Q

How is DDH treated?

A

Pavlik harness
Holds the hips in a way that they can develop normally
If diagnosis is made after 1 year then open reduction is needed
In older children surgery and pelvic/femoral osteotomies

Most hips will spontaneously resolve at about 3-6 weeks

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28
Q

What are the risk factors for DDH?

A
female sex: 6 times greater risk
breech presentation
positive family history
firstborn children
oligohydramnios
birth weight > 5 kg
congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity
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29
Q

What imaging is used in DDH?

A

ultrasound is generally used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected
however, if the infant is > 4.5 months then x-ray is the first line investigation

30
Q

What is the management of epiglottitis?

A

immediate senior involvement, including those able to provide emergency airway support (e.g. anaesthetics, ENT)
endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway
if suspected do NOT examine the throat due to the risk of acute airway obstruction
the diagnosis is made by direct visualisation but this should only be done by senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary
oxygen
intravenous antibiotics

31
Q

What are the causes of inspiratory stridor?

A

Inspiratory stridor tends to be due to extra thoracic causes
Enlarged adenoids, enlarged tonsils (infectious mononucleosis)
Malignancy
Peri tonsillar abscess
Macroglossia (orbital oedema)

32
Q

A 10-hour-old neonate is reviewed on the neonatal unit, following an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at 34 weeks’ gestation. His mother reports no concerns so far.

On examination, he appears well at rest. A left subclavicular thrill is noted, and on auscultation, a continuous ‘machinery-like’ murmur is heard. He has a large-volume collapsing pulse.

Given the likely diagnosis, an echocardiogram is performed, which demonstrates the defect in question, but no other abnormalities.

What is the most appropriate management at this stage?

A

The likely diagnosis here is that of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), given the findings on examination. The patency of this connection is maintained by prostaglandins, and so the correct answer is to give indomethacin (or ibuprofen) - this will inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and, in the majority of cases, close the PDA.

33
Q

What is a cephalohaematoma?

A

Cephalohematoma (CH) is a collection of blood between a baby’s scalp and the skull.
Cephalohematoma is a minor condition that occurs during the birth process. Pressure on the fetal head ruptures small blood vessels when the head is compressed against the maternal pelvis during labor or pressure from forceps or a vacuum extractor used to assist the birth.

34
Q

What are the features of PDA?

A
Continous machinery murmur 
Left subclavicular thrill 
Large volume bounding collapsing pulse 
Wide pulse pressure 
Heaving apex beat
35
Q

How should you treat PDA?

A

indomethacin or ibuprofen
given to the neonate
inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
closes the connection in the majority of cases
if associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair

36
Q

In pregnancy, what is the ductus arteriosus maintained open by?

A

Prostaglandin E2

Which is produced by the ductus arteriosus itself and the placenta

37
Q

When can desmopressin be used in terms of nocturnal enuresis?

A

desmopressin may be used first-line for children over the age 7 years, particularly if short-term control is needed or an enuresis alarm has been ineffective/is not acceptable to the family

38
Q

What are infantile spasms?

A

Infantile spasms, or West syndrome, is a type of childhood epilepsy which typically presents in the first 4 to 8 months of life and is more common in male infants. They are often associated with a serious underlying condition and carry a poor prognosis

39
Q

What are the features of infantile spasms?

A

characteristic ‘salaam’ attacks: flexion of the head, trunk and arms followed by extension of the arms
this lasts only 1-2 seconds but may be repeated up to 50 times
progressive mental handicap

40
Q

What is the treatment of infantile spasms?

A

poor prognosis
vigabatrin is now considered first-line therapy
ACTH is also used

41
Q

What do you see on Ix for infantile spasms?

A

the EEG shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants

CT demonstrates diffuse or localised brain disease in 70% (e.g. tuberous sclerosis)

42
Q

How would VUR present?

A

antenatal period: hydronephrosis on ultrasound
recurrent childhood urinary tract infections
reflux nephropathy
term used to describe chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR
commonest cause of chronic pyelonephritis
renal scar may produce increased quantities of renin causing hypertension

43
Q

How do you stage VUR?

A

Grade
I Reflux into the ureter only, no dilatation
II Reflux into the renal pelvis on micturition, no dilatation
III Mild/moderate dilatation of the ureter, renal pelvis and calyces
IV Dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces with moderate ureteral tortuosity
V Gross dilatation of the ureter, pelvis and calyces with ureteral tortuosity

44
Q

A 2-month-old boy is brought to the general practitioner by his mother. Since birth he has been feeding poorly, is often agitated and has a blue-tinge to his lips after prolonged episodes of crying. He was born at term, weighing 2400 grams at delivery. Examination reveals an ejection systolic murmur at the left sternal edge.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Teratology of fallot is the most likely diagnosis
It presents with hypercyanotic spells, cyanosis or collapse in first few months of life, ejection systolic murmur at left sternal edge

45
Q

What does transposition of the great arteries present like?

A

Cyanosis and foetal distress immediately after delivery

46
Q

What is venous hum?

A

Venous hum is a benign murmur heard in children and sounds like a continuous blowing noise heard below the clavicles

47
Q

What is a stills murmur?

A

Low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge

48
Q

Which one of the following is the most likely result if a fetus is homozygous for alpha-thalassaemia?

A

Hydrops fetalis

49
Q

What are the features of foetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Foetal alcohol syndrome is a common cause of microcephaly, with other physical features including: smooth philtrum, hypoplastic upper lip and epicanthic folds.

