Paediatrics Flashcards
What is the medical term for croup?
Laryngotracheobronchitis
What is the typical presentation and clinical course of croup?
1 - 2 days of coryza.On the 2nd or 3rd night / early morning, awake with a barking cough.Stridor might develop after that.Barking cough / stridor only lasts 2-3 days.Viral symptoms last 7 days
What is the typical microorganism which causes croup?
Parainfluenza virus
What is the management of croup?
- Basics - minimal handling. Supplemental oxygen or respiratory support if required in severe cases.2. Place and person - admit to hospital if worried about increased WOB or hypoxia.3. Investigations and definitive diagnosis - clinical diagnosis4. Management - oral prednisolone (1mg/kg), oral dexamethasone (0.15 - 0.6 mg/kg), IV dexamethasone (0.2mg/kg), nebulised adrenaline (1:1000), ETT5. Long term
What are the two main types of croup?
Acute viral croup or recurrent spasmodic croup
What are the symptoms of epiglottis?
The four DsDysphagiaDyphoniaDroolingDyspnoea
What is the most common microorganism which causes epiglottis?
H. influenzae B
What is the most common microorganism which causes bacterial tracheitis?
Staphylococcus aureus (now more common than epilglottitis due to Hib vaccine)
what is the dosage of ipatropium bromide given in moderate / severe acute exacerbations of asthma?
6 yo give 8 puffs with salbutamol burst therapy (every 20 minutes for one hour)
What are the causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease?
12345TTruncus arteriosusTransposition of the Great ArteriesTricuspid / Pulmonary AtresiaTetralogy of FallotTotal anomolous pulmonary venous return
What are the two classes of acyanotic congenital heart disease?
Obstructive and L-R shunt
What are the causes of obstructive heart disease?
Hypoplastic L heart syndromeASCoarctation of the aortaInterruption of the aortic arch
As a general rule, which group of congenital heart defects are ALWAYS duct dependent?How is this treated in the early stages?
Obstructive congenital heart defects (hypoplastic L heart syndrome, AS, interruption of the aortic arch and aortic coarctation).They are treated by PGE1 in the short term, to keep the duct open
As a general rule, which group of congenital heart defects are USUALLY duct dependent?Is it harmful to treat with PGE1, while still in the diagnostic process?
R–>L shunts (1T2T3T4T5T) but this time you depend on the duct being open for blood to flow into the PULMONARY circulation
How and when do obstructive congenital heart defects present?
A shocked neonate. Often on D2 of life when PDA closes.Present as a dusky / grey coloured neonate with weak / absent pulses and a low BP, with a metabolic acidosis.
What are the defects of tetralogy of fallot?
- PULMONARY STENOSIS2. RVH3. VSD4. Overriding aortic arch
When does tetralogy of fallot tend to present and how?
6-12 months of life.”Tet spells” or “hypoxic spells” - cyanosis or LOC / going floppy on feeding, crying or exertion
What is the surgical correction of transposition of the great arteries?
balloon atrial septotomy
What is the surgical correction of hypoplastic L heart syndrome?
Norwood operation
Which two congenital heart defects are associated with DiGeorge syndrome? Which chromosomal abnormality is this and what are the other associated features?
TOF and transpos are both associated with microdeletion of the long arm of chromosome 22.The other associated features are ‘CATCH 22’Cardiac (trasnpos, TOF)Abnormal (long) faciesThymic hypoplasiaCleft palateHypocalcaemia / hypoparathyroidism
With which CHD is Turner’s syndrome associated?
Aortic coarctation
Compare the timing of onset of transposition of the great arteries and TOF?
Transpos always presents as cyanosis in the newborn period. TOF presents 6-12 months of life as cyanosis.
What is the most common cause of ACQUIRED heart disease in paediatrics?
Kawasaki disease
What are the diagnostic features of Kawasaki disease?
Fever > 5 days PLUS at least 4/5 other diagnostic features.NB: can have ATYPICAL Kawasaki disease when there is 5 days (usually >38 degrees)Lymphadenopthy (Csp > 1.5cm)Atypical Kawasaki Disease (usually with evidence of coronary Artery Aneurysm)Mouth (strawberry lips and tongue)Eyes (bilateral non-purulent exudate) and Extermities (erythematous, oedematous, desquamation)Rash (polymorphous rash)
What is the treatment of Kawasaki disease
Intravenous immunoglobulin (2 g/kg over 10 hours; preferably within the first 10 days of the illness.)Aspirin 3 - 5 mg/kg once a day for at least 6 to 8 weeks
What should be organised before a patient treated for Kawasaki disease is discharged?
Follow-up echocardiogram in 6-8 weeks
Kawasaki disease is primarily a clincial diagnosis, but what Ix would you perform (and what might you expect to see)?
Bedside testsECG - check for ischaemia / infarctionUrine dipstick - negativeLaboratory TestsFBE - neutrophilia, anaemia, thrombocytosisESR/CRP - markedly raisedLFTs - ALT raisedImagingEchocardiogram
What are the common and less common presentations of HSP?
Common- purpuric rash over legs and buttocks- migrating arthlagia and swelling- abdominal painLess common- HSP nephritis (HT, proteinuria, haematuria)- intussuception- malaena and haematemesis- scrotal swelling
Describe the management of HSP
Basics- analgaesia for joint pain (paracetamol not NSAIDs)- analgaesia for abdo pain (steroids have evidence)Place & Person- Referral to outpatient paeditrician for ongoing observationDefinitive management- Education & supportive carePrevention- continue to review for 6 months (including BP and urine dipstick)- steroids are NOT indicated for nephritis prophylaxis
What are the DDx for brusing in children?
‘SHIELD’Sepsis (meningoccoal)HSP / HUS / HaemophiliaITPEvents (Trauma or non-accidental injury)LeukaemiaDIC (usually in the setting of severe illness)
How do you diagnose ITP?
An isolated thrombocytpoaenia (platelet count of
What is the management of ITP?
Basics- stop any active bleedingPlace and Person- refer to paediatric haematologyInvestigations and confirm diagnosis- FBE and blood film to confirm isolated thrombocytopaenia- BMAT if unsure / need to rule out leuakaemiaConservative Management- avoid contact sports / high-risk activities- monitor menstural bleeding if post-pubertal female- avoid NSAIDs and 5-ASA- ongoing follow up and FBEDefinitive Management’- steroids (low or high dose)- IVIg
What is the most dangerous complication of ITP?
Intra-cranial haemorrhageAlthough the risk if
What infections are transmitted through the birth canal at delivery?
GBS
E. Coli
Listeria
Hep B
HIV
What congenital infections can be transmitted transplacentally?
TORCHSHPV
Toxoplasmosis
Other
Rubella
CMV
HSV
Syphillus (treponema pallidum)
Hep B
Parvovirus B19
Varicella zoster
What do the placentally transmitted congenital infections cause?
What is the management of placentally transmitted congenital infections?
Generally, the earlier in gestation the foetus congenitally acquires a TORCH infection, the higher the risk of severe congenital abnormalities and developmental delay.
A conversation is therefore usually had with mothers (especially in the first trimester) about the option of termination.
Some TORCH infections can be treated in the neonate, but for the majority of TORCH infections the treatment is supportive and includes only management of complications.
What screening should be offered/recommended to pregnant women for congenital infections?
All mums - SARaH
Syphillus (assays)
Asymptomatic bacteruria (mid stream urine culture, treat empirially to avoid pyelonephritis)
Rubella (anti-Rubella antibodies)
HIV (Western blot and ELISA, give anti-retrovirals to mum, deliver by C-section)
Hep B (HB-sAG, vaccinate and give IgG in delivery room)
GBS (after 37 weeks)
High risk mums - SARaH + 1G, 3T, 4C
Gonorrheoa
Trichomoniasis, Toxoplasmosis & Thyroid function
Chlamydia, Hepatitis C, CMV and cervical abnormalities (pap smear)
What are the effects of toxoplasmosis infection on a foetus?
If 1st trimester low risk of transmitting to foetus but high rate of severe complications
If 3rd trimester high risk of transmitting the infection but low rate of severe complications
Diffiuse calcifications throughout the brain visible on USS
Seizures
Plus the general effects of TORCHSHPV
- Anaemia
- Hepatosplenomegaly
- Symmetrical IUGR (microcephaly)
- Developmental delay
- Sensorineural deafness
- Visual problems
What effect does congenitally acquired Rubella have on a foetus?
Outcome depends on gestation age at which it was transmitted.
- congenital rubella syndrome (>90%)
- 12-18/40 –> sensorineural deafness (20%)
- >18/40 –> complications rare
What effect does congenitally acquired CMV have on the foetus?
Periventricular calcifications
Symmetrical IUGR with microcephaly
Developmental delay
Hepatospleenomegaly
Anemia
Sensorineural hearing loss
Visual problems
What is the clinical picture of a baby who has contracted syphillis?
Rhinitis develops at 1 week and worsens. Initially clear then progressively purulent and blood stained.
Neurosyphillis
Bone problems
Maculopapular rash
What is the clinical picture of a foetus that has contracted Parvovirus B19?
Severe anaemia –> high output cardiac failure –> hydrops foetalis
How do you approach the causes of neonatal sepsis?
EARLY
Vertical transmission –> GBS, E coli, Listeria
Risk factors
- Maternal infection: UTI, GBS+
- Previous child with GBS sepsis
- Prolonged rupture of membranes (>18h)
- Preterm labour
LATE >5 days = ACQUIRED AFTER BIRTH
Staphylococcus, streptococcus (plus above pathogens)
Risk factors
- NICU stay (just like ICU stay causes infections)
- Foreign bodies eg ETT, catheters
- Malformations
What is the management of neonatal sepsis?
What tests would you do at the first antenatal assessment?
Every visit
- BP
- Weight
- Urine dipstick
- Foetal auscultation (after 12weeks)
- Foetal movements (after 18 weeks)
- Fundal height measurement (after 20 weeks)
Because it’s the first visit
- LNMP for dating (+ 1 year, - 3 months, + 7 days)
- ABO, Rh, Rh antibody levels
- FBE to screen for anaemia
- EPNDS
- Routine torch screening –> SARaH
- Syphilis
- Asymptomatic bacteruria (MSU culture)
- Rubella
- HIV
- Hep B
-
If high risk, additional TORCH screening –> 1G, 3T, 4C
- Gonorrheoa
- Trichomoniasis, Toxoplasmosis & Thyroid function
- Hep C, chlamydia, CMV, cervical abnormalities (pap smear)
What are the diagnostic criteria for encopresis?
- at least 1 episode of faecal incontinence per week
- history of retentive posturing
- large and/or painful and/or hard bowel movements
- large faecal mass in rectum
What are the potential complications of GORD in infants?
oesophagitis
failure to thrive
aspiration
What is colic?
Crying is normal physiological behaviour in young infants. At 6 - 8 weeks age, a baby cries on average 2 - 3 per 24 hours. Excessive crying is defined as crying >3 hours/day for >3 days/week. This is often referred to as “colic”. However, many babies present with lesser amounts of crying, as the parents perceive it as excessive.
What symptoms would make you worry about GORD in a baby with GOR?
- Pronounced irritability with arching
- Refusal to feed / failure to thrive
- Feeding and behavioural problems
- Weight loss or crossing percentiles
- Haematemesis
- Chronic cough/wheeze
- apnoeas
What is the management of GORD in infants?
Non-invasive management
- Prone position after feeding (supervised)
- Milk thickening agents (eg. rice cereal) reduce the number of episoes of vomiting but not the total time of oesophageal acidity
- Don’t encourage parents to change formulas
- Never change a breastfed child to formula
Definitive management
PPIs relieve symptoms and assist mucosal healing
Omeprazole
Under 10kg: 5mg daily
10-20kg: 10mg daily
Over 20kg: 20 mg daily
Surgical
Failure of medical therapy or recurrent respiratory symptoms (aspiration) may necessitate Nissen fundoplication:
What are the most causes of “colic”/excess crying in an infant?
Most common - benign
- Tiredness
- Hunger - this is more likely if a mother reports:
- inadequate milk supply
- poor weight gain
- baby has frequent feeds (ie,
Also consider
- GORD
- Cows milk intolerance
- Check if vomiting, blood/mucus in diarrhoea, poor weight gain, family history in first degree relative, signs of atopy (eczema / wheezing), significant feeding problems
- Lactose intolerance (rare)
If Acute onset consider:
- UTI
- Otitis media
- Raised intracranial pressure
- Hair tourniquet of fingers / toes
- Corneal foreign body / abrasion
- Incarcerated inguinal hernia
What is the classic triad of intssusception?
colicky abdominal pain, currant jelly stool, palpable abdominal mass
Describe the management of suspected intussusception
What are the Ix for suspected intussception?
What are the risk factors for NEC?
Prematurity and low birth weight
Feeding (especially enteral/cow’s milk/early formula)
Infection/ sepsis
Bowel ischemia
Hypotension and congenital heart disease
Hypoxia/respiratory distress/ birth asphyxia
What is the relationship between gestational age and weight and NEC
The incidence of NEC is inversely proportional to birth weight. In general, the age of onset is inversely proportional to gestation; therefore smaller babies present later.
90% of babies with NEC are preterm.
What is the management of NEC
Basics
NBM (gut rest)
NGT (drainage)
Insert IV line for fluids and to take sample for FBE & blood cultures
Place and Person
Refer to paeds gastroenterology / surgery
Investigate and confirm diagnosis
AXR is gold standard
Rationalise ABx once cultures back
Definitive management
Empirical antibiotic therapy:
Metronidazole
Ampicillin
Gentamycin
Only in stage 3B disease:
Surgery to resect affected section with stoma diversion and abscess drainage if needed
What are the buzz words for pyloric stenosis?
Projectile, non-bilious vomiting
First born, Caucasian male with a positive family history
Hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis (also get hyponatraemia too, but not included in the buzz word)
When does pyloric stenosis generally present?
Usually between 2-6 weeks of life
What is the clinical picture o pyloric stenosis?
A sudden onset of vomiting between 2 and 6 weeks of life.
Before the onset of vomiting, these infants feed well and are thriving.
The infant then loses weight (or inadequately gains weight) and becomes dehydrated
Projectile, non bilious vomiting. May contain altered blood.
“Hungry vomiters” – vomit immediately after feeding, and then are hungry again
May be constipated (not absolute)
Examination
Palpable, mobile pyloric tumour in the midline of the epigastrium between the rectus abdominal muscles OR the right rectus and the liver edge (“olive”)
What do you assess to determine the hydration status of a baby?
Behaviour/demeanour
HR/BP
Cap refill (check centrally)
Sinking of the anterior fontanelle and eyes
Tear production/Urine output
Skin turgour
Mucus membranes
Weight loss
What are the Ix for suspected pyloric stenosis?
Usually a clinical diagnosis
Bedside
ABG –> hypochloremic, hyponatremic, hypokalaemic, metabolic alkalosis
BGL
Bloods and urine
FBE
UEC –> hydration
Coags
Imaging
Ultrasound
If very unsure you can do a barium meal (not usually needed)
What is the relevance of metabolic derangement in the surgical management of pyloric stenosis?
It is particularly important to fully correct serum bicarbonate before theatre because of the risk of hypoventilation/ apnoeas post-operatively in the setting of metabolic alkalosis.
What is the management of pyloric stenosis?
