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Final year > Paediatrics > Flashcards

Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Name 5 signs/symptoms of anaphylaxis.

A 
SOB
wheeze/stridor
hives/urticaria/wheal
GI symptoms
lightheadedness/LOC
angioedema 
swelling of lips/tongue/throat
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2
Q

what enzyme must you test 3 times to ensure it is anaphylaxis?

A

mast cell tryptase

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3
Q

Name 3 drugs used in anaphylaxis.

A

adrenaline IM
chlorphenamine (antihistamine)
hydrocortisone
salbutamol

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4
Q

Name 5 causes of altered consciousness.

A 
FB
head injury
toxins
electrolyte disturbance
seizures
infection 
tumour
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5
Q

Name 3 features of raised ICP

A 
LOC
vomiting
abnormal resp pattern
HTN and bradycardia (cushings reflex)
bulging fontanelle 
unequal/unreactive pupils
papilloedema
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6
Q

name 3 CI of an LP.

A 
raised ICP
bleeding tendency
focal neurology
reduced consciousness (i.e. low GCS)
shock
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7
Q

What is the last drug of choice in status epilepticus after midazolam and lorazepam have been given?

A

IV pheytoin

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8
Q

Name 3 causes of status epilepticus.

A

epilepsy
fever
head trauma
CNS infection

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9
Q

Name 6 features of meningitis.

A 
brudzinskis (neck flexion causing flexion of lower limb)
kernigs (supine with hip flexed-cannot extend knee)
fever
headache
vomiting
photophobia
neck stiffness
pain
petechial rash
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10
Q

What ix would you do if you suspect meningitis?

A

LP
FBC, U&E, co-ag screen, LFT, clotting, glucose, CRP, PCR
nasal wabs

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11
Q

Name 3 meds used in mx of meningitis.

A

IV ceftriaxone
dexamethasone
IV cefotaxime+amoxicillin

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12
Q

Name 3 long term comps of meningitis.

A

hearing loss
epilepsy
cognitive defecit

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13
Q

Name the triad of symptoms seen in encephalitis.

A

headache
altered mental state
fever
seizures

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14
Q

What is the rx of choice in encephalitis?

A

IV aciclovir

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15
Q

In paeds sepsis, if normal physiological parameters not restored after 2 500ml boluses, what should you give?

A

adrenaline

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16
Q

Name 8 causes of collapse.

A 
hypoglycaemia
breath holding
vasovagal/situational syncope
arrhythmia
carotid sinus hypersensitivity
drugs
hypovolaemia 
heart condition (HOCM, stenosis)
seizure
head injury
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17
Q

How do kids present with congenital heart defects? 3 words

A

failure to thrive

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18
Q

Name 3 RF if congenital heart disease in child.

A 
smoking
alcohol
Downs (genetic)
FH
toxins
infection
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19
Q

How do you treat HF in child?

A

correct defect causing it

diuretics

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20
Q

Where do you hear a VSD murmur and what kind of murmur is it?

A

lower left sternal edge

pansystolic murmur

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21
Q

What is the mx of coarctation of aorta? When is it most dangerous in child?

A

balloon catheter dilation

worse when occurs proximal to ductus arteriosus

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22
Q

Describe the murmur of patent DA.

A

continuous machinery murmur

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23
Q

What med is used to promote closure of patent DA?

A

indomethacin

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24
Q

In tetralogy of fallot, which defect determines the degree of cyanosis?

A

pulm stenosis

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25
Q

How do infants with tetralogy of fallot present?

A 
cyanosis and clubbing
HF and failure to thrive
exertional dyspnoea 
boot shaped heart on CXR
ejection systolic murmur due to pulm stenosis
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26
Q

Name 2 mx options in tetralogy of fallot.

A

surgery

prostaglandins (ensures patency of DA so blood can become oxygenated by lungs)

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27
Q

Which heart defect is not compatible with life and what 3 things need to be present to reduce effects of this condition?