50
Q

You are reviewing the growth of a 4-week-old neonate. She has a length on the 35th percentile, weight on the 42nd percentile and a head circumference on the 4th percentile.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of her microcephaly?
thalassaemia 
turners
cerebral palsy 
fetal alcohol syndrome 
achondroplasia
A

Foetal alcohol syndrome is a common cause of microcephaly, with other physical features including: smooth philtrum, hypoplastic upper lip and epicanthic folds.

Thalassaemia, Turner’s syndrome and cerebral palsy do not classically affect head size.

Achondroplasia is associated with macrocephaly and frontal bossing rather than microcephaly.

It is important to be able to identify the different physical features of congenital conditions for exam purposes and to aid diagnosis.

51
Q

What is the management of migraines?

A

ibuprofen is thought to be more effective than paracetamol for paediatric migraine
NICE CKS recommends that triptans may be used in children >= 12 years but follow-up is required
sumatriptan nasal spay (licensed) is the only triptan that has proven efficacy but it is poorly tolerated by young people who don’t like the taste in the back of the throat
it should be noted that oral triptans are not currently licensed in people < 18 years
side-effects of triptans include tingling, heat and heaviness/pressure sensations

the evidence base is limited and no clear consensus guidelines exist
the GOSH website states: ‘in practice, pizotifen and propranolol should be used as first line preventatives in children. Second line preventatives are valproate, topiramate and amitryptiline’

52
Q

What does neonatal sepsis usually present with?

A

With neonatal sepsis, by far the most common presentation is that of respiratory distress (approximately 85% of cases) - grunting, nasal flaring, tachypnoea and the use of accessory respiratory muscles.

The other options may all be present, but are less common - jaundice is seen in 35%, poor feeding in 30%, seizures in 35% and apnoea in 40%.

53
Q

What is roseola infantum?

A

Roseola infantum (also known as exanthem subitum, occasionally sixth disease) is a common disease of infancy caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). It has an incubation period of 5-15 days and typically affects children aged 6 months to 2 years.

54
Q

What is the presentation of fragile X?

A
learning difficulties
large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate
macroorchidism
hypotonia
autism is more common
mitral valve prolapse
55
Q

How do you investigate for cows milk protein allergy?

A

skin prick/patch testing

total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein

56
Q

What is osgood schlatters?

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease (tibial apophysitis) is a type of osteochondrosis characterised by inflammation at the tibial tuberosity. It is a traction apophysitis thought to be caused by repeated avulsion of the apophysis into which the patellar tendon is inserted

57
Q

What are the causes of prolonged jaundice?

A
biliary atresia
hypothyroidism
galactosaemia
urinary tract infection
breast milk jaundice
congenital infections e.g. CMV, toxoplasmosis
58
Q

What is androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition due to end-organ resistance to testosterone causing genotypically male children (46XY) to have a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome

59
Q

How does androgen insensitivity syndrome present?

A

‘primary amenorrhoea’
undescended testes causing groin swellings
breast development may occur as a result of conversion of testosterone to oestradiol

60
Q

How do you diagnose androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal 46XY genotype

61
Q

How do you treat androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A
counselling - raise child as female
bilateral orchidectomy (increased risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes)
oestrogen therapy
62
Q

A 2-month-old infant was brought into the emergency department two days ago with a purpuric rash, fever, vomiting, and reduced wet nappies. In the department, he had an episode of seizure activity which self-resolved spontaneously. He was admitted and was investigated for meningitis. Lumbar puncture was performed and a non-turbid sample was sent to the laboratory which showed increased protein levels, raised white cells, and a gram positive organism.

A

IV cefotaxime and IV amoxicillin <3 months
IV cefotaxime or IV ceftriaxone >3 months
You would give dexamethasone as well if the child was older than 3 months!

63
Q

In terms of meningitis, when you you not do a lumbar puncture?

A
Contraindication to lumbar puncture (any signs of raised ICP)
focal neurological signs
papilloedema
significant bulging of the fontanelle
disseminated intravascular coagulation
signs of cerebral herniation

For patients with meningococcal septicaemia a lumbar puncture is contraindicated - blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained.

Management

64
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used in people who have been in contact with those with meningitis, what should you give?

A

ciprofloxacin

65
Q

A 5-day-old baby has been having noisy breathing since birth. An astute junior doctor recognises that the noise is on inspiration. What is the most common cause of stridor in a neonate?

A

Laryngomalacia

66
Q

What are the causes of stridor in children?

A

Laryngomalacia
Epiglottitis
Croup
Inhaled foreign body

67
Q

What are the acyanotic heart conditions?

A
ventricular septal defects (VSD) - most common, accounts for 30%
atrial septal defect (ASD)
patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
coarctation of the aorta
aortic valve stenosis
68
Q

What are the cyanotic heart conditions?

A

tetralogy of Fallot
transposition of the great arteries (TGA)
tricuspid atresia

69
Q

What is wilms tumour?

A

Most common kidney tumour in children

tumour of the metanephric blastemal cells (the cells involved in kidney development)

70
Q

What is wilms tumour caused by?

A

mutation in genes responsible for the development of the kidneys- WT1

71
Q

What are the features of wilms?

A

abdominal mass (most common presenting feature)
painless haematuria
flank pain
other features: anorexia, fever
unilateral in 95% of cases
metastases are found in 20% of patients (most commonly lung)

72
Q

What is the management of wilms?

A

nephrectomy
chemotherapy
radiotherapy if advanced disease
prognosis: good, 80% cure rate