Medical (not surgical) emergency
Basics
IV access and fluid resusc if required and as directed by UEC/ABG results
NBM
NG tube if continuing to vomit
Place and person
Paediatric gastroenterology, admit
Definitive
Pyloromyotomy (Ramstedt operation).
What fluid and what rate would you use for bolus IV therapy in a child?
10-20ml/kg of normal (0.9%) saline, which may be repeated
How do you calculate maintenance fluid requirements in a child?
Baby has bilious vomiting, what is the diagnosis?
Malrotation + volvulus until proven otherwise!
What is the clinical presentation of malrotation and volvulus?
History
Presents day 1-3 of life (60–80% of all cases of malrotation present in the first month of life, mostly in the first week.)
Bilious vomiting (malrotation until proven otherwise!)
No dirty nappies once there is volvulus
Rectal bleeding (a late symptom/sign)
Abdominal pain
Examination
Abdominal distension (late sign)
Peritonism (late sign)
What imaging would you order for suspected malrotation/volvulus?
What would you expect to see?
AXR - non-specific, gas in bowel, can get “double bubble sign”
Barium swallow - corkscrew sign
USS - whirlpool sign
What is the management of malrotation/volvulus?
Basics
NBM
NGT – check aspirates for bile
Insert IV and commence fluids
Place and person
Admit and refer to paediatric surgeon
Ix
ABG
Septic screen
Blood group and hold
Definitive management
Urgent surgical correction with follow up
Ladd procedure: untwist counter-clockwise, divide Ladd’s band, widen mesentery attachment, appendicectomy, and replace the bowel in the right location.
Where there is necrotic bowel second laparotomy performed in 24-48hrs later to see if viable gut can be saved – resection
What are your differentials for vomiting in a paediatric case?
Gastro
FAMINE HIP GAIT
Neurological
Increased ICP
Infectious
Gastroenteritis
Meningitis
Pertussis (post tussive cough)
Endocrinological
DKA
Errors of Inborn Metabolism
Psychogenic / Behavioural
Overfeeding in infants
Bulaemia in adolescents
Pregnancy in adolescents
What are the GIT causes of vomiting in a paeds case?
FAMINEHIPGAIT
Name the condition, pathogen, age group and treatment of URTIs in kids
What can you do for supportive therapy in a child with a respiratory infection?
Oxygen therapy if hypoxic
Assisted ventilation if increased work of breathing
NG feeding if poor feeding
NG or IV fluids if dehydrated
What are the causes of stridor in a child?
ABCDEFGH
What is the management of a paediatric bowel obstruction?
Basics
DRSABCD
NBM
Place and person
Transport to surgical unit via NETS
Ix
ECG, ABG, BGL
FBE, UEC, LFTs, LDH, Coags, Group and hold
AXR, CT, USS
Definitive
-
Drip and suck-
- NBM and NG tube suction - relieves any respiratory distress from abdominal distension (may also be caused by vomit aspiration)
- Rapid IVF resuscitation with boluses of 10mL/kg given at 15 minute intervals if shocked otherwise give maintenance and mL by mL match for NGT losses.
- Glucose- monitor BSLs and glucose solution should be given with IVF (glucose stores low, no absorption –> anaerobic metabolism)
- Correct acidosis
- correction of fluid loss, hypothermia and glucose will correct acidosis
- Correct Hypothermia
- monitor temperature and have overhead heater
- Sepsis
- if at risk administer IV Abx after cultures taken
- Surgical correction if required- according to cause
What are the internationally recognised warning signs of autism in an infant?
What are the complications of IUGR?
- Prematurity issues
- Asphyxia
- Meconium aspiration syndrome
- Hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia
- Hypothermia
- Polycythaemia
- Impaired immune function
- BM suppression
- NEC
- Mechanism = hypoxic gut as foetus shunts blood to brain
- Neurodevelopmental
- Cerebral palsy
- Learning and behavioural issues
- Foetal origins of adult dz
- DM, HT, obesity, CAD, hypercholesterolaemia
What is the acronym for interviewing a teenager?
Plus also ask about sleep
What are the screening questions for eating disorder?
SCOFF
Do you make yourself Sick because you feel uncomfortably full?
Do you worry you have lost Control over how much you eat?
Have you recently lost more than One stone (6.35kg) in a three month period?
Do you believe yourself to be Fat when others say you are thin?
Would you say Food dominates your life?
Plus to screen for bulimia nervosa:
Are you satisfied with your eating pattern?
Do you ever eat in secret?
What are the complications of eating disorders in paeds?
The 5 Hs
- Height (growth retardation)
- Heart (arrythmia, QT, bradycardia, hypotension)
- Happy Bones (irreversible osteoporosis)
- Hormones (osteporosis, hypothyroid, delayed puberty/amenorrheoa)
- Heads (poor concentration, slowed mentation)
What are the red flags for abuse in an injured child?
History provided not consistent with injury
Delay in presentation
Claims that injury caused by young sibling
Denial that it is an injury
Multiple injuries of different types and ages
Injuries not consistent with developmental age
Child brought in by person other than parent
Shaken baby syndrome –> subdural haematoma + retinal haemorrhage
What are the ranges of birth weights?
Macrosomia >4500g
Low Birthweight (LBW) Very Low Birth Weight (VLBW)
Extremely LBW (ELBW)
What are the rates of growth in a child?
Infancy - 25cm/yr
Childhood - 10cm/yr
Puberty - 5cm/yr
What are the normal nap patterns for babies?
How do you take a sleep history from a child?
What are the general considerations in approaching epilepsy in a child
Unless it is catastrophic epilepsy, early treatment does not change long term outcome
Be hesitant to make a diagnosis because it will change a child’s life forever
Epilepsy will declare itself by progression or resolution.
What is the most important feature of headache in determining aetiology and how would you interpret it?
Time course
Red is raised ICP
Green is migraine
Blue is muscular
Severity
Best to ask what they did during the headache to determine severity (confined to dark room = severe)
Apart from headache what are the symptoms of migraine in a child?
Relief by sleep
Dizziness/pallor
Abdo pain
Nausea and vomiting
Prodrome
Characteristic location of pain
What are the most common causes of URTIs?
Rhinovirus
Adenovirus
Influenza and parainfluenza
RSV
Enterovirus
EBV
Streptococci
What differentials should you always consider for a febrile child?
- ear, nose, or throat infection
- acute respiratory infection
- gastroenteritis
- urinary tract infection
- meningitis
- osteomyelitis / septic arthritis
Baby/child with a CRP > 80, what do you think?
Bacterial infection
What do you need to consider about the utility of urine dipstick in a child?
Urine dipstick not useful in babies under 1 because they pee as soon as urine created which means not enough time for bacteria/WCC to accumulate
Can cause false negative!
What are the differentials for fever + blotchy/spotty rash in a child?
MR SARS EEK!
- Measles
- Rubella
- Systemic JCA (Still’s disease)
- Allergy
- Roseola infantum (HHV6)
- Scarlet fever
- Erythema infectiosum (Parvovirus B19)
- Erythema multiforme
- Kawasaki disease
What are the complications of Kawasaki disease?
Mild, diffuse dilatation of coronary arteries usually begins on day 10 from fever onset. If left untreated, 25% of these patients progress to true aneurysms, with 1% becoming ‘giant aneurysms’ (>8 mm internal diameter). These giant aneurysms have the worst prognosis, with risk of acute thrombosis and long-term risk of myocardial ischaemia
What is Scarlet fever?
Rash from strep throat.
Tx with phenoxymethylpenicillin (PO) or benzathine penicillin (IM) to prevent post strep GN or acute rheumatic fever
What are the differentials for fever + vesicular rash in a child?
Hand, foot and mouth
Chickenpox
Herpes simplex
(Remember: vesicular just means blistering)
What are the signs/symptoms of meningitis in a child?
Fever
Stiff neck*/Kernig’s sign
Bulging fontanelle
Irritable
Drowsiness
Poor feeding/vomiting
Palpable non-blanching purpuric rash => meningococcal meningitis
Convulsions/coma/shock –> consider meningitis
Stiff neck is not relevant in infants
What are the different patterns of CSF results in a child with viral/bacterial/TB meningitis?
What are the acute and long term complications of meningitis?
What is the relationship between immune development and prematurity?
Transplacental transfer of IgG happens in the third trimester. Very premature babies can miss out on this process rendering them very vulnerable to infection
NB: The process is actually active and means that the baby ends up with a higher concentration of IgG than their mum!
What would be considered febrile in a child younger than 3 months?
What would you do with a child 2.5 months old with T38.2 degrees
> 38.0 degrees
INVESTIGATE IT!
FBE
blood culture
CRP
Urine dipstick/Urine MCS
CXR only if respiratory signs are present
stool culture, if diarrhoea is present
What is bronchiolitis and what age kids does it affect?
Viral lower respiratory tract infection
Up to 18 months
What pathogens cause bronchiolitis?
RSV
Human metapneumovirus
Adenovirus –> bad because causes bronchiolitic obliterans!
Parainfluenza
Influenza
What are the risk factors for bronchiolitis?
Exposure to cigarette smoke
Maternal smoking during pregnancy
Prematurity
Chronic cardiorespiratory diseases (including congenital heart disease and cystic fibrosis)
Immunodeficiency
What investigations are required for bronchiolitis?
None, clinical diagnosis
However, nasopharyngeal aspirate is usually done because we like to know which viruses are doing the rounds in the community and to rule out pertussis (which is life threatening to infants)
What is the management of bronchiolitis?
Basics
- Oxygen therapy if hypoxic
- Assisted ventilation if increased work of breathing
- NG feeding if poor feeding
- NG or IV fluids if dehydrated
Person and Place
Admit to paeds ward if patient requires any of the above, or if concerned
Investigations and Diagnosis
Clinical diagnosis, NPA if required to isolate virus or exclude pertussis
Definitive Management
Supportive management only.
Usually resolves within a week.
Long-Term Management
RSV is a highly infectious virus, ensure good hand hygiene to prevent spread.
Ensure immunizations are up to date
What are the differentials for wheeze in a young child?
Bronchiolitis
Asthma
Inhaled foreign body
Pneumonia
Pertussis
Bronchiomalacia/tracheomalacia
Cardiac failure
CF or other suppurative lung dz
Recurrent aspiration
What ages does croup typically occur?
6 months to 12 years of age, with a peak incidence at age 2
What is the significance of hypoxia in croup?
If you’re thinking about hypoxia the croup is life threatening.
Adequate SPO2 should not be reassuring – low oxygen saturations is a BAD sign.
What pathogens cause croup?
Parainfluenza
Influenza
Adenovirus
What is the clinical presentation/natural history of croup?
- Begins with coryzal symptoms for 1-2 days
- Fever is generally low grade (38-39) – no signs of toxicity
- Barking cough – usually begins at night or early hours of morning. Peaks at day 2 and 3 of disease
- It takes two or three days before the sub-glottic area narrows enough to cause the barking cough
- It happens first at night, usually, because we have reduced upper airway tone when we sleep
- Inspiratory stridor is heard as the disease progresses
- The viral illness typically lasts 7-10 days, but the typical croupy cough only lasts 2-3 nights
- May have associated widespread wheeze, increased work of breathing and hypoxia – child may become distressed and restless, cyanosis is a late and ominous sign
- Recurrent spasmodic croup
- ‘Upper airway hyperresponsiveness’
- No viral prodrome
- Children are well when they go to bed, and wake up in the early hours of the morning with a barking cough and stridor
- Fever is unusual in this form of croup
- Children often have asthma or atopy, or a FHx of asthma and atopy
What are the investigations for croup?
None, dont distress the kid!
How do you differentiate croup from epiglottitis?
What is the management of croup?
Basics
Minimal handling
Oxygen is not usually required unless severe obstruction
IV access should be deferred
Place and person
Grade 1 – manage at home
Grade 2 – admit to hospital via ED
Grade 3 – admit to ICU
If having to administer oxygen, contact anesthetics!
If having to administer a second dose of adrenaline, contact anaethetics!
Investigate and confirm diagnosis
Clinical diagnosis
Non-invasive management
Keep child relaxed
Definitive management
Mild to moderate
Oral prednisolone 1mg/kg
OR Oral dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg – 0.6mg/kg
Severe
- Oxygen
- Nebulised adrenaline 1:1000 solution
- Works by vasoconstriction
- Beware of possible rebound effect after 2-3 hours – must observe
- This is more symptomatic treatment to buy you time
- Dexamethasone IV 0.2mg/kg
- Follow with oral steroids
- ETT if going into respiratory failure
Long term
Consider transfer when no improvement following nebulized adrenaline
Discharge requirements
Four hours post nebulized adrenaline
Half hour post oral steroid
Stridor free at rest
Recurrent-Spasmodic Croup
Usually don’t require treatment as attacks are very short-lasting. But can treat the same as acute viral croup. Some evidence to suggest that ICS may reduce frequency of attacks, but children will most likely grow out of this.
Who does pertussis affect?
Most common age group in community is adolescents and young adults, but not dangerous for this group except for being vector
Under 12 months deadly
Under 6 months VERY deadly
Discuss the transmission of pertussis?
Transmission: Direct contact with droplet discharges
Highly contagious – spreads to 80-90% of susceptible individuals coming in contact with disease
Describe the natural history of pertussis?
Catarrhal stage (7-14 days)
- Anorexia
- Rhinnorrhoea
- Conjunctivitis/lacrimation
- Dry cough
Paroxysmal stage (about 4 weeks)
- Paroxysms of severe coughing with inspiratory ‘whoop’
- Vomiting (after coughing)
- Coughing mainly at night
- Lymphocytosis
Convalescent stage
- Chronic cough which may last for weeks
What tests do you use for pertussis?
FBE –> lymphocytosis
CXR to exclude pneumonia
Culture and/or PCR of nasopharygeal aspirate (within 1 week from onset of cough). Both of these tests have 70% sensitivity
What is the management of pertussis?
Basics
ABC
Place and person
If younger than 6 months – hospitalization
School exclusion until at least 5 days of antibiotic use
Investigate and confirm diagnosis
Nasopharygeal aspirate
FBE, IgA serology
CXR – to exclude pneumonia
Non-invasive management
Good ventilation
Avoid emotional excitement or distress
Avoid overfeeding during paroxysmal stage
Definitive management
- Antibiotics minimize transmission but do not effect course of disease
- Azithromycin 500 mg 5 days OR
- Clarithromycin 7 days
Prophylaxis
Same treatment as above for household and other close contacts if commenced within 3 weeks of onset of cough in the patient
Prevention
- Acellular pertussis is part of the immunization schedule
- Initial protection
- 2, 4 and 6months
- Booster (dTpa)
- 4 years
- 10-15 years
- Parents or household contacts of newborns
What are the complications of pertussis?
Pneumonia
Atelectasis
Pneumothorax
Seizure
Asphyxia
Apnoea/bradycardia
Rib fracture
Encephalopathy
Otitis media
What is the treatment for infrequent episodic asthma?
SABA PRN only, NO ROLE FOR PREVENTER IT IS NOT EFFICACIOUS
What is the stepwise pharmacological management of childhood asthma?
Step 1: RELIEVER
SABA
Step 2: PREVENTOR
Low dose ICS (200 – 400mcg / day)
OR LTRA
OR inhaled cromone
Step 3: ADD OR INCREASE STEROID
Increase ICS (Double: 400 – 800mcg / day)
LTRA / inhaled cromone + low dose ICS
Step 4: ALL PREVENTORS AND HIGHEST ICS DOSE
LTRA / cromone + ICS (800mcg)
Step 5: ADD SYMPTOM CONTROLLER / ORAL STEROIDS
LABA (not in children
What is the correct definition of asthma?