A

transposition of great arteries

need ASD, VSD or PDA

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28
Q

Which heart condition requires palliative or heart transplant as the treatment due to sx such as cyanosis and collapse soon after being born?

A

hypoplastic left heart

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29
Q

What heart condition is most likely to occur with lithium exposure in utero?

A

ebsteins anomaly (low tricuspid=big RA, small RV)

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30
Q

How do you treat eisenmengers syndrome?

A

heart lung transplant

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31
Q

What complication of a heart defect may cause haemoptysis and embolus formation?

A

eisenmenger syndrome

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32
Q

Which genetic condition is associated with:

a) VSD (3)
b) Aortic stenosis (1)
c) ASD (1)
d) Pulm stenosis (1)
e) CoA (1)

A

a) Patau (13), Edwards (18), Downs (21)
b) Williams
c) Downs
d) Noonans
e) Turners

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33
Q

Name 3 features of innocent murmurs

A

Systolic, soft, short, positional, no radiation

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34
Q

Which 3 conditions require R to L flow through DA?

A

hypoplastic left heart
aortic stenosis
CoA

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35
Q

Which 3 conditions require L to R flow through DA?

A

pulm stenosis
tricuspid atresia
pulm atresia

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36
Q

What is total anomolous pulm venous return?

A

pulm a drain into RA instead of LA!! bonkers

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37
Q

Name some signs and sx of respiratory distress.

A 
Use of accesory muscles
tachypnoea
recession
nasal flaring
grunting
head bobbing 
tripoding 
cyanosis
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38
Q

Name 4 causes of wheeze.

A

asthma
bronchiolitis
FB
viral wheeze

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39
Q

Name 4 causes of stridor.

A 
FB
croup
epiglottitis 
peritonsillar abscess
laryngomalacia 
vocal cord dysfunction
anaphylaxis
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40
Q

Name 2 conditions worse on lying down.

A

GORD

Post nasal drip

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41
Q

Name 3 cough red flags.

A

haemoptysis
failure to thrive
weight loss
sudden

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42
Q

Name 2 symptoms seen in OSA. Name 3 causes. Name 3 treatments.

A

snoring, grumpy, dry cracked lips/mouth, sleep disturbance, ENT infection
Adenotonsillar hypertrophy, obesity, craniofacial abnormality
Weight loss, removal of adenoids, CPAP

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43
Q

Name 2 features seen in a newborn with CF.

A

meconium ileus

failure to thrive

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44
Q

Why might you be able to feel a RIF mass in CF? Explain.

A

Stuck faeces at ileocaecal junction

due to lack of pancreatic enzymes, thick mucous and reduced chloride secretion

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45
Q

Why do children present with recurrent chest infections in CF?

A

thickened stagnant mucous, bacterial colonisation

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46
Q

What is the lung function pattern in CF?

A

obstructive

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47
Q

How does CF affect the pancreas?

A

can cause acute and chronic pancreatitis and diabetes due to lack of insulin
this is all due to mucus plugging causing local inflammation within the pancreas

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48
Q

What resp condition can occur from recurrent bact infection?

A

bronchiectasis

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49
Q

Name 3 non resp/GI comps of CF.

A

male infertility
finger clubbing
nasal polyps
allergic pulm aspergillosis

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50
Q

What enzyme is being looked for in CF testing in newborn? What is the sweat test looking for?

A

immunoreactive trypsinogen

high levels of Cl-

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51
Q

Name 3 mx strategies for CF.

A

Resp: chest physio, mucolytics, inhalers, lung transplant
Pancreas: replace enzyme (creon), vits and inc calorie intake

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52
Q

Name 2 sx that require step up in mx of asthma.

A

use of inhaler >3x a week

nocturnal symptoms

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53
Q

Name the 6 steps of paeds asthma mx.

A 
SABA
SABA+ICS
ICS+LTRA
ICS+LABA
MART (ICS+LABA in one)
MART with inc ICS dose
Refer
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54
Q

Name 2 common bacterial and 2 common viral causes of pneumonia.