Rrecurrent wheezing episodes which are responsive to salbutamol.
Is asthma more prevalent in males or females?
Boys generally have smaller airways than girls and tend to suffer more from asthma. However, after adolescence the prevalence is higher in females.
What are the side effects of inhaled corticosteroids in children?
Very safe, almost not clinically significant long term side effects
Hoarseness and pharyngeal candidiasis are not common
particular dry-powder formulas with pH
Treatment beginning before puberty is associated with a small (mean approximately 1 cm) reduction in adult height
What is the genetic inheritance of cystic fibrosis?
autosomal recessive
What are the clinical manifestations of cystic fibrosis?
What are the complications of cystic fibrosis?
MR PANCREAS
M - Meconium ileus (at birth) and distal intestinal obstruction (children and adults)
R - Recurrent infections
P - Pancreatic failure (exocrine and endocrine)
A - Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
N - nasal polyps and recurrent sinusitis
C - Cirrhosis of hepatobiliary system
E - Emotions (teenagers often depressed) and electrolyte disturbances (low Na+)
A - Airway leaks (pneumothorax)
S - Sterility in males
What is the management of cystic fibrosis?
Basics
NA
Place and person
Referral to
- Respiratory physician
- Chest physiotherapy
- Dietitian
Investigate and confirm diagnosis
Sweat test and genotyping
Non-invasive management
- Chest physiotherapy
- Monitoring and optimizing nutrition
- High intake of dietary fat
- Pancreatic enzyme supplements
- Fat soluble Vitamin supplements
Definitive management
- For respiratory infections
- S. aureus infection
- Di/flucloxacillin
- S. aureus and Haemophilus influenzae infection
- Augmentum or trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
- Initial pseudomonal infection
- Ciprofloxacin PLUS
- Tobramycin by nebulizer OR
- Colistimethate sodium by nebulizer
- Chronic pseudomonal exacerbation
- Ciprofloxacin PLUS
- Tobramycin by nebulizer OR
- Colistimethate sodium by nebulizer OR
- Gentamicin by nebulizer
- S. aureus infection
Long term
- Respiratory
- Daily chest physiotherapy
- Aerosolised mucolytics
- Dornase alfa
- Nebulised hypertonic saline
- Inhaled bronchodilators
- Inhaled corticosteroids
Chronic pseudomonal infection
Azithromycin orally 3 times weekly
GORD
PPI
What is this and what is the treatment?
Exomphalos is a type of abdominal wall defect. It occurs when a child’s abdomen does not develop fully while in the womb.
Tx = surgical correction in first 2 days of life
This baby has just been born, what is the diagnosis and management?
Hydrocele. It will self resolve within a few weeks. But you must make sure to rule out testicular torsion.
What is this? What is the management?
Gastroschisis
Urgent surgical repair
What is this? Is it always abnormal?
Phimosis (the foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans penis), normal up until puberty
What is this? What is the management?
Paraphimosis (the foreskin becomes trapped behind the glans penis, and cannot be reduced)
What are the causes of cyanotic heart disease in infants?
1,2,3,4,5 T’s
1 vessels (Truncus arteriosus)
2 vessels swap (Transposition of the Great Arteries)
3 = Tricuspid atresia
4 = Tetralogy of Fallot
5 words (Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return)
What are the causes of acyanotic heart disease in kids?
You diagnose a child with a septal defect (either atrial or ventricular), what is the physiology of the condition and what is your initial management?
Septal defects cause L –> R shunts
ACEi, diuretics to reduce preload and strain on right heart plus feeding to increase baby’s weight ready for surgical correction
How is a patent ductus arteriosis usually picked up?
What is the problem with a patent ductus arteriosis?
Identified if infant experiences heart failure, or later in life because doctor hears machinery murmur or notices wide pulse pressure (caused by the run-off of blood flow from the aorta to the pulmonary artery during diastole).
What is the problem?
Blood flows from the high pressure aorta into the low pressure pulmonary artery, overloading pulmonary circulation and causing pulmonary hypertension and heart failure (dyspeneoa, FTT, recurrent infections). If not picked up until adulthood pulmonary hypertension can be a significant issue.
Children with a small PDA are often asymptomatic, but may develop Infective Endocarditis.
You hear a machinery murmur in a 3 month old, what investigations would you do?
Bedside tests
ECG – normal with small PDAs.
Left ventricular hypertrophy with larger PDAs
Bloods and urine
Nil
Imaging
CXR – full pulmonary artery silhouette and increased pulmonary vascularity. Cardiomegaly may be present in a larger shunt.
Echocardiography – visualise the PDA to confirm diagnosis
Special tests
Nil
What is the management of patent ductus arteriosis?
Premature infants
- IV indomethacin in patients with very low birth weight
- IV indomethacin or ibuprofen of premature infants of larger weight
- Treatment can be given before evidence of a PDA becomes evident
- Prophylactic indomethacin might increase ductal closure and decrease the incidence of intraventicular haemorrhage
Term infants
- In asymptomatic or symptomatic patients, percutaneous catheter closure is the first-line treatment in order to treat heart failure and prevent elevated pulmonary pressures or endarteritis.
- Infants who are symptomatic and too small to undergo percutaneous device closure need ACEi/diuretic treatment and feeding until they are large enough for surgical management
Aortic coarctation
When does it present?
How does it present?
What is the management?
When does it present?
If severe: acute circulatory collapse at 2 days of life after being previously well (duct closure). This is the usual scenario.
If mild: Later in life, often discovered when pt is being investigated for refractory hypertension. The later the abnormality is discovered the harder the HTN is to treat.
How does it present?
Sick baby
Hypertension
Unequal BP between arms
Absent femoral pulses
Severe metabolic acidosis
May have an ejection systolic murmur between the shoulder blades
MGMT?
ABC, prostaglandins, urgent surgery
What is the management of hypoplastic left heart syndrome?
The Norwood operation, which connects the aorta and the returning pulmonary veins to the R heart – a one chamber heart!
Usually receives follow up operations at 3 months and 6 years
How does blood flow typically work in infants with interruption of the aortic arch?
What is the management of this condition?
In the immediate newborn period blood flows through the ‘Ductus’ into the Descending Aorta and hence reaches the lower part of the circulation.
Fortunately these babies usually have a VSD, meaning that the blood that flows through the pulmonary artery, though the ductus and into the descending aorta is at least partly oxygenated.
As the ductus closes after birth blood pressure in the lower circulation becomes inadequate and severe symptoms develop.
Most affected infants develop severe symptoms (difficulty breathing and impaired kidney function) in the first week of life and need urgent surgery
Mx = ABC, prostaglandins, surgery in days
What is the clinical presentation of hypoplastic left heart syndrome?
Presents early in life (usually D2 when duct closes) as the “shocked neonate” – dusky colour, weak or absent pulses, low BP, reduced UO, metabolic acidosis
Obstructive heart diseases in neonates are usually XXX which means they often present XXXXX when XXXX happens…..
duct dependent
In the first week of life
When the ductus closes
Describe the murmur of VSD
Small VSD – high pitched pan-systolic murmur, associated with a thrill
Large VSD – Quiet pansystolic murmur, heave
What is the most common heart defect?
What is the most common heart defect in babies with downs syndrome?
VSD in both
What is the management of VSD?
Small –> conservative management and monitoring
Large –> surgical repair
What are the forms of ASD and which form is most common?
Secundem (most common)
Primium (AVSD)
What is the management of ASDs?
Most affected children are free of any major symptoms, but the risk of heart failure developing later in life makes closure desirable, unless the defect is very small. These defects may be repaired surgically or by using an expanding plug (“Device”), which can be inserted through a heart catheter without an operation (Device Closure)
What are the causes of cyanosis in the neonate?
OH CRAP THAT BABY IS BLUE!
DONT SWEAR IN FRONT OF THE BABY!
OH, I SAID, CRIP
- *C**yanotic Heart Disease (1,2,3,4,5 Ts)
- *R**espiratory disease (Meconium aspiration syndrome, pulmonary hypoplasia)
- *I**nfection (GBS)
- *P**ersistent pulmonary HTN of the newborn (PPHN)
What is the workup of a cyanosed neonate?
What are the abnormalities in Tetralogy/Pentology of Fallot
Pulmonary stenosis
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Overriding aorta
VSD
Pentology –> ASD
What is the classical presentation of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Murmur, cyanosis or congestive heart failure, typically develops over the first 6-12 weeks of life
If mild disease not picked up until later childhood. Presentation at this stage is characterised by FFT, clubbing of the fingers, reduced exercise tolerance and ‘Tet spells’
What is the management of a Tet spell?
Comfort the child
Rest younger infants against the parents shoulders with knees tucked in
Encourage older children to squat
O2, IV fluids
Beta-blockade and ICU support may be required
IM morphine can reduce pain and venous return
Phenylephrine is last line*
*Used to increase systemic venous resistance by direct simulation of peripheral alpha-adrenergic receptors.
The goal is to increase the systemic vascular resistance above the resistance of the pulmonary outflow tract so that blood in the right ventricle preferentially flows through the pulmonary circulation, rather than across the ventricular septal defect and into the systemic circulation.
What are the complications of TOF?
Heart failure is rare. But cyanosis –> polycythemia –> thromboembolism can occur. Infective endocarditis and cerebral abscess too!
What genetic abnormality is associated with TOF? What are the other features of this genetic condition?
CATCH 22q11 (Di George Syndrome)
Tetralogy of Fallot is famously associated with the deletion of the long arm chromosome 22
Cardiac anomalies (tetra, transpos)
Abnormal facies
Thymic hypolasia (T cell deficiency)
Cleft palate
Hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism
What is the management of transposition of the great arteries?
Prostaglandins
Atrial baloon septostomy
Arterial switch is definitive surgical correction at 6-9 months
What ECG findings are there in TOF?
What murmur is heard in TOF?
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Coarse ES murmur on ULSE
What do you know about pulmonary atresia?
- This defect is a form of Tetralogy of Fallot
- Blood cannot enter the pulmonary circulation via the pulmonary valve.
- Blood entering the right ventricle moves into the left ventricle via an ASD/VSD or foramen ovale, is pumped via the left ventricle and then shunts back to the pulmonary circulation via the PDA.
- Survival depends on the ductus remaining open in the early days of life
- Cyanotic heart disease
- Surgical correction with a shunt is required immediately, with complete repair performed after age 1.
What do you know about truncus arteriosis?
A single ventricular outflow tract straddles a large VSD.
It has an abnormal valve.
Presents in newborn period with mild cyanosis and congestive heart failure.
The abnormal valve is often stenosed (systolic murmur) and may be regurgitant (diastolic murmur).
Urgent surgery
You examine a 2 year old and find:
Fixed splitting of S2
May have murmur at the upper left sternal edge
What is the diagnosis and management?
ASD
If symptomatic or causing R ventricular dilation, catheter closure at 3-5 years
Partial AVSD needs surgery at 3 years
Complete AVSD: 3-5 months
You examine a 2 month old and find:
Loud, pansystolic murmur with a thrill (in a patient with no symptoms)
What is the management?
Small VSD
Usually no treatment required, spontaneous closure
You examine a 2 month old and find:
Softer pansystolic murmur with a loud P2. R sided heave and heart failure. Cardiomegaly on CXR
What is the diagnosis, what is the manamagement?
Large VSD
Diuretics, captopril
Extra calories
Surgery at 3-6 months
You see a 2 month old child with suspected heart failure, what is the immediate management?
Contact senior help
Arrange urgent echocardiography (and potentially an ECG and CXR in the meantime)
Give O2
Use frusemide or spironolactone to relieve vascular congestion
Use captopril to reduce after load
High nutrient feeds may be required
Consider inotropes for low-output failure
If neonate consider prostaglandins
Explain the splitting of the second heart sound
- Normally, the pulmonary valve closes a little after the aortic (A2, P2).
- During inspiration, venous return in increased at the R ventricle takes a little longer to empty.
- Blood pools in the lower pressures of the pulmonary circuit, reducing return to the left heart, which now finishes emptying a little sooner.
- Therefore, the split normally widens on inspiration
- During expiration, the right heart is given the chance to catch up a little and the split is narrowed
What is the management of VSDs?
- Stabilise with diuretics, ACEIs and high caloric diet
- Treat if:
- Heart failure or failure to thrive on medical management
- Pulmonary hypertension
- Aortic valve prolapse
- Infective endocarditis
- Surgical and trans-catheter options exist
What would you find on investigations of a VSD?
- Small VSD may have no abnormal findings
- Larger VSDs may demonstrate cardiomegaly and pulmonary plethora of CXR
- Biventricular hypertrophy can be shown on ECG
- Diagnose with echo
What is the relationship between large VSDs and the aortic valve?
High flow VSDs can suck in the nearby aortic leaflet by the Venturi effect and cause aortic regurgitation
What are the differentials for a shocked neonate?
What are the differentials for a cyanosed neonate?
What are the differentials for infants with heart failure?
What do you check on a paediatric cardio exam?
Which congenital heart defects increase the risk of infective endocarditis?
Essentially all congenital heart abnormalities increase your risk, except for secundum ASDs
8 year old with pallor and bone pain, what is your spot diagnosis?
ALL until proven otherwise
What is the main risk you worry about in immune thrombocytopaenic purpura and how common is it?
Intracranial haemorrhage - 1% of ITP cases
What are the features of anaemia in a child?
- Pallor – conjunctival, palmar crease
- Fatigue, listlessness
- Poor growth
- Flow murmur
- Air hunger (severe)
- Hypotension and cardiac failure (severe)
- Iron deficiency can present with poor attention span, irritability and pica (eating dirt, clay, ice etc)
What are the causes of iron deficiency in a child?
Malabsorption and occult blood loss (although rare) should be considered, but usually after failure of dietary measures.
Polyps, haemangiomas, Meckel’s diverticula and hereditary telangectiasia are rare causes of GI blood loss.
What are the differentials for normocytic anaemia in a child?
What are the differentials for microcytic anaemia in a child?
What is the haematological aspect of parvovirus B19?
One of the most common and serious complications of parvovirus B19 infection is transient aplastic crises in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia such as sickle cell disease and hereditary spherocytosis. Pure red cell aplasia may also develop with a persistent infection of parvovirus B19 in immunocompromised individuals.
A five year old presents with pallor, lethargy, difficulty concentrating worsening over the past few months. What investigations will you order?
FBE
Blood film
Ferritin
Reticulocyte count
You diagnose an 8 year old girl with Fe deficiency anaemia, what is your management advice to the parents?
What is the presentation of factor dysfunction vs platelet dysfunction?
A 6 year old child presents with petechiae, what are your differentials?
SHIELD
A 5 year old girl has an isolated raised APTT, what are the possible causes?
A raised APTT in the absence of anticoagulant therapy suggests a deficiency in a factor or an inhibitor.
An inhibitor is usually an antibody made against a factor, such as lupus anticoagulant or antibodies formed by haemophilia patients receiving recombinant factors
What is the peak incidence of immune thrombocytopaenic purpura in children?
2-5 years
What is the classical presentation of ITP?
What do you find on examination?
What do you find on investigations?
Presentation
Clinical manifestations of platelet disorder develop acutely – mucosal and skin petechiae, epistaxis, rectal bleeding, haematuria, bleeding gums
Examination
Normal examination – no pallor, no lymphadenopathy or hepato-/spleno- megaly (exclude leukaemia)
Investigations
FBE –> thrombocytopaenia, blood film shows isolated low platelets with no other findings
A bone marrow aspirate is an invasive procedure with some morbidity in children who bruise easily, and is only necessary if the diagnosis is uncertain. It is rarely necessary in uncomplicated ITP.
ITP is a diagnosis of exclusion, but an FBE and blood film may be sufficient for diagnosis if Hx and Ex consistent.
It can be thought of as isolated thrombocytopenia with no other suggestive findings on Hx, Ex, FBE or blood film.
What are the different types of ITP and who do they typically affect?
Acute is ITP less than 12 months
This is the common type of childhood (2-5 y/o)
Chronic ITP lasts >12 months
Occurs in children >7 y/o and adults
Women affected more often
Recurrent ITP exists but is rare.
In ITP what level of platelets makes you worry?
Platelets consistently under 10
How long does ITP typically take to resolve in kids with conservative or active treatment?
Untreated 75% in 6 weeks, 90% will resovle within 6 months
With standard dose steroids 1 week
With high dose steroids 2-4 days
With IVIG 1-3 days
What are the treatment options for ITP?
-
Safety precautions are key
- Allow for generous supervision, especially of young children
- Avoid contact sports or any moderate-impact activity
- Regular follow up
- Parents must receive thorough education
- Avoid NSAIDs and 5-ASA
Splenectomy is a last line option. Often very effective but vaccinations and life-long antibiotic prophylaxis required.
What is the typical presentation of haemophilia?
Neonates
- Often picked up on screening due to FMHx
- Cord blood can be used for genetics and coagulation studies
- Intracranial haemorrhage, severe birth bruising and excessive bleeding after circumcision can suggest the disese
Older children
- Haemarthroses tend to occur in walking children
What is the management of haemophilia?
- Mild-moderate haemophilia A can be treated with DDAVP after appropriate challenge test (>5y/o)
- Not adequate for major bleeding
- Tranexamic acid can reduce mucosal bleeds and epistaxis
- Severe disease can be treated with 25-40 units/kg of recombinant factor concentrates three times a week.
What are the clinical features of leukaemia?
Auer rods = ?
AML (less common than ALL)
What is the initial work up of a child with suspected leukaemia?
- CXR is used to investigate the possibility of mediastinal masses (occurs in 50% of T-ALL).
- Lumbar punctures are mandatory to detect occult CNS infiltration. They are often delayed until treatment has begun to reduce the risk of seeding into CNS. Also because often thrombocytopenic
Many more tests are done. This is the realm of a paediatric oncologist. Tumour lysis bloods, liver and renal function, lactate dehydrogenase and coagulation studies all form part of the initial work-up at baseline.
What is the cure rate of ALL?
What are the general principles of chemotherapy approaches to ALL?
What steps are taken to reduce the chances of tumour lysis syndrome?
It is commonly quoted that cure rates (in children) are 80%. The current rate is probably higher, especially in low risk disease.
Remission Induction
- Aims to eliminate 99% of the tumour cell population. This should achieve normal haematopoiesis and functional status.
- Does the ‘heavy lifting’ –> remaining treatment is about total eradication, relapse prevention and cure
- High risk of tumour lysis in early chemo.
- the breakdown products of dying cells causes hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia (which causes hypocalcaemia), high blood uric acid and high urine uric acid and consequent acute uric acid nephropathy and acute kidney failure.
- Tumour lysis prevention:
- bicarb to alkylise urine and prevent uric acid crystal formation in kidney
- allopurinol
- fluid diuresis
- monitor all electrolytes
CNS protection
- Most chemo penetrates the BBB poorly
- Intrathecal and IV methotrexate can obviate the need for cranial irradiation (CI). CI is still used for overt CNS disease or high risk patients.
A child presents with petechiae on their lips, eyes and gums but nowhere else, what are your differentials?
Strangulation/NAI
Vomiting
Coughing
+ other causes of petechiae (SHIELD)
Why do kids with ITP and really low platelets not bleed as much as you’d think?
Immature megakaryocytes in BM churning out platelets. The platelets are young/healthy/sticky. Vs kids with cancer with same low platelet count who will bleed because unhealthy platelets.
What are analgesic options for kids?
· Oral – paracetemol, ibuprofen, oxycodone
· Intranasal – fentanyl (device that makes a mist out of it)
· IV – morphine, ketamine
· IM – (rare) ketamine, morphine
· Local anaesthetic
What things do you assess when examining for dehydration in a child?
- Wet nappies
- Tears
- Fontanelles
- Skin turgor
- Mucus membranes
- Cap refill
- HR/BP
- Weight
- Vomits/diarrheoa
- Alertness
Newborn with cough, cyanotic episodes with feeding, respiratory distress, recurrent pneumonia, what is the diagnosis?
Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
What are the differentials for projectile vomiting?
pyloric stenosis (if age 2-7wks)
duodenal atresia
What is a SUFE?
How does it present, how is it diagnosed and what is the treatment?
A ‘Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis’ (also called a ‘SUFE’) is when the femoral epiphyseal plate is weak and the ball head of the femur slips downward and backward. The exact cause of this condition is not known.
A ‘SUFE’ is not usually associated with an injury. The symptoms often develop slowly - over several months - and may seem like a pulled muscle in the hip, thigh or knee. It is important to get an early diagnosis and treatment before the slip gets worse and children may need to have the unaffected side treated as well to prevent future slipping.
Clasically happens to obese teenage boys, can be bilateral
True hip pathology causes GROIN pain!
Signs and symptoms
Groin, hip, thigh or knee pain. (Some people only have knee pain, even though the condition affects the hip)
Limp
Limited movement of the hip joint
There may be slight shortening of the affected leg.
Diagnosis
Diagnosis is usually made by physical examination of hip movement and an x-ray.
Attached X ray shows how in the abnormal side the line does not cut off the femoral head like it should
Management
Surgical correction with screw
A child refuses to weight bear due to pain. What are your differentials.
Refusal to weight bear in a child is a red flag!
Septic arthritis
Osteomyelitis
Malignancy
What features differentiate septic arthritis from post viral synovitis?
Refusal to weight bear
Fever (>38.5)
Raised WBC
ESR >40
CRP >20
At what age does crying peak?
6 weeks, it gets better after that
A child in brought in to the ED for some totally benign condition (like an URTI). You need to give the parents advice on what situations should prompt them to bring the child back in to ED, what do you tell them.
Bring them back if:
- They become dehydrated (because of vomiting/diarrheoa) with poor oral intake and no wet nappies
- Become drowsy or not responsive to interactions
- Puffing very hard or finding it difficult to breathe
- Uncontrollably irritable, not able to be soothed
You are trying to find a localising source of a young child’s fever. They have a history of vomiting, what does that tell you?
Nothing, vomiting is not a localising sign in a kid. Could be anything from UTI to meningitis.
A child presents to ED with a fever, you don’t think it’s serious. What conditions do you need to rule out before sending them home?
Meningitis
Pneumonia
UTI
Sepsis
What are the diagnostic criteria for febrile convulsions?
What additional criteria apply to simple vs complex febrile convulsions?
Febrile convulsions / seizures are seizures in which
- Fever >38 degrees
- No evidence of CNS infection
- No history of afebrile seizures
- No history of neurological deficits or developmental delay
Simple febrile seizures are
- generalized tonic and/or clonic seizures
- Short in duration
- Do not recur within the same febrile illness
Complex febrile seizures are
- focal features at onset or during the seizure
- duration of more than 15 minutes
- Recurrence within the same febrile illness
- Incomplete recovery within 1 hour.
At what age do febrile convulsions typically occur?
6 months to 6 years
How common are febrile convulsions?
3 in 100 babies
What is the clinical presentation of a febrile convulsion?
- Signs and symptoms of infection (often URTI, otitis media or UTI).
- Description of a generalized, tonic-clonic seizure (simple) or a focal seizure (complex). Normal neurological exam post-ictally.
- *NB if eyes deviate to one side this is a sign of a focal seizure
What investigations should you order for a febrile convulsion?
Bedside tests
- BGL – this is the only investigation you should do if the child is >6 months and the source of the fever can be identified
- Urine dipstick and MC&S
Bloods and urine
- FBE
- CRP
- Blood culture
- UEC / CMP
- check for electrolyte derangement.
- Feeding babies water bottles causes hyponatraemic seizures
Imaging
CXR if respiratory symptoms
Special tests
LP – low threshold if unknown source of fever.
From RCH “consider LP if the child is less than 12 months and not up to date with immunisations, if they are clinically unwell, or if they are already on oral antibiotics that may mask meningitis.”
What can you tell the parents of a child who has just had a febrile convulsion about his/her prognosis?
- Recurrence rate depends on the age of the child;
- the younger the child at the time of the initial convulsion, the greater the risk a further febrile convulsion
- (1 year old 50%; 2 years old 30%).
- the younger the child at the time of the initial convulsion, the greater the risk a further febrile convulsion
- Risk of future afebrile convulsions (epilepsy) is increased by:
- family history of epilepsy,
- any neurodevelopmental problem,
- atypical febrile convulsions (prolonged or focal).
- With none of these risk factors risk of recurrence is similar to the rest of the population (1%). With 1 risk factor, risk is 2%, with >1 risk factor, 10%.
The parents of a child who has just had a febrile seizure ask about what they can do to prevent it happening again, what do you tell them?
- Fever control:
- minimal clothing, nappy alone or light outer layer depending on ambient temperature
- Tepid sponging, baths and fans are ineffective at lowering core temperature and are NOT recommended
- Paracetamol has not been shown to reduce the risk of further febrile convulsions. It may be used for pain/discomfort associated with febrile illnesses (e.g otitis media),it should not be solely used to control fever
- If the seizure recurs, roll him onto his side and allow him to fit, Seizure should not last longer than 3-5 minutes. Any longer and an ambulance should be called.
- If Henry was to have recurrent or prolonged febrile seizures, prophylactic oral diazepam or rectal diazepam (rescue therapy) may be prescribed
In hospital, how long would you allow a febrile convulsion to continue before commencing active management with benzos?
5-10mins
Is the response (or lack of response) of a child’s fever to paracetemol significant?
No, not at all
Does teething cause fever?
Teething will not cause fever > 38.5oC
A parent brings a febrile child to you, what do you do on history and exam?
History
- Headache (if child can talk)
- Photophobia (if child can talk)
- Cough
- Coryza
- Diarrheoa
- Vomiting
- Abdominal pain
- Joint symptoms
- Dysuria/foul smelling urine
- Travel history
- Sick contacts
- Immunisations
Exam:
- Vitals, general appearance, conscious state
- Neck stiffness
- ENT examination
- Work of breathing
- Abdominal exam
- Skin rash
- Joint swelling
What are the clinical indications for antibiotics in children with painful otitis media
- Sick child with fever
- Vomiting
- Red-yellow bulging TM
- Discharge
- Loss of TM landmarks
- Persistent fever and pain after 3 days of conservative approach
- Bilateral AOM
*
How common is Down’s syndrome?
What increases the risk?
Birth incidence is about 1 in 1000 live births.
Overall incidence rises after maternal age of 35 years.
How common are cardiac conditions in babies with Down’s syndrome?
50% have congenital heart defects
particularly AVSD
What is the “management” of Down Syndrome
Medical
- Growth
- Plot growth on Trisomy 21 specific growth charts
- Prevent obesity
- Cardiac
- ECHO at birth
- Annual follow up
- GIT
- Coeliac screening
- Endocrine
- Annual TSH (at increased risk of hypothyroidism)
- Haeamtological
- Annual FBE (at increased risk of polycythaemia)
- Hearing
- Hearing test as new born and at six months of age
- Opthalmology
- Eye examination every 3 years
- MSK
- Education RE: atlanto-axial instability, avoid trampoline and high risk activities, discuss positioning of the spine during anasthaesia/surgery
- Low threshold for imaging. Routine spinal xray is not recommended.
Non-Medical
- ?Early intervention
- ?Funding / Carer’s Pension
- ?Educational and Vocational Training
What is the risk of miscarriage associated with CVS vs amniocentesis?
CVS = 1% above the background risk
Amniocentesis = 0.5%
When in pregnancy do you perform CVS vs amniocentesis?
What are the advantages of CVS?
What are the advantages of amniocentesis?
This is a 3 year old child. What is the diagnosis?
What is the management?
What is the prognosis?
Diagnosis = herpes simplex gingivostomatitis
Management = Pain relief (codeine may be required as it is very sore). Antivirals inneffective
Prognosis =
Child may have a fever and become irritable, a day or two later ulcers develop on the lips and gums. These are painful and often lead to drooling and a refusal to eat or drink, dehydration can occur. The pain normally subsides after 3-4 days, the blisters usually take from 10 -14 days to go away. The blisters never leave scars.
A baby at day 25 of life develops a fever of 38.1, what do you do?
Discuss with registrar/consultant
Full sepsis work-up: FBE/film, blood culture, urine culture (SPA), LP ± CXR
Admit for empirical antibiotics
A child aged betwen 1 and 3 months presents with a fever of 38.1, what do you do?
- Discuss with registrar/consultant
- Full sepsis workup:
- FBE/film, blood culture, urine culture (SPA) ± CXR (only if respiratory symptoms or signs) ± LP
- Discharge home with review within 12 hours if the child is:
- Previously healthy
- Looks well
- WCC 5,000 - 15,000
- Urine microscopy clear
- CXR (if taken) clear
- CSF (if taken) negative
- If the child is unwell or above criteria are not all satisfied, admit to hospital for observation +/- empiric i.v. antibiotics
A 4 month old child presents with a fever but no clear focus of infection. What is your management?
A 7 year old child presents with oedema, frothy urine and serum hypoproteinaemia, what are the potential causes?
Idiopathic Nephrotic Syndrome (90% of presenting children)
- Minimal change disease
- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
- Also called steroid-sensitive nephrotic syndrome as 80+90% of cases will respond to initial steroid therapy
Non-idiopathic Nephrotic Syndrome (rare)
- Secondary
- SLE
- Henoch Schonlein Purpura
- Membranoproliferative GN
- Membranous nephropathy
- Congenital nephrotic syndrome
What is the prognosis of minimal change disease/focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?
- 80% of children with Minimal change will relapse
- Steroid-responsive patients have little risk of chronic renal failure
- Patients with FSGS may initially respond to steroids but later develop resistance
- Many children with FSGS progress to end-stage kidney failure
- Recurrence of FSGS occurs in 30% of children who undergo renal transplantation
What do you know about membranoproliferative glomerular nephropathy in kids?
What do you know about membranous glomerular nephropathy in kids?
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Characterised by hypocomplementemia (low C3 and C4) with signs of glomerular renal disease
5 to 15% of children with primary nephrotic syndrome
Typically persistent
Has a high likelihood of progression to renal failure over time
Membranous nephropathy
Less than 5% of children with primary NS
Seen most commonly in adolescents and children with systemic infections
Hep B, syphilis, malaria and toxoplasmosis
Or on specific medications
Gold, penicillamine
What are the clinical features and management of testicular torsion?
Usually neonates or teenagers
Sudden onset testicular pain and swelling; occasionally nausea, vomiting.