A

Bact-strep pneumonia, mycoplasma

Viral-RSV, influenza

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55
Q

Name 3 features seen on examination of pneumonia.

A 
sats low
high fever
dullness on percussion
inc RR
bronchial breathing
crackles
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56
Q

Name 3 mx of pneumonia.

A

alternate paracetemol and ibuprofen
good fluid intake
Abx- amoxicillin

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57
Q

Name 4 comps of pneumonia.

A

pleural effusion
empyema
abscess
sepsis

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58
Q

Name 4 sx of bronchiolitis. By which age do most children have it by?

A 
coryzal sx
cough
wheeze/crackles
tachypnoea
recession

most have by 2 years old

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59
Q

What is bronchiolitis caused by?

A

RSV

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60
Q

How do you treat bronchiolitis:

a) at home
b) in hospital
c) high risk pts

A

a) fluids, meds to reduce temp, feeding
b) oxygen, fluids, NG tube, antivirals (ribavirin)
c) palivizumab

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61
Q

What is a viral wheeze? How do you treat?

A

wheeze caused by viral URTI

salb through spacer

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62
Q

Which virus causes most presentations of croup?

A

parainfluenza virus

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63
Q

Name 3 features of croup.

A

barking cough
fever
stridor
resp distress

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64
Q

Name 4 mx steps of croup.

A

paracetamol and ibuprofen
dexamethasone
o2 and adrenaline nebs if dex unsuccessful

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65
Q

Name 4 ddx of croup.

A

epiglottitis
FB
quinsy
anaphylaxis

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66
Q

Name 3 features of epiglottitis.

A 
hot potato voice
high fever
drooling of saliva/cant swallow
extreme stridor
Appear v unwell
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67
Q

Name 2 mx options of epiglottitis

A

intubation/tracheostomy

oral/IV abx

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68
Q

Name 2 congenital throat problems that may compromise breathing.

A

laryngomalacia

subglottic stenosis

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69
Q

What is the most common cause of the common cold?

A

rhinovirus

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70
Q

Name 3 features of common cold.

A

post nasal drip
coughing
sneezing
blocked nose

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71
Q

How do you treat common cold?

A

honey and lemon
fluids
ibuprofen and paracetamol

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72
Q

Name a common viral cause of tonsillitis/pharyngitis.

A

EBV

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73
Q

Name 3 features of tonsillitis/pharyngitis.

A 
sore throat
difficulty swallowing
lymphadenopathy
fever
headache
abdo pain
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74
Q

How do you treat tonsillitis/pharyngitis?

A

usually self limiting

if bacterial: phenoxymethylpenicillin

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75
Q

Name 3 comps of tonsillitis/pharyngitis.

A

otitis media
rheumatic fever
quinsy

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76
Q

Name 2 bacterial causes of otitis media.

A

H influenza

Strep pneumoniae

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77
Q

Name 3 features of otitis media.

A

hearing loss
fever
ear pain

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78
Q

Explain what you would see on otoscopy with otitis media.

A

red inflamed TM with loss of light reflex

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79
Q

If otitis media unresolving after 4 days, what abx should be given?

A

amoxicillin

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80
Q

Name 4 comps of otitis media.

A

TM perforation
mastoiditis
meningitis
facial nerve palsy

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81
Q

Name 3 features of acute sinusitis.

A

unresolving cold
facial pain/ache
nasal speech
mouth breathing

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82
Q

Name 2 common bacterial causes of acute sinusitis.

A

strep pneum

H Influenza

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83
Q

If sinusitis unresolved after 5 days, what abx can you give?

A

amoxicillin

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84
Q

Name 2 comps of sinusitis.

A

orbital cellulitis

meningitis

85
Q

Name 4 features of centor/fever pain criteria.

A

fever
tonsillar exudate
lymphadenopathy
no cough

86
Q

What condition can cause glue ear?

A

adenoid hypertrophy-blocks ET

87
Q

Which condition caused by bordatella pertussis is a notifiable disease?

A

whooping cough (levels reduced due to vaccine)

88
Q

Name 3 sx of whooping cough.

A

hacking cough
vomiting
choking/gasping/SOB

89
Q

How do you detect whooping cough?

A

nasopharyngeal aspirate/swab

90
Q

How do you treat?

A

supportive+abx azithromycin

91
Q

Name 3 comps of whooping cough.

A

seizures
pneumonia
conjunctival haemorrhage

92
Q

What are children at risk of if given aspirin?

A

reyes syndrome

93
Q

Name:

a) 4 causes of vomiting in children
b) 3 causes of vomiting in infant/toddler

A

a) gastroenteritis, viral infection, constipation, appendicitis
b) intusucception, pyloric stenosis, malrotation/volvulus

beware of cranial signs, urinary or FB signs

94
Q

What is the commonest cause of diarrhoea in children?

A

viral infection

95
Q

What antibodies are you testing for in coeliac?

A

TTG-IgA THEN

endomysial antibodies

96
Q

What protein is tested for to detect IBD?

A

faecal calprotectin

97
Q

A 2 y/o child with diarrhoea and NO other symptoms-Dx?

A

toddlers diarrhoea-support with high fat foods, reduced milk and sugar

98
Q

Name 3 causes of constipation in first few weeks of life.

A 
hirshprungs disease
anorectal malformation
spinal
thyroid
cows milk allergy
99
Q

Name the order of laxative agents given in constipation.

A
  1. Movicol (osmotic)
  2. Senna (stimulant)
  3. Lactulose (osmotic)
100
Q

Name 3 causes of acute abdo pain:

a) medical cause
b) surgical cause
c) other

A

a) UTI, constipation, gastroenteritis
b) intusucception, volvulus, hirschprungs, hernia, appendicitis, torsion
c) DKA, IBD, mesenteric lymphadenitis

101
Q

Name 4 causes of chronic abdo pain.

A

abdo migraine
post prandial pain syndrome
IBS
epigastric pain syndrome

102
Q

What medication is used in IBS and what does it do?

A

mebevarine-prevents bloating and crampy pain as an antispasmodic

103
Q

What do you see on USS of intussusception?

A

target sign

104
Q

Name 3 features of intussusception.

A

Pallor, shock, peritonitic bowel obstruction
sausage shaped mass felt on palpation
bilious vomiting

105
Q

Name 3 mx steps of intussusception.

A

1) support: IV fluids, analgesia, NG tube, abx
2) Rectal air insufflation
3) If air unsuccessful, then surgery

106
Q

How does hirschprungs disease present?

A

bowel obstruction-no peristalsis, abdo distension. vomiting, bloody stools
First 24hrs of life-failure to pass meconium

107
Q

Name 2 groups likely to be affected by hirschprungs.

A

familial

downs pts

108
Q

How do you ix for hirschprungs? How do you rx?

A

biopsy suspected bowel

remove surgically

109
Q

How do you treat GORD?

A
  1. thickened feeds, sit infant upright, small frequent feeds, no food before sleeping
  2. Gaviscon (alginate prep), omeprazole, ranitidine
  3. Surgery-nissen fundoplication
110
Q

what is dysentry?

A

infection of intestines leading to watery diarrhoea with blood and pus in faeces

111
Q

What can you feel on palpation in pyloric stenosis?

A

olive shaped mass of pylorus upper right of umbilicus

112
Q

Name 3 steps in managing pyloric stenosis.

A
  1. rehydrate IV fluids, NG tube to remove stomach contents

2. ramstedts pyloromyotomy

113
Q

Name 3 features of malrotation+volvulus.

A

shock
bile stained vomit
abdo distention and tenderness

114
Q

Name sign seen on AXR in volvulus.

A

double bubble (one from duodenum and one from stomach)

115
Q

Name 2 signs seen on contrast AXR in volvulus.

A 
corkscrew duodenum
birds peak (narrowing seen from blockage)
116
Q

What is the name of the definitive treatment used in volvulus if bowel is still viable? What is done if it is not?