Note: pain may be in the iliac fossa, may be associated with sports activity
Discolouration of scrotum; exquisitely tender and swollen testis, riding high. Cremasteric reflex is usually absent.
Management: Early surgical consultation is vital, as delay in scrotal exploration and detorsion of a torted testis will result in testicular infarction within 8-12 hours. Keep the child fasted.
What is the management of pulled elbow?
- Perform a reduction manoeuvre (see below)
- expect distress and pain
- a click may be felt over the radial head
- review after ten minutes
- if reduction fails, consult with senior medical staff
https://youtu.be/-0ROu4hCXwQ
Colicky abdo pain, kid goes white when pain comes on, bilious vomiting
What is the diagnosis?
Intussusception
At what age does intussusception typically occur? What typically causes it?
Primary – ages 3 months – 2 year olds
Ileocaecal location
Idiopathic
Secondary – ages 4 years – 12 year olds
Ileoileul location
Mesenteric lymph nodes
HSP –> pathological lead point of submucosal haemorrhage
Meckels diverticula
Haemophilia –> submucosal haemorrhage
What is the management of intussusception?
- Fluid resuscitation
- Analgesia
- Air enema
- Definitive surgery if necessary
What is the best way to describe intussusception to parents?
Like a sock folding in on itself
When is meconium normally passed?`
99% in first day
Rest in second day
If not passed on 3rd day it’s a sign of abnormality
How do you differentiate between meconium ileus and hirschprungs?
In hirschprungs on rectal exam there is explosive discharge of flatus and faeces
What is the formal investigation to confirm hirschbrungs?
Suction rectal biopsy
A mother with a child with hirschprungs disease asks what the chances of her next baby having the condition, what do you say?
3-5%
What is the carrier rate for the cystic fibrosis gene in the Caucasian population?
What is the incidence in the genpop?
(This is frequently examined)
1/25
1/2500
What conditions are associated with duodenal atresia?
Cardiac defects
Down syndrome
How would you show an OSCE examiner that you had pyloric stenosis as a DDx in an OSCE?
Ask if either parent had pyloric stenosis when they were born.
The parents of a child with pyloric stenosis ask you what the chances of their next baby having the condition are, what do you say?
20% chance
What do you tell the parents of a child who has just had a Ramstedt procedure?
The vomiting may continue for 3 - 5 days, that is normal.
What is the most likely cause of vomiting in neonates in Monash OSCEs?
Immediately after birth = duodenal atresia
3 days after birth = malrotation with volvulus
First few days of life with failure to pass stools = MI or Hirschsprungs
3-4 weeks after birth = pyloric stenosis
What are the different RCH levels of dehydration and their associated clinical presentations?
Mild dehydration = No signs
Moderate dehydration = 4-6% depleted - Signs of dehydration
Severe dehydration is >= 7% depleted - Shock
For the purposes of calculation of fluid requirements use:
Mild - 3%
Moderate - 5%
Severe - 10%
A 6kg infant is moderately shocked, what IV fluids do you prescribe?
First: For shock give 10-20ml boluses of normal saline until signs of shock improve.
Second: Replace deficit, so for a 6kg kid if they’re moderately shocked that approx 5%, so their deficit is approx 300ml, give 300ml normal saline
Third: Give maintenance fluids using normal saline + 5% glucose. Using the 4,2,1 rule for a 6 kg infant that is 24ml/hr of normal saline + 5% glucose.
Monitor electrolytes daily and consider adding 20mmol K
What do you need to think about when prescribing maintenance IV fluids for kids in hospital?
In non-dehydrated children, consider using 2/3 maintenance doses in unwell children, especially those with pneumonia or meningitis.
Child with acute onset diarrheoa + abdo pain that has now been going for 16 days, what is the diagnosis?
Cryptosporidium
Giardia Lamblia
What are the features of diarhoea caused by salmonella species and shigella?
dysentery w blood, pus, pain and tenemus
What investigations do you order for a kid with acute onset diarrheoa?
Bedside
None
Bloods and urine
UECs and glucose a minimum if commencing any IV rehydration
Cultures
Faecal culture and MCS if significant abdominal pain, blood or mucus, or septic child
Faecal ova, cysts and parasites – if considering parasitic causes
C difficile toxin if recent use of antibiotics
A child had an an episode of diarrheoa, abdo pain and fever that came on suddenly and lasted for 3 days. It’s now two weeks later and they’re feeling better, but still having watery diarrheoa. What is the diagnosis?
What’s the management?
Post-gastroenteritis lactase deficiency
Mx - Lactose free diet for a few weeks
2 year old boy recently arrived from Iraq has a 1 year history of diarrhoea with significant weight loss. On examination he has a distended abdomen and wasted buttocks.
Coeliac disease!
James, an 18 month old child has chronic diarrheoa and a distended abdomen. You suspect coeliac disease, what investigations will you order?
Bedside
NA
Bloods
- (not anti TTG or IgA like normal as low sensitivity under 2 years)
- Anti Gliadin
- HLA testing
- Screen for T1DM and thyroid disease
- FBE
- May show microcytic or macrocytic anaemia from iron or folate deficiency
- U&E
- may reveal reduced concentrations of calcium, magnesium, total protein, albumin or vitamin D
Imaging
None
Special
Gastroscopy and small bowel biopsy
What is the management of coeliac disease?
Exclusion of gluten (barley, rye, wheat, and oats)
Dietary fortification – iron, folate, calcium and vitamin D
How common are undescended testes?
1/25 boys born
What are the (informal) criteria for admission for a child with bronchiolitis?
Parental anxiety
What question should you ask every parent who brings their child to you for review?
What worries you the most?
What is the clinical picture of a mycoplasma pneumonia in kids?
What antiobiotic do you use?
Subacute onset, prominent cough, +/- headache, +/- sore throat
Roxithromycin PO for 10 days
A child presents with non-specific symptoms and a fever of 38.6, you give them paracetemol in the ED. Do you care if the paracetemol brings the fever down? Do you care if the paracetemol changes anything else?
The response of fever to paracetemol is not significant, and is not an indicate of illness severity.
However, if the child was tachycardic and the paracetemol does not bring their HR down, you would consider myocarditis. If it was myocarditis admit them for monitoring and supportive care.
What conditions cause bilious vomiting in a child?
- malrotation and volvulus
- duodenal atresia (if obstruction distal to Ampulla of Vater 80% of cases)
- jejunoileal atresia
- meconium ileus
- necrotising enterocolitis
When does meconium usually pass?
The first stool is passed within 24 hours of birth in 99 percent of healthy full-term infants and within 48 hours in all healthy full-term infants. Failure of a full-term newborn to pass meconium within the first 24 hours should raise a suspicion of intestinal obstruction.
What is this?
What is the condition associated with?
How is it diagnosed?
What is the management?
Exophalos (omphalocoele) - large defect at the umbilicus with herniation of bowel and liver into a sac covered by fused amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
Associations
Prematurity/IUGR
30% will have CVS defects
Also associated with trisomy 13 and 18, renal abnormalities and other syndromes.
Diagnosis
Usually diagnosed on the 12 and 20 week scans.
Aim is to then monitor them and deliver them in a tertiary centre.
Management:
- Glad wrap
- NG decompression
- IV Ab and fluids
- Catheter to monitor fluid output
- Heater
- BSL
- Look for associated malformations
- Delayed operation (as often unstable initially).
- appendix is removed and the goal is to get it all inside the abdomen. This is not always possible and thus a ‘silo reduction’ may be used.
What is this?
What is it associated with?
How is it diagnosed?
What is the management?
Gastroschisis - defect immediately to the right of the umbilicus through which bowel (and sometimes gonads) herniate. There is no covering sac and the eviscerated small and large bowel is thickened and densely matted with exudate as the result of amniotic peritonitis before birth.
Associations
Prematurity/IUGR
Related to maternal drug use.
Diagnosis
Usually diagnosed on the 12 and 20 week scans.
Aim is to then monitor them and deliver them in a tertiary centre.
Management:
- Glad wrap
- NG decompression
- IV Ab and fluids
- Catheter to monitor fluid output
- Heater
- BSL
- Look for associated malformations
- Immediate operation
- appendix is removed and the goal is to get it all inside the abdomen. This is not always possible and thus a ‘silo reduction’ may be used.
What key developmental milestones do you know?
The 9 S’s of development
Neonate
6 weeks
3 months
6 months
9 months
12 months
18 months
3 years
5 years
What are the causes of petechiae in a child?
SHIELD + vWD
vWD less likely to be acute diagnosis. The story is “abnormally prolonged bleeding when prompted (like teeth brushing)” versus SHIELD which is acute onset petechiae
Why do you need to do a challenge test before prescribing a child desmopressin?
Because remember that desmopressin/DDAVP is just synthetic ADH. ADH causes aquaporins to be plugged in to the distal collecting tubule allowing for resorbtion of water which can cause dilutional hyponatremia. The challenge test it to make sure the kid doesn’t get hyponatraemic.
What are the causes of abdo pain in a pre-pubescent child?
ABCDEFGHI
- A - Appendicitis
- B – Balls (testicular torsion)
- C – Chest infection
- D – Diverticulum (Meckel’s) + DKA
- E – E.Coli (UTI)
- F – Faecal or urinary retention
- G - Gastroenteritis
- H – Hernias/HSP
- I – Intussusception + intestinal malrotation
What do you know about post gastro lactase deficiency?
- Following infectious diarrhoea, infants may have temporary lactose intolerance.
- This sequela of acute gastroenteritis used to be prominent in infants
- This may be due in part to early oral feeding which aids mucosal recovery.
- Clinical features of sugar intolerance include:
- Persistently fluid stool
- Excessive flatus
- Excoriation of the buttocks
- Typically, these infants appear well.
Breast feeding should continue unless there are persistent symptoms with buttock excoriation and failure to gain adequate weight. Formula-fed infants should be placed on a lactose-free formula for 3–4 weeks.
What is “toddler’s diarrheoa”, what is the management?
A clinical syndrome characterised by chronic diarrhoea often with undigested food in the stools of a child who is otherwise well, gaining weight and growing satisfactorily. Stools may contain mucus and are passed 3–6 times a day; they are often looser towards the end of the day.
Onset is usually between 8 and 20 months of age.
Management
Reassurance and explanation. No specific drug or dietary therapy has been shown to be of value in toddler diarrhoea.
A child presents with fever and malaise for 2 days. What are your systems review questions?
- Headache/neck stiffness/photophobia/Rash
- Cough, coryza, sore throat
- Dysuria/frequency
- Vomiting/diarrheoa/abdominal pain
- Joint or elsewhere pain?
- Contacts
- Travel
- Immunisations
- Intake/vomiting/urine production
How many hours after the onset of symptoms does irreversible ischaemic injury occur to a torted testicle?
6 hours
What are your differential diagnosis for an acute scrotum?
What are the distinguishing feartures on history and exam of each of these conditions that will help you differentially diagnose each of them?
-
Tumour
- painless
-
Henoch Schonlein purpura
- purpuric rash on testicle
-
Varicocele
- bag of worms, left side, teenager
-
Hydrocele
- transilluminates, soft, can feel testis
- Incarcerated inguinal hernia
-
Epididymoorchitis
- fever, nausea, vomiting, urinary symptoms
-
Torsion of the appendix testis (hydatid of Morgagni)
- More gradual onset. Focal tenderness at upper pole of testis; “blue dot” sign - necrotic appendix seen through scrotal skin.
-
Torsion
- Sudden onset testicular pain and swelling; occasionally nausea, vomiting. Discolouration of scrotum; exquisitely tender and swollen testis, riding high. Cremasteric reflex is usually absent.
-
Idiopathic scrotal oedema
- It usually affects boys between 5-9 years of age.
There is insidious onset of redness and swelling of perineum or inguinal region (groin), extending to scrotum. It may be itchy but is not often painful.
An 8 year old presents with an acute scrotum, what will you do on examination?
- observation of the patients gait and resting position
- natural position of the testis in the scrotum while standing
- presence or absence of cremasteric reflex (this is absent in torsion)
- palpation of lower abdomen, inguinal canal and cord
- palpation of scrotum and contents, compare with unaffected hemiscrotum
- transillumination
- Is the swelling reducible?
What are the causes of chronic diarrheoa in a child?
Without failure to thrive
- Infectious
- Bacterial - campylobacter, salmonella
- Antibiotic induced - C difficile colitis
- Parasitic - Giardia lamblia
- Post-infectious - secondary lactase deficiency
- Toddler’s diarrhoea
- Lactase deficiency (lactose intolerance)
- Irritable bowel syndrome - a diagnosis of exclusion in an older child/adolescent
Chronic diarrhoea with failure to thrive
- GI causes
- Coeliac disease
- Milk protein allergy - cow’s milk, soya protein, etc.
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- Pancreatic insufficiency –> Cystic fibrosis
- Others
- Thyrotoxicosis
- Food allergy
What is the paediatric clinical picture of coeliac disease?
The classical presentation is of a profound malabsorptive syndrome at 6-24 months of age after the introduction of wheat-containing weaning foods (e.g. steatorrhoea, vomiting in some cases).
- FTT with poor appetite
- Steatorrhoea
- Anorexia, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain
- Abdominal distention
- Buttock wasting
- General irritability, apathy and fatigue - consider Fe deficiency
Presentation is highly variable, and may be less acute later in childhood.
What causes constipation in kids?
What is the management?
Most commonly functional constipation (99%) - due to lack of fibre, poor fluid intake, behavioural things (especially around toilet training), and changes in diet (esp. when changing to cow’s milk).
Management
Clean out + maintain with stool softeners and adequate fibre. Address any underlying problems. This may need to be done multiple times.
What is the management of gastro in a child?
Basics
- Keep breastfeeding
- Regular small volume flood intake
- Ondansetron
Place and person
Admit the following:
- Infants with moderate-severe dehydration
- Diagnosis in doubt
- Those who are high risk of dehydration (keep in hospital for 4-6 hours):
- Infants
- Infants
- High frequency diarrhoea (8 per 24 hours)
- High frequency vomiting (>4 per 24 hours)
Investigations
- Mostly not required.
- UECs and glucose - if severe dehydration and needs resuscitation.
- If there is significant abdominal pain, or blood or mucus in the stools, or if the child appears septic
- Faecal culture
- Faecal leukocytes or blood
- Faecal ova, cysts and parasites - when considering parastic infections
- C difficile toxin (faecal) - if recent use of antibiotics
Definitive
Oral, NG or IV rehydration
There is no role for antibiotics in bacterial gastroenteritis.
Long term
Early feeding as soon as rehydrated reduces stool output and aids gut recovery. Anti-diarrhoeals and maxalon are not recommended.
At what age does foreskin typically become retractible?
What is the treatment of true phimosis?
The proportion of boys with retractile foreskins is: 40% at 1 year, 90% at 4 years and 99% at 15 years.
Management of true phimosis
- 0.05% betamethasone cream should be used twice daily for 2 to 4 weeks.
- Gently retract foreskin without causing any discomfort and apply a thick layer of cream to the tightest part of the foreskin.
- Circumcision (if significant phimosis and steroid creams fail)
What is smegma?
What is Balanitis?
Smegma = white/yellow lumps are called smegma and are made up of the cells that once attached the foreskin to the head of the penis. Smegma is normal and will eventually disappear. No treatment is needed.