A

a) Ladd’s procedure (snip through ladds bands to release malrotation
b) remove bowel and put on permanent IV feeds

117
Q

How does a neonate present who has a diaphragmatic hernia?

A

resp distress

118
Q

Name 3 comps of diaphragmatic hernia.

A

chronic lung disease
GORD
brain injury due to hypoxia

119
Q

A lack of fusion of what causes a scrotal hernia?

A

processus vaginalis

120
Q

When does an inguinal hernia require urgent surgery?

A

if presents less than a year of age

121
Q

Name 3 complications of appendicitis.

A

abscess
perforation
peritonitis

122
Q

Name 2 signs on examination in a pt with appendicitis.

A

rebound tenderness
rosvings sign +ve
psoas sign (flexion

123
Q

what does rebound tenderness indicate?

A

perotinitic involvement and often peritonitis

124
Q

what 2 things may psoas sign +ve indicate?

A

appendicitis

psoas abscess

125
Q

Name 3 causes of appendicitis.

A

overgrowth of gut bacteria
blockage of lumen
stasis

126
Q

Where is mcburneys point?

A

2/3 from umbilicus to ASIS

127
Q

Name 3 symptoms of colic.

A 
drawing up of knees
normal weight gain
inconsollable high pitched crying
3hrs crying
3days a week
3week
128
Q

How much fluid /kg should be given to a child who is dehydrated?

A

20ml/kg

129
Q

Name 3 indications for a CT head in head injury.

A 
LOC for>5mins
amnesia>5mins
drowsiness/vomiting
NAI
Seizure
low GCS
Signs of basal skull
focal neuro deficit
130
Q

which kind of haemorrhage affects middle meningeal a.?

A

extradural

131
Q

Which brain haemorrhage usually occurs in trauma with acute onset? What kind of interval occurs?

A 
extradural
lucid interval (regain consciousness before losing it again)
132
Q

Name 3 comps of brain injury.

A

infection
seizure
raised ICP

133
Q

How many headache attacks are needed before a child is diagnosed with migraines?

A

5

134
Q

Name some sx of childhood migraine.

A

tiredness
abdo pain
vomiting
visual aura

135
Q

Name 3 non pharma and 3 pharma treatments for migraine.

A

Non- trigger diary, sleep, diet

Pharm- ibuprofen, sumatriptan, propranolol

136
Q

Name 3 presentations after birth in a baby with cerebral palsy.

A 
low APGAR score
floppy
delayed milestones
hand preference before age of 1
toe walking
feeding difficulty
137
Q

Name 3 rx for cerebral palsy.

A

braces
surgery-cut nerves, straighten bones
OT, PT
botox injections

138
Q

If unsure whether pt has allergy, what test can be done?

A

skin prick

139
Q

Name a commonly used antihistamine in allergy.

A

cetirizine

140
Q

How do you treat cows milk protein allergy?

A

have hydrolysed formula then cows milk free diet

141
Q

Name the abx used in bact conjunctivitis.

A

chloramphenicol eye drops

142
Q

What colour are the plaques in impetigo?

A

honey colour

143
Q

Name 1 comp of impetigo.

A

cellulitis

144
Q

What bacteria is impetigo caused by (name 2)? WHat abx is used to treat? Name 3 other mx strategies.

A

S. aureus and strep pyogenes
Fusidic acid topical

Keep clean with soap and water, dont share towels, avoid school until lesions crusted over or on abx

145
Q

What virus is chicken pox caused by?

A

varicella zoster

146
Q

Name 3 features of chicken pox.

A

spread by respiratory route
Fever for up 2 4 days
then maculopapular>vesicular rash (starts on head and trunk)

147
Q

Name 3 comps of chicken pox.

A

pneumonia
cellulitis
encephalitis

148
Q

What do you give to:

a) neonate/immunocompromised who has been exposed to chicken pox
b) has chicken pox

A

a) VZIM (varicella zoster immunoglobulin)

b) aciclovir

149
Q

What virus causes koplik spots to form and what are they?