Balanitis: severe inflammation of the glans penis +/- foreskin is often due to infection and is usually termed balanitis. Tx is Soaking in a warm bath with the foreskin retracted plus topical steroid.
What pathogens typically cause encephalitis in a child?
- Enterovirus
- HSV
- Other herpes viruses (EBV, CMV, HHV6, VZV)
- Arboviruses.
- Less commonly, encephalitis can be caused by bacteria, fungi or parasites.
What pathogens typically cause meningitis in kids below 2 months of age?
What about kids above 2months?
What empirical drugs do you use in each of these age groups?
Below 2 months of age
- Group B streptococcus
- E. coli and other Gram-negative organisms
- Listeria monocytogenes
- Plus the below….
Use cefotaxime and ben pen
Above 2 months of age
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Neisseria meningitidis
- Haemophilus influenzae type B (in unimmunised children)
- As a result of immunisations Hib meningitis is now rare and there has been a reduction in the incidence of pneumococcal meningitis.
Use ceftriaxone and dexamethasone
A mother has been told her child might have autism and wants to know if her child with have a low IQ, what do you say?
25% of people with autism will have normal/high IQ
75% will have some degree of intellectual disability
The child’s level of ability is often uneven, with areas of strength and weakness.
The mother of an 8month old boy with an inguinoscrotal hernia asks whether surgical intervention is really necessary and why do you need to repair the patent processus vaginalis, what do you tell her?
There are three problems:
- Protrusion of the bowel through the processus vaginalis can obstruct it’s blood supply causing necrosis/peritonitis/sepsis
- Obstruction of the processus vaginalis can put pressure on and ultimately obstruct the blood supply to the testicles and the spermatic cord, resulting in death of the testis and/or reduced fertility
- obviously there is the risk of bowel obstruction
What is this? What is the management?
Ballooning of the foreskin during urination due to physiological phimosis.
In itself is not a concern, no need for management, will resolve as phimosis resolves.
A 2 year old child has non-retractible foreskin, you advice the parents that this is normal, not to retract the foreskin for cleaning, and that it will resolve itself. But, you say, if it has not resolved by a certain age you can prescribe them something. At what age would you intervene and what would you prescribe.
4 years old, topical steroid.
How do you distinguish between an inguinoscrotal hernia and a hydrocele?
- Hernia is reducable (unless strangulated, in which case it will be extremely painful)
- Hydrocele is not reducable, it would take hours for you to squeeze the fluid back up the narrow patent processus vaginalisis
- Hydrocele transilluminates, hernia does not
- You can get above a hydrocele but not a hernia
- Hydrocele doesn’t really ever have to be fixed, but you do for cosmesis after age 2.
What is the clinical picture of NEC?
What do you see on Xray?
- Pre-term baby, typically in the 2nd-3rd week of life
- Infant stops tolerating feeds –> vomiting (bilious sometimes)
- Abdominal distention
- Rapidly becomes shocked
- Other features:
- Bloody stools
- Pneumatosis intestinalis - gas cysts in the bowel wall; diagnostic for NEC
- Diminished bowel sounds
- Signs of bowel perforation - sepsis, shock, peritonitis, DIC
Oesophageal atresia is usually associated with what other anatomical abnormality?
How do you confirm the diagnosis?
Tracheo-oesophageal fistula in 85% of cases
Diagnosis is confirmed by passing a large firm catheter through the mouth and finding that it cannot be passed more than about 10cm from the gums. A plain XRAY of the torso will show gas in the bowel (if there is distal TOF).
What is a SUFE?
What are the different ways to classify the condition?
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) is the most common hip disorder in the adolescent age group. It occurs when weakness in the proximal femoral growth plate allows displacement of the capital femoral epiphysis. The metaphysis displaces anteriorly and superiorly, leading to the slipped state.
There are a number of ways that SUFE can be classified
Stable vs unstable
The patient is able to weight bear on the affected leg (stable) versus unable to weight bear even with crutches (unstable).
Acute, chronic or acute on chronic
Acute = Sudden onset of severe symptoms and inability to weight bear
Chronic = Gradual onset and progression of symptoms for more than 3 weeks, without sudden exacerbation. This is the most common presentation (85% of patients with SUFE)
Acute on chronic = Sudden exacerbation of symptoms due to acute displacement of a chronically slipped epiphysis
Radiographical degree of displacement
Type I (0 to 33% displacement) Type II (34 to 50% displacement) Type III (\>50% displacement)
The likelihood of complications increases with displacement
A 12yo obese boy comes in with a sore hip, you think it’s a SUFE, what examination could you perform to confirm this?
A very reliable sign of chronic SUFE is detection of obligatory external rotation during flexion of the hip. As the hip is flexed on the affected side, the thigh will automatically rotate and abduct
What is the management of a SUFE?
Basics
Nil by mouth
Depending on severity, pain management according to WHO pain management ladder.
Place and person
Urgent orthopaedic referral
Investigate and confirm diagnosis
AP and frog lateral pelvis x-rays of both hips
Non-invasive management
The patient needs to be kept non-weight bearing
Definitive management
Immediate surgical screw fixation across the physis (within 24 hours)
What are the features of Tetralogy of Fallot? What are the features of Pentology of Fallot?
- pulmonary stenosis
- RVH
- VSD
- over-arching aorta
(5. ASD)
When and how does TOF tend to present?
When the child is >3 months of age
Presents as failure to thrive, reduced exercise tolerance, clubbing of fingers and tet spells.
They are not cyanosed at birth - may be cyanosed after 6-12 weeks
What is a Tet spell?
The classic story is severe, painful cyanosis on exertion/stress (feeding or crying).
Older children will classically squat in order to increase systemic resistance and reduce R–>L shunting
What is the management of Tet spells?
Basics
Comfort the child in a position with their hips and knees flexed to increase systemic resistance and thereby R–>L shunt.
Oxygen
IV fluids
B blockers
IM morphine
Place and Person
Refer to paediatric cardiac surgery
Ix and confirm diagnosis
With echocardiogram
Definitive management
Surgical
Long Term
Ongoing paediatric review
What chromosomal abnormality is TOF related to?
What else is related to this abnormality?
Deletion of the long arm of choromosome 22
What else is related? Think CATCH 22
Cardiac (TOD, TGA)
Abnormal facies
Thymic hypolasia (T cell deficiency)
Cleft palate
Hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism
What is the most common cyanotic congenital heart disease?
TOF
What are the murmurs / added heart sounds of a large and small VSD?
small VSD: loud pansystolic murmur
large VSD: softer pansystolic murmur + loud P2 (due to pulmonary hypertension)
What infections are transmitted through the birth canal at delivery?
GBS
E. Coli
Listeria
Hep B
HIV
What congenital infections can be transmitted transplacentally?
TORCHSHPV
Toxoplasmosis
Other
Rubella
CMV
HSV
Syphillus (treponema pallidum)
Hep B
Parvovirus B19
Varicella zoster
What do the placentally transmitted congenital infections cause?
What is the management of placentally transmitted congenital infections?
Generally, the earlier in gestation the foetus congenitally acquires a TORCH infection, the higher the risk of severe congenital abnormalities and developmental delay.
A conversation is therefore usually had with mothers (especially in the first trimester) about the option of termination.
Some TORCH infections can be treated in the neonate, but for the majority of TORCH infections the treatment is supportive and includes only management of complications.
What screening should be offered/recommended to pregnant women for congenital infections?
All mums - SARaH
Syphillus (assays)
Asymptomatic bacteruria (mid stream urine culture, treat empirially to avoid pyelonephritis)
Rubella (anti-Rubella antibodies)
HIV (Western blot and ELISA, give anti-retrovirals to mum, deliver by C-section)
Hep B (HB-sAG, vaccinate and give IgG in delivery room)
GBS (after 37 weeks)
High risk mums - SARaH + 1G, 3T, 4C
Gonorrheoa
Trichomoniasis, Toxoplasmosis & Thyroid function
Chlamydia, Hepatitis C, CMV and cervical abnormalities (pap smear)
What are the effects of toxoplasmosis infection on a foetus?
If 1st trimester low risk of transmitting to foetus but high rate of severe complications
If 3rd trimester high risk of transmitting the infection but low rate of severe complications
Diffiuse calcifications throughout the brain visible on USS
Seizures
Plus the general effects of TORCHSHPV
- Anaemia
- Hepatosplenomegaly
- Symmetrical IUGR (microcephaly)
- Developmental delay
- Sensorineural deafness
- Visual problems
What effect does congenitally acquired Rubella have on a foetus?
Outcome depends on gestation age at which it was transmitted.
- congenital rubella syndrome (>90%)
- 12-18/40 –> sensorineural deafness (20%)
- >18/40 –> complications rare
What effect does congenitally acquired CMV have on the foetus?
Periventricular calcifications
Symmetrical IUGR with microcephaly
Developmental delay
Hepatospleenomegaly
Anemia
Sensorineural hearing loss
Visual problems
What is the clinical picture of a baby who has contracted syphillis?
Rhinitis develops at 1 week and worsens. Initially clear then progressively purulent and blood stained.
Neurosyphillis
Bone problems
Maculopapular rash
What is the clinical picture of a foetus that has contracted Parvovirus B19?
Severe anaemia –> high output cardiac failure –> hydrops foetalis
How do you approach the causes of neonatal sepsis?
EARLY
Vertical transmission –> GBS, E coli, Listeria
Risk factors
- Maternal infection: UTI, GBS+
- Previous child with GBS sepsis
- Prolonged rupture of membranes (>18h)
- Preterm labour
LATE >5 days = ACQUIRED AFTER BIRTH
Staphylococcus, streptococcus (plus above pathogens)
Risk factors
- NICU stay (just like ICU stay causes infections)
- Foreign bodies eg ETT, catheters
- Malformations
What is the management of neonatal sepsis?
What tests would you do at the first antenatal assessment?
Every visit
- BP
- Weight
- Urine dipstick
- Foetal auscultation (after 12weeks)
- Foetal movements (after 18 weeks)
- Fundal height measurement (after 20 weeks)
Because it’s the first visit
- LNMP for dating (+ 1 year, - 3 months, + 7 days)
- ABO, Rh, Rh antibody levels
- FBE to screen for anaemia
- EPNDS
- Routine torch screening –> SARaH
- Syphilis
- Asymptomatic bacteruria (MSU culture)
- Rubella
- HIV
- Hep B
-
If high risk, additional TORCH screening –> 1G, 3T, 4C
- Gonorrheoa
- Trichomoniasis, Toxoplasmosis & Thyroid function
- Hep C, chlamydia, CMV, cervical abnormalities (pap smear)
What are the diagnostic criteria for encopresis?
- at least 1 episode of faecal incontinence per week
- history of retentive posturing
- large and/or painful and/or hard bowel movements
- large faecal mass in rectum
What are the potential complications of GORD in infants?
oesophagitis
failure to thrive
aspiration
What is colic?
Crying is normal physiological behaviour in young infants. At 6 - 8 weeks age, a baby cries on average 2 - 3 per 24 hours. Excessive crying is defined as crying >3 hours/day for >3 days/week. This is often referred to as “colic”. However, many babies present with lesser amounts of crying, as the parents perceive it as excessive.
What symptoms would make you worry about GORD in a baby with GOR?
- Pronounced irritability with arching
- Refusal to feed / failure to thrive
- Feeding and behavioural problems
- Weight loss or crossing percentiles
- Haematemesis
- Chronic cough/wheeze
- apnoeas
What is the management of GORD in infants?
Non-invasive management
- Prone position after feeding (supervised)
- Milk thickening agents (eg. rice cereal) reduce the number of episoes of vomiting but not the total time of oesophageal acidity
- Don’t encourage parents to change formulas
- Never change a breastfed child to formula
Definitive management
PPIs relieve symptoms and assist mucosal healing
Omeprazole
Under 10kg: 5mg daily
10-20kg: 10mg daily
Over 20kg: 20 mg daily
Surgical
Failure of medical therapy or recurrent respiratory symptoms (aspiration) may necessitate Nissen fundoplication:
What are the most causes of “colic”/excess crying in an infant?
Most common - benign
- Tiredness
- Hunger - this is more likely if a mother reports:
- inadequate milk supply
- poor weight gain
- baby has frequent feeds (ie,
Also consider
- GORD
- Cows milk intolerance
- Check if vomiting, blood/mucus in diarrhoea, poor weight gain, family history in first degree relative, signs of atopy (eczema / wheezing), significant feeding problems
- Lactose intolerance (rare)
If Acute onset consider:
- UTI
- Otitis media
- Raised intracranial pressure
- Hair tourniquet of fingers / toes
- Corneal foreign body / abrasion
- Incarcerated inguinal hernia
What is the classic triad of intssusception?
colicky abdominal pain, currant jelly stool, palpable abdominal mass
Describe the management of suspected intussusception
What are the Ix for suspected intussception?
What are the risk factors for NEC?
Prematurity and low birth weight
Feeding (especially enteral/cow’s milk/early formula)
Infection/ sepsis
Bowel ischemia
Hypotension and congenital heart disease
Hypoxia/respiratory distress/ birth asphyxia
What is the relationship between gestational age and weight and NEC
The incidence of NEC is inversely proportional to birth weight. In general, the age of onset is inversely proportional to gestation; therefore smaller babies present later.
90% of babies with NEC are preterm.
What is the management of NEC
Basics
NBM (gut rest)
NGT (drainage)
Insert IV line for fluids and to take sample for FBE & blood cultures
Place and Person
Refer to paeds gastroenterology / surgery
Investigate and confirm diagnosis
AXR is gold standard
Rationalise ABx once cultures back
Definitive management
Empirical antibiotic therapy:
Metronidazole
Ampicillin
Gentamycin
Only in stage 3B disease:
Surgery to resect affected section with stoma diversion and abscess drainage if needed
What are the buzz words for pyloric stenosis?
Projectile, non-bilious vomiting
First born, Caucasian male with a positive family history
Hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis (also get hyponatraemia too, but not included in the buzz word)
When does pyloric stenosis generally present?
Usually between 2-6 weeks of life
What is the clinical picture o pyloric stenosis?
A sudden onset of vomiting between 2 and 6 weeks of life.
Before the onset of vomiting, these infants feed well and are thriving.
The infant then loses weight (or inadequately gains weight) and becomes dehydrated
Projectile, non bilious vomiting. May contain altered blood.
“Hungry vomiters” – vomit immediately after feeding, and then are hungry again
May be constipated (not absolute)
Examination
Palpable, mobile pyloric tumour in the midline of the epigastrium between the rectus abdominal muscles OR the right rectus and the liver edge (“olive”)
What do you assess to determine the hydration status of a baby?
Behaviour/demeanour
HR/BP
Cap refill (check centrally)
Sinking of the anterior fontanelle and eyes
Tear production/Urine output
Skin turgour
Mucus membranes
Weight loss
What are the Ix for suspected pyloric stenosis?
Usually a clinical diagnosis
Bedside
ABG –> hypochloremic, hyponatremic, hypokalaemic, metabolic alkalosis
BGL
Bloods and urine
FBE
UEC –> hydration
Coags
Imaging
Ultrasound
If very unsure you can do a barium meal (not usually needed)
What is the relevance of metabolic derangement in the surgical management of pyloric stenosis?
It is particularly important to fully correct serum bicarbonate before theatre because of the risk of hypoventilation/ apnoeas post-operatively in the setting of metabolic alkalosis.
What is the management of pyloric stenosis?
Medical (not surgical) emergency
Basics
IV access and fluid resusc if required and as directed by UEC/ABG results
NBM
NG tube if continuing to vomit
Place and person
Paediatric gastroenterology, admit
Definitive
Pyloromyotomy (Ramstedt operation).
What fluid and what rate would you use for bolus IV therapy in a child?
10-20ml/kg of normal (0.9%) saline, which may be repeated
How do you calculate maintenance fluid requirements in a child?
Baby has bilious vomiting, what is the diagnosis?
Malrotation + volvulus until proven otherwise!
What is the clinical presentation of malrotation and volvulus?
History
Presents day 1-3 of life (60–80% of all cases of malrotation present in the first month of life, mostly in the first week.)
Bilious vomiting (malrotation until proven otherwise!)
No dirty nappies once there is volvulus
Rectal bleeding (a late symptom/sign)
Abdominal pain
Examination
Abdominal distension (late sign)
Peritonism (late sign)
What imaging would you order for suspected malrotation/volvulus?
What would you expect to see?
AXR - non-specific, gas in bowel, can get “double bubble sign”
Barium swallow - corkscrew sign
USS - whirlpool sign
What is the management of malrotation/volvulus?
Basics
NBM
NGT – check aspirates for bile
Insert IV and commence fluids
Place and person
Admit and refer to paediatric surgeon
Ix
ABG
Septic screen
Blood group and hold
Definitive management
Urgent surgical correction with follow up
Ladd procedure: untwist counter-clockwise, divide Ladd’s band, widen mesentery attachment, appendicectomy, and replace the bowel in the right location.
Where there is necrotic bowel second laparotomy performed in 24-48hrs later to see if viable gut can be saved – resection
What are your differentials for vomiting in a paediatric case?
Gastro
FAMINE HIP GAIT
Neurological
Increased ICP
Infectious
Gastroenteritis
Meningitis
Pertussis (post tussive cough)
Endocrinological
DKA
Errors of Inborn Metabolism
Psychogenic / Behavioural
Overfeeding in infants
Bulaemia in adolescents
Pregnancy in adolescents
What are the GIT causes of vomiting in a paeds case?
FAMINEHIPGAIT
What can you do for supportive therapy in a child with a respiratory infection?
Oxygen therapy if hypoxic
Assisted ventilation if increased work of breathing
NG feeding if poor feeding
NG or IV fluids if dehydrated
What are the causes of stridor in a child?
ABCDEFGH
What is the generic management of a bowel obstruction in a child, let’s say a 7yo girl?
Basics
DRSABCD
NBM
Place and person
Transport to surgical unit via NETS
Ix
ECG, ABG, BGL
FBE, UEC, LFTs, LDH, Coags, Group and hold
AXR, CT, USS
Definitive
-
Drip and suck-
- NBM and NG tube suction - relieves any respiratory distress from abdominal distension (may also be caused by vomit aspiration)
- Rapid IVF resuscitation with boluses of 10mL/kg given at 15 minute intervals if shocked otherwise give maintenance and mL by mL match for NGT losses.
- Glucose- monitor BSLs and glucose solution should be given with IVF (glucose stores low, no absorption –> anaerobic metabolism)
- Correct Hypothermia
- monitor temperature and have overhead heater
- Correct acidosis
correction of fluid loss, hypothermia and glucose will correct acidosis
- Sepsis
- if at risk administer IV Abx after cultures taken
- Surgical correction if required- according to cause
What are the internationally recognised warning signs of autism in an infant?
What are the complications of IUGR?
- Prematurity issues
- Asphyxia
- Meconium aspiration syndrome
- Hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia
- Hypothermia
- Polycythaemia
- Impaired immune function
- BM suppression
- NEC
- Mechanism = hypoxic gut as foetus shunts blood to brain
- Neurodevelopmental
- Cerebral palsy
- Learning and behavioural issues
- Foetal origins of adult dz
- DM, HT, obesity, CAD, hypercholesterolaemia
What is the acronym for interviewing a teenager?
Plus also ask about sleep
What are the screening questions for eating disorder?
SCOFF
Do you make yourself Sick because you feel uncomfortably full?
Do you worry you have lost Control over how much you eat?
Have you recently lost more than One stone (6.35kg) in a three month period?
Do you believe yourself to be Fat when others say you are thin?
Would you say Food dominates your life?
Plus to screen for bulimia nervosa:
Are you satisfied with your eating pattern?
Do you ever eat in secret?
What are the complications of eating disorders in paeds?
The 5 Hs
- Height (growth retardation)
- Heart (arrythmia, QT, bradycardia, hypotension)
- Happy Bones (irreversible osteoporosis)
- Hormones (osteporosis, hypothyroid, delayed puberty/amenorrheoa)
- Heads (poor concentration, slowed mentation)
What are the red flags for abuse in an injured child?
History provided not consistent with injury
Delay in presentation
Claims that injury caused by young sibling
Denial that it is an injury
Multiple injuries of different types and ages
Injuries not consistent with developmental age
Child brought in by person other than parent
Shaken baby syndrome –> subdural haematoma + retinal haemorrhage
What are the normal nap patterns for babies?
How do you take a sleep history from a child?
What are the general considerations in approaching epilepsy in a child
Unless it is catastrophic epilepsy, early treatment does not change long term outcome
Be hesitant to make a diagnosis because it will change a child’s life forever
Epilepsy will declare itself by progression or resolution.
What is the most important feature of headache in determining aetiology and how would you interpret it?
Time course
Red is raised ICP
Green is migraine
Blue is muscular
Severity
Best to ask what they did during the headache to determine severity (confined to dark room = severe)
Apart from headache what are the symptoms of migraine in a child?
Relief by sleep
Dizziness/pallor
Abdo pain
Nausea and vomiting
Prodrome
Characteristic location of pain
What are the most common causes of URTIs?
Rhinovirus
Adenovirus
Influenza and parainfluenza
RSV
Enterovirus
EBV
Streptococci
What differentials should you always consider for a febrile child?
- ear, nose, or throat infection
- acute respiratory infection
- gastroenteritis
- urinary tract infection
- meningitis
- osteomyelitis / septic arthritis
Baby/child with a CRP > 80, what do you think?
Bacterial infection
What do you need to consider about the utility of urine dipstick in a child?
Urine dipstick not useful in babies under 1 because they pee as soon as urine created which means not enough time for bacteria/WCC to accumulate
Can cause false negative!
What are the differentials for fever + blotchy/spotty rash in a child?
MR SARS EEK!
- Measles
- Rubella
- Systemic JCA (Still’s disease)
- Allergy
- Roseola infantum (HHV6)
- Scarlet fever
- Erythema infectiosum (Parvovirus B19)
- Erythema multiforme
- Kawasaki disease
What are the complications of Kawasaki disease?
Mild, diffuse dilatation of coronary arteries usually begins on day 10 from fever onset. If left untreated, 25% of these patients progress to true aneurysms, with 1% becoming ‘giant aneurysms’ (>8 mm internal diameter). These giant aneurysms have the worst prognosis, with risk of acute thrombosis and long-term risk of myocardial ischaemia
- Carditis during the febrile phase
- myocarditis with ST-T changes (25%)
- pericardial effusions (20-40%)
- valvular dysfunction (1-2%)
- cardiac failure (~5%)
- Coronary vessel abnormalities (occur in 20% of cases if untreated and
- aneurysm formation
- may lead to fatalities from
- thrombosis,
- rupture or
- ischemia-related dysrhythmia
- may lead to fatalities from
What is Scarlet fever?
Rash from strep throat.
Tx with phenoxymethylpenicillin (PO) or benzathine penicillin (IM) to prevent post strep GN or acute rheumatic fever
What are the differentials for fever + vesicular rash in a child?
Hand, foot and mouth
Chickenpox
Herpes simplex
(Remember: vesicular just means blistering)
What are the signs/symptoms of meningitis in a child?
Fever
Stiff neck*/Kernig’s sign
Bulging fontanelle
Irritable
Drowsiness
Poor feeding/vomiting
Palpable non-blanching purpuric rash => meningococcal meningitis
Convulsions/coma/shock –> consider meningitis
Stiff neck is not relevant in infants
What are the different patterns of CSF results in a child with viral/bacterial/TB meningitis?
What are the acute and long term complications of meningitis?
What is the relationship between immune development and prematurity?
Transplacental transfer of IgG happens in the third trimester. Very premature babies can miss out on this process rendering them very vulnerable to infection
NB: The process is actually active and means that the baby ends up with a higher concentration of IgG than their mum!
What would be considered febrile in a child younger than 3 months?
What would you do with a child 2.5 months old with T38.2 degrees
> 38.0 degrees
INVESTIGATE IT!
FBE
blood culture
CRP
Urine dipstick/Urine MCS
CXR only if respiratory signs are present
stool culture, if diarrhoea is present
What is bronchiolitis and what age kids does it affect?
Viral lower respiratory tract infection
Up to 18 months
What pathogens cause bronchiolitis?
RSV
Picornovirus
Human metapneumovirus
Adenovirus –> bad because causes bronchiolitic obliterans!
Parainfluenza
Influenza
What are the risk factors for bronchiolitis?
Exposure to cigarette smoke
Maternal smoking during pregnancy
Prematurity
Chronic cardiorespiratory diseases (including congenital heart disease and cystic fibrosis)
Immunodeficiency
What investigations are required for bronchiolitis?
None, clinical diagnosis
However, nasopharyngeal aspirate is usually done because we like to know which viruses are doing the rounds in the community and to rule out pertussis (which is life threatening to infants)
What is the management of bronchiolitis?
Basics
- Oxygen therapy if hypoxic
- Assisted ventilation if increased work of breathing
- NG feeding if poor feeding
- NG or IV fluids if dehydrated
Person and Place
Admit to paeds ward if patient requires any of the above, or if concerned
Investigations and Diagnosis
Clinical diagnosis, NPA if required to isolate virus or exclude pertussis
Definitive Management
Supportive management only.
Usually resolves within a week.
Long-Term Management
RSV is a highly infectious virus, ensure good hand hygiene to prevent spread.
Ensure immunizations are up to date
What are the differentials for wheeze in a young child?
Bronchiolitis / bronchitis
Asthma / viral induced wheeze
Viral pneumonitis
Croup (can cause wheeze)
Pneumonia
Pertussis
Bronchiomalacia/tracheomalacia
Cardiac failure
CF or other suppurative lung dz
Recurrent aspiration
Inhaled foreign body
What ages does croup typically occur?
6 months to 12 years of age, with a peak incidence at age 2
What is the significance of hypoxia in croup?
If you’re thinking about hypoxia the croup is life threatening.
Adequate SPO2 should not be reassuring – low oxygen saturations is a BAD sign.
What pathogens cause croup?
Parainfluenza
Influenza
Adenovirus
What is the clinical presentation/natural history of croup?
- Begins with coryzal symptoms for 1-2 days
- Fever is generally low grade (38-39) – no signs of toxicity
- Barking cough – usually begins at night or early hours of morning. Peaks at day 2 and 3 of disease
- It takes two or three days before the sub-glottic area narrows enough to cause the barking cough
- It happens first at night, usually, because we have reduced upper airway tone when we sleep
- Inspiratory stridor is heard as the disease progresses
- The viral illness typically lasts 7-10 days, but the typical croupy cough only lasts 2-3 nights
- May have associated widespread wheeze, increased work of breathing and hypoxia – child may become distressed and restless, cyanosis is a late and ominous sign
- Recurrent spasmodic croup
- ‘Upper airway hyperresponsiveness’
- No viral prodrome
- Children are well when they go to bed, and wake up in the early hours of the morning with a barking cough and stridor
- Fever is unusual in this form of croup
- Children often have asthma or atopy, or a FHx of asthma and atopy
What are the investigations for croup?
None, dont distress the kid!
How do you differentiate croup from epiglottitis?
What is the management of croup?
Basics
Minimal handling
Oxygen is not usually required unless severe obstruction
IV access should be deferred
Place and person
Grade 1 – manage at home
Grade 2 – admit to hospital via ED
Grade 3 – admit to ICU
If having to administer oxygen, contact anesthetics!
If having to administer a second dose of adrenaline, contact anaethetics!
Investigate and confirm diagnosis
Clinical diagnosis
Non-invasive management
Keep child relaxed
Definitive management
Mild to moderate
Oral prednisolone 1mg/kg
OR Oral dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg – 0.6mg/kg
Severe
- Oxygen
- Nebulised adrenaline 1:1000 solution
- Works by vasoconstriction
- Beware of possible rebound effect after 2-3 hours – must observe
- This is more symptomatic treatment to buy you time
- Dexamethasone IV 0.2mg/kg
- Follow with oral steroids
- ETT if going into respiratory failure
Long term
Consider transfer when no improvement following nebulized adrenaline
Discharge requirements
Four hours post nebulized adrenaline
Half hour post oral steroid
Stridor free at rest
Recurrent-Spasmodic Croup
Usually don’t require treatment as attacks are very short-lasting. But can treat the same as acute viral croup. Some evidence to suggest that ICS may reduce frequency of attacks, but children will most likely grow out of this.
Who does pertussis affect?
Most common age group in community is adolescents and young adults, but not dangerous for this group except for being vector
Under 12 months deadly
Under 6 months VERY deadly
Discuss the transmission of pertussis?
Transmission: Direct contact with droplet discharges
Highly contagious – spreads to 80-90% of susceptible individuals coming in contact with disease
Describe the natural history of pertussis?
Catarrhal stage (7-14 days)
- Anorexia
- Rhinnorrhoea
- Conjunctivitis/lacrimation
- Dry cough
Paroxysmal stage (about 4 weeks)
- Paroxysms of severe coughing with inspiratory ‘whoop’
- Vomiting (after coughing)
- Coughing mainly at night
- Lymphocytosis
Convalescent stage
- Chronic cough which may last for weeks
What tests do you use for pertussis?
FBE –> lymphocytosis
CXR to exclude pneumonia
Culture and/or PCR of nasopharygeal aspirate (within 1 week from onset of cough). Both of these tests have 70% sensitivity
What is the management of pertussis?
Basics
ABC
Place and person
If younger than 6 months – hospitalization
School exclusion until at least 5 days of antibiotic use
Investigate and confirm diagnosis
Nasopharygeal aspirate
FBE, IgA serology
CXR – to exclude pneumonia
Non-invasive management
Good ventilation
Avoid emotional excitement or distress
Avoid overfeeding during paroxysmal stage
Definitive management
- Pertussis infection (Group B disease) requires written notification within five days of diagnosis.
- Antibiotics minimize transmission but do not effect course of disease
- Azithromycin 500 mg 5 days OR
- Clarithromycin 7 days
Prophylaxis
Same treatment as above for household and other close contacts if commenced within 3 weeks of onset of cough in the patient
Prevention
- Acellular pertussis is part of the immunization schedule
- Initial protection
- 2, 4 and 6months
- Booster (dTpa)
- 4 years
- 10-15 years
- Parents or household contacts of newborns
What are the complications of pertussis?
Pneumonia
Atelectasis
Pneumothorax
Seizure
Asphyxia
Apnoea/bradycardia
Rib fracture
Encephalopathy
Otitis media
What is the treatment for infrequent episodic asthma?
SABA PRN only, NO ROLE FOR PREVENTER IT IS NOT EFFICACIOUS
What is the stepwise pharmacological management of childhood asthma?