A

measles

white spots on gums in mouth

150
Q

Is measles a notifiable or non notifiable disease?

A

notifiable

151
Q

Which viral rash do you get conjunctivitis in?

A

measles

152
Q

Where do you get lymphadenopathy in rubella?

A

sub occipital

post auricular

153
Q

What do you call the rash seen in erythema infectiosum/fifth disease? What virus is it caused by?

A

slapped cheek

parvovirus B19

154
Q

What virus causes roseola infantum? What common feature occurs with this disease?

A

human herpes virus 6

febrile convulsions

155
Q

How do you describe the rash seen in scarlet fever? How do you describe the tongue? What areas of body are spared by rash?

A

sandpaper rash
strawberry tongue

palms face and soles of feet

156
Q

What abx is given in scarlet fever?

A

penicillin

157
Q

What disease does the virus coxsackie A16 cause?

A

hand foot and mouth disease

158
Q

Name 4 features of orbital cellulitis that distinguishes it from preseptal/periorbital cellulitis.

A

proptosis
opthalmoplegia
blurred vision and dec acuity
diplopia

159
Q

Name the abx for:
a) periorbital
b) orbital
cellulitis

A

a) oral co amoxiclav

b) IV cefotaxime/flucloxicillin

160
Q

What ix is done in orbital cellulitis?

A

CT of face

161
Q

Which disease presents with:

  • extremely high fever that doesn’t go away
  • conjunctival redness
  • strawberry tongue
  • trunk rash with red soles and palms
  • cervical lymphadenopathy
A

kawasaki disease

162
Q

What ix can be done in those <2y/o to detect for vesicoureteric reflex.

A

micturating cystourethrogram

163
Q

Name 3 mx strategies of vesicoureteric reflux.

A

self resolving so give prophylactic abx
Surgery:
-make a valve
-reposition ureters

164
Q

By which age do most children achieve dryness and stop bed wetting?

A

3-4years old

165
Q

Name 4 mx steps in enuresis.

A
  1. Correct fluid intake, toilet regularly, reward for using toilet before bed
  2. Enuresis alarm
  3. Desmopressin
  4. Refer to specialist
166
Q 
What must you do at:
a) 3months
b) 6months
c) 1year
with undescended testes
A

a) referral
b) seen by surgeon
c) surgery performed

167
Q

What is the name of the surgery that moves a testicle to the correct location, in the scrotum?

A

orchidopexy

168
Q

Name 3 ix done in haematuria.

A 
urine dip
cystoscopy
FBC-eGFR, clotting and PCR
Abdo exam for masses
BP
USS
169
Q

Name 3 features of HSP. How do you rx?

A 
follows infection or vaccine:
p/w 
-fever
-joint pain
-rash
-renal involvement

self limiting so supportive

170
Q

why are you at risk of thromboembolism in nephrotic syndrome?

A

lipid and AT3 usually bound to albumin so if albumin lost to urine, then more free levels of antithrombin 3 in blood

171
Q

When do children get ITP?

A

usually post viral/vaccines and is acute and self resolving

172
Q

if symptomatic (e.g. purpura) in ITP, with low platelet count, what 2 meds can be given?

A

corticosteroids-pred
IVIG (stops destruction of platelets)

If unsuccessful, splenectomy/platelet infusion

173
Q

What condition presents with small stature,small head and fontal bossing?

A

fanconi syndrome

174
Q

Name 4 RF for DDH.

A 
female
breech
high birth weight
FH
first born
175
Q

Name 2 tests used to detect DDH and explain each.

A

Barlow-attempt to dislocate hip (adduct and push posterior)

ortalani-relocate hip (abduct and pull anterior)

176
Q

What ix is done if DDH is suspected

A

USS

x ray if over 4.5months

177
Q

If >6weeks but <5months with DDH, what mx can be done?

A

pavlik harness

if older, may need surgery

178
Q

Name 2 xray changes in perthes disease.

A

flattened femoral head

widening of joint space

179
Q

What mx options are there for perthes?

A

casts
braces
surgery

180
Q

What main ix can detect osteomyelitis? What is the main ix for septic arthritis?

A

bone culture/biopsy

aspiration of synovial fluid

181
Q

What is the mx of osteomyelitis?

A

surgical debridement

5weeks flucloxacillin

182
Q

What is the mx of septic arthritis?

A

surgical drainage+IV fluclox

183
Q

When do children most commonly get transient synovitis?

A

post viral infection

184
Q

What is the mx of trans synovitis?

A

nothing, self limiting after few weeks

185
Q

Which direction does a SUFE go?

A

post and inferior

186
Q

Name 4 causes of rickets.

A

lack of absorption (coeliac, IBD)
renal prob
liver prob
lack of dietary intake

187
Q

Name 2 mx meds for rickets.

A

calciferol

calcium supplements

188
Q

Name 3 manifestations of downs.

A 
cardiac defects
hypothyroidism
dislocations
duodenal atresia
learning difficulty/developmental delay
resp infection
189
Q

What chromosome abnormality occurs in turners?

A

lack of x chromosome so 45X instead of 46XX

190
Q

Name 3 manifestations of turners.

A

ovarian failure
horseshoe kidney
CoA
AI disease (thyroid, coeliac, IBD)

191
Q

Name 3 comps of having duchennes muscular dystrophy.

A

resp difficulty-cannot breathe well, cannot couhg leading to infection
cardiac-congestive failure and arrhythmia
GI-pseudoobstruction

tend to end up in wheelchair-shortened life expectancy

192
Q

What can carbmizole use during pregnancy lead to?

A

transient hypothyroidism

193
Q

Name 5 complications of prematurity.

A 
intraventricualr haemorrhage 
retinopathy of prematurity
jaundice
iron deficiency anaemia
infection
NEC
resp-pneumothorax, RDS
PDA
hypothermia
hypoglycaemia/calcemia
194
Q

What is RDS due to a lack of?

A

surfactant

195
Q

Name 3 mx steps of RDS.

A

Oxygen and ventilate with ET tube
Give surfactant through tube
Give mother dexamethasone 48hrs before delivery

196
Q

Name 3 features of nec.

A

abdo distention
bilious vomiting
feeding difficulty
bloody stools

197
Q

Name 3 ddx of NEC.

A

intussusception
malrotation/volvulus
haemolytic disease
meconium ileus (usually due to CF)

198
Q

Name 3 mx steps of NEC.

A

NG tube
IV fluids and TPN
Abx (gent+metro)

199
Q

Name 3 comps of NEC.

A

sepsis
perforation
DIC
short bowel syndrome

200
Q

What causes retinopathy of premuturity?

A

reoxygenation after hypoxia-proliferation of vessels

201
Q

Name a comp of retinopathy of prematurity.

A

blindness

retinal detachment

202
Q

Name mx option of retinopathy of prematurity.

A

laser photocoagulation

203
Q

Name 2 causes of jaundice when it occurs:

a) <2 days
b) 2-14days
c) >14 days

A

a) haemolytic (G6PD, rhesus HDN, spherocytosis), infection
b) physiological-breast milk jaundice, immature liver causing slow breakdown of RBC
c) cong hypothyroidism, biliary atresia, galactosaemia,

204
Q

Name 2 rx of jaundice.

A

phototherapy

or transfusion if severe

205
Q

Name serious comp of jaundice-give specific name.

A

kernicterus-bilirubin crosses BBB causing coma, seizure, neurological signs

206
Q

Name 4 RF of GBS.

A

maternal pyrexia
prev baby had it
PROM
prematurity

207
Q

What serious infection in mother can cause neonatal seizures, critical illness and meningoencephalitis? What is the treatment?

A 
herpes simplex (genital herpes)
IV aciclovir
208
Q

What is the first thing you do in paediatric BLS?

A

5 rescue breaths

Final year (8 decks)

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