Step 1: RELIEVER
SABA
Step 2: PREVENTOR
Low dose ICS (200 – 400mcg / day)
OR LTRA
OR inhaled cromone
Step 3: ADD OR INCREASE STEROID
Increase ICS (Double: 400 – 800mcg / day)
LTRA / inhaled cromone + low dose ICS
Step 4: ALL PREVENTORS AND HIGHEST ICS DOSE
LTRA / cromone + ICS (800mcg)
Step 5: ADD SYMPTOM CONTROLLER / ORAL STEROIDS
LABA (not in children
What is the correct definition of asthma?
Rrecurrent wheezing episodes which are responsive to salbutamol.
Is asthma more prevalent in males or females?
Boys generally have smaller airways than girls and tend to suffer more from asthma. However, after adolescence the prevalence is higher in females.
What are the side effects of inhaled corticosteroids in children?
Very safe, almost not clinically significant long term side effects
Hoarseness and pharyngeal candidiasis are not common
Treatment beginning before puberty is associated with a small (mean approximately 1 cm) reduction in adult height
What is the genetic inheritance of cystic fibrosis?
autosomal recessive
What are the clinical manifestations of cystic fibrosis?
What are the complications of cystic fibrosis?
MR PANCREAS
M - Meconium ileus (at birth) and distal intestinal obstruction (children and adults)
R - Recurrent infections
P - Pancreatic failure (exocrine and endocrine)
A - Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
N - nasal polyps and recurrent sinusitis
C - Cirrhosis of hepatobiliary system
E - Emotions (teenagers often depressed) and electrolyte disturbances (low Na+)
A - Airway leaks (pneumothorax)
S - Sterility in males
What is the management of cystic fibrosis?
Basics
NA
Place and person
Referral to
- Respiratory physician
- Chest physiotherapy
- Dietitian
Investigate and confirm diagnosis
Sweat test and genotyping
Non-invasive management
- Chest physiotherapy
- Monitoring and optimizing nutrition
- High intake of dietary fat
- Pancreatic enzyme supplements
- Fat soluble Vitamin supplements
Definitive management
- For respiratory infections
- S. aureus infection
- Di/flucloxacillin
- S. aureus and Haemophilus influenzae infection
- Augmentum or trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
- Initial pseudomonal infection
- Ciprofloxacin PLUS
- Tobramycin by nebulizer OR
- Colistimethate sodium by nebulizer
- Chronic pseudomonal exacerbation
- Ciprofloxacin PLUS
- Tobramycin by nebulizer OR
- Colistimethate sodium by nebulizer OR
- Gentamicin by nebulizer
- S. aureus infection
Long term
- Respiratory
- Daily chest physiotherapy
- Aerosolised mucolytics
- Dornase alfa
- Nebulised hypertonic saline
- Inhaled bronchodilators
- Inhaled corticosteroids
Chronic pseudomonal infection
Azithromycin orally 3 times weekly
GORD
PPI
What is this and what is the treatment?
Exomphalos is a type of abdominal wall defect. It occurs when a child’s abdomen does not develop fully while in the womb.
Tx = surgical correction in first 2 days of life
This baby has just been born, what is the diagnosis and management?
Hydrocele. It will self resolve. But you must make sure to rule out testicular torsion.
What is this? What is the management?
Gastroschisis
Urgent surgical repair
What is this? Is it always abnormal?
Phimosis (the foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans penis). Most kids born with non-retractile foreskin. Normal up until puberty. If not loosening by age 4 prescribe steroid cream to promote loosening of the skin.
What is this? What is the management?
Paraphimosis (the foreskin becomes trapped behind the glans penis, and cannot be reduced).
Management:
Apply local or general anaesthetic, compress the oedema (may have to apply pressure for >5 mins) to drain the fluid. If that fails contact paeds surg to puncture the skin with a needle and aspiration fluid. Then replace the foreskin.
What are the causes of cyanotic heart disease in infants?
1,2,3,4,5 T’s
1 vessels (Truncus arteriosus)
2 vessels swap (Transposition of the Great Arteries)
3 = Tricuspid atresia
4 = Tetralogy of Fallot
5 words (Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return)
What are the causes of acyanotic heart disease in kids?
You diagnose a child with a septal defect (either atrial or ventricular), what is the physiology of the condition and what is your initial management?
Septal defects cause L –> R shunts
ACEi, diuretics to reduce preload and strain on right heart plus feeding to increase baby’s weight ready for surgical correction
How is a patent ductus arteriosis usually picked up?
What is the problem with a patent ductus arteriosis?
Identified if infant experiences heart failure, or later in life because doctor hears machinery murmur or notices wide pulse pressure (caused by the run-off of blood flow from the aorta to the pulmonary artery during diastole).
What is the problem?
Blood flows from the high pressure aorta into the low pressure pulmonary artery, overloading pulmonary circulation and causing pulmonary hypertension and heart failure (dyspeneoa, FTT, recurrent infections). If not picked up until adulthood pulmonary hypertension can be a significant issue.
Children with a small PDA are often asymptomatic, but may develop Infective Endocarditis.
You hear a machinery murmur in a 3 month old, what investigations would you do?
Bedside tests
ECG – normal with small PDAs.
Left ventricular hypertrophy with larger PDAs
Bloods and urine
Nil
Imaging
CXR – full pulmonary artery silhouette and increased pulmonary vascularity. Cardiomegaly may be present in a larger shunt.
Echocardiography – visualise the PDA to confirm diagnosis
Special tests
Nil
What is the management of patent ductus arteriosis?
Premature infants
- IV indomethacin in patients with very low birth weight
- IV indomethacin or ibuprofen of premature infants of larger weight
- Treatment can be given before evidence of a PDA becomes evident
- Prophylactic indomethacin might increase ductal closure and decrease the incidence of intraventicular haemorrhage
Term infants
- In asymptomatic or symptomatic patients, percutaneous catheter closure is the first-line treatment in order to treat heart failure and prevent elevated pulmonary pressures or endarteritis.
- Infants who are symptomatic and too small to undergo percutaneous device closure need ACEi/diuretic treatment and feeding until they are large enough for surgical management
Aortic coarctation
When does it present?
How does it present?
What is the management?
When does it present?
If severe: acute circulatory collapse at 2 days of life after being previously well (duct closure). This is the usual scenario.
If mild: Later in life, often discovered when pt is being investigated for refractory hypertension. The later the abnormality is discovered the harder the HTN is to treat.
How does it present?
Sick baby
Hypertension
Unequal BP between arms
Absent femoral pulses
Severe metabolic acidosis
May have an ejection systolic murmur between the shoulder blades
MGMT?
ABC, prostaglandins, urgent surgery
What is the management of hypoplastic left heart syndrome?
The Norwood operation, which connects the aorta and the returning pulmonary veins to the R heart – a one chamber heart!
Usually receives follow up operations at 3 months and 6 years
How does blood flow typically work in infants with interruption of the aortic arch?
What is the management of this condition?
In the immediate newborn period blood flows through the ‘Ductus’ into the Descending Aorta and hence reaches the lower part of the circulation.
Fortunately these babies usually have a VSD, meaning that the blood that flows through the pulmonary artery, though the ductus and into the descending aorta is at least partly oxygenated.
As the ductus closes after birth blood pressure in the lower circulation becomes inadequate and severe symptoms develop.
Most affected infants develop severe symptoms (difficulty breathing and impaired kidney function) in the first week of life and need urgent surgery
Mx = ABC, prostaglandins, surgery in days
What is the clinical presentation of hypoplastic left heart syndrome?
Presents early in life (usually D2 when duct closes) as the “shocked neonate” – dusky colour, weak or absent pulses, low BP, reduced UO, metabolic acidosis
Obstructive heart diseases in neonates are usually XXX which means they often present XXXXX when XXXX happens…..
duct dependent
In the first week of life
When the ductus closes
Describe the murmur of VSD
Small VSD – high pitched pan-systolic murmur, associated with a thrill
Large VSD – Quiet pansystolic murmur, heave
What is the most common heart defect?
What is the most common heart defect in babies with downs syndrome?
VSD in both
What is the management of VSD?
Small –> conservative management and monitoring
Large –> surgical repair
What are the forms of ASD and which form is most common?
Secundem (most common)
Primium (AVSD)
What is the management of ASDs?
Most affected children are free of any major symptoms, but the risk of heart failure developing later in life makes closure desirable, unless the defect is very small. These defects may be repaired surgically or by using an expanding plug (“Device”), which can be inserted through a heart catheter without an operation (Device Closure)
What are the causes of cyanosis in the neonate?
OH CRAP THAT BABY IS BLUE!
DONT SWEAR IN FRONT OF THE BABY!
OH, I SAID, CRIP
- *C**yanotic Heart Disease (1,2,3,4,5 Ts)
- *R**espiratory disease (Meconium aspiration syndrome, pulmonary hypoplasia)
- *I**nfection (GBS)
- *P**ersistent pulmonary HTN of the newborn (PPHN)
What is the workup (exam and investigations) of a cyanosed neonate?
What are the abnormalities in Tetralogy/Pentology of Fallot
Pulmonary stenosis
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Overriding aorta
VSD
Pentology –> ASD
What is the classical presentation of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Murmur, cyanosis or congestive heart failure, typically develops over the first 6-12 weeks of life
If mild disease not picked up until later childhood. Presentation at this stage is characterised by FFT, clubbing of the fingers, reduced exercise tolerance and ‘Tet spells’
What is the management of a Tet spell?
Comfort the child
Rest younger infants against the parents shoulders with knees tucked in
Encourage older children to squat
O2, IV fluids
Beta-blockade and ICU support may be required
IM morphine can reduce pain and venous return
Phenylephrine is last line*
*Used to increase systemic venous resistance by direct simulation of peripheral alpha-adrenergic receptors.
The goal is to increase the systemic vascular resistance above the resistance of the pulmonary outflow tract so that blood in the right ventricle preferentially flows through the pulmonary circulation, rather than across the ventricular septal defect and into the systemic circulation.
What are the complications of TOF?
Heart failure is rare. But cyanosis –> polycythemia –> thromboembolism can occur. Infective endocarditis and cerebral abscess too!
What genetic abnormality is associated with TOF? What are the other features of this genetic condition?
CATCH 22q11 (Di George Syndrome)
Tetralogy of Fallot is famously associated with the deletion of the long arm chromosome 22
Cardiac anomalies (tetra, transpos)
Abnormal facies
Thymic hypolasia (T cell deficiency)
Cleft palate
Hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism
What is the management of transposition of the great arteries?
Prostaglandins
Atrial baloon septostomy
Arterial switch is definitive surgical correction at 6-9 months
What ECG findings are there in TOF?
What murmur is heard in TOF?
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Coarse ES murmur on ULSE
What do you know about pulmonary atresia?
- This defect is a form of Tetralogy of Fallot
- Blood cannot enter the pulmonary circulation via the pulmonary valve.
- Blood entering the right ventricle moves into the left ventricle via an ASD/VSD or foramen ovale, is pumped via the left ventricle and then shunts back to the pulmonary circulation via the PDA.
- Survival depends on the ductus remaining open in the early days of life
- Cyanotic heart disease
- Surgical correction with a shunt is required immediately, with complete repair performed after age 1.
What do you know about truncus arteriosis?
A single ventricular outflow tract straddles a large VSD.
It has an abnormal valve.
Presents in newborn period with mild cyanosis and congestive heart failure.
The abnormal valve is often stenosed (systolic murmur) and may be regurgitant (diastolic murmur).
Urgent surgery
You examine a 2 year old and find:
Fixed splitting of S2
May have murmur at the upper left sternal edge
What is the diagnosis and management?
ASD
If symptomatic or causing R ventricular dilation, catheter closure at 3-5 years
Partial AVSD needs surgery at 3 years
Complete AVSD: 3-5 months
You examine a 2 month old and find:
Loud, pansystolic murmur with a thrill (in a patient with no symptoms)
What is the management?
Small VSD
Usually no treatment required, spontaneous closure
You examine a 2 month old and find:
Softer pansystolic murmur with a loud P2. R sided heave and heart failure. Cardiomegaly on CXR
What is the diagnosis, what is the manamagement?
Large VSD
Diuretics, captopril
Extra calories
Surgery at 3-6 months
Explain the splitting of the second heart sound
- Normally, the pulmonary valve closes a little after the aortic (A2, P2).
- During inspiration, venous return in increased at the R ventricle takes a little longer to empty.
- Blood pools in the lower pressures of the pulmonary circuit, reducing return to the left heart, which now finishes emptying a little sooner.
- Therefore, the split normally widens on inspiration
- During expiration, the right heart is given the chance to catch up a little and the split is narrowed
What is the management of VSDs?
- Stabilise with diuretics, ACEIs and high caloric diet
- Treat if:
- Heart failure or failure to thrive on medical management
- Pulmonary hypertension
- Aortic valve prolapse
- Infective endocarditis
- Surgical and trans-catheter options exist
What would you find on investigations of a VSD?
- Small VSD may have no abnormal findings
- Larger VSDs may demonstrate cardiomegaly and pulmonary plethora of CXR
- Biventricular hypertrophy can be shown on ECG
- Diagnose with echo
What is the relationship between large VSDs and the aortic valve?
High flow VSDs can suck in the nearby aortic leaflet by the Venturi effect and cause aortic regurgitation
What are the differentials for a shocked neonate?
What are the differentials for a cyanosed neonate?
What are the differentials for infants with heart failure?
What do you check on a paediatric cardio exam?
Which congenital heart defects increase the risk of infective endocarditis?
Essentially all congenital heart abnormalities increase your risk, except for secundum ASDs
8 year old with pallor and bone pain, what is your spot diagnosis?
ALL until proven otherwise
What is the main risk you worry about in immune thrombocytopaenic purpura and how common is it?
Intracranial haemorrhage - 1% of ITP cases
What are the features of anaemia in a child?
- Pallor – conjunctival, palmar crease
- Fatigue, listlessness
- Poor growth
- Flow murmur
- Air hunger (severe)
- Hypotension and cardiac failure (severe)
- Iron deficiency can present with poor attention span, irritability and pica (eating dirt, clay, ice etc)
What are the causes of iron deficiency in a child?
Malabsorption and occult blood loss (although rare) should be considered, but usually after failure of dietary measures.
Polyps, haemangiomas, Meckel’s diverticula and hereditary telangectiasia are rare causes of GI blood loss.
What are the differentials for normocytic anaemia in a child?
What are the differentials for microcytic anaemia in a child?
What is the haematological aspect of parvovirus B19?
One of the most common and serious complications of parvovirus B19 infection is transient aplastic crises in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia such as sickle cell disease and hereditary spherocytosis. Pure red cell aplasia may also develop with a persistent infection of parvovirus B19 in immunocompromised individuals.
A five year old presents with pallor, lethargy, difficulty concentrating worsening over the past few months. What investigations will you order?
FBE
Blood film
Ferritin
Reticulocyte count
You diagnose an 8 year old girl with Fe deficiency anaemia, what is your management advice to the parents?
What is the presentation of factor dysfunction vs platelet dysfunction?
A 6 year old child presents with petechiae, what are your differentials?
SHIELD
A 5 year old girl has an isolated raised APTT, what are the possible causes?
A raised APTT in the absence of anticoagulant therapy suggests a deficiency in a factor or an inhibitor.
An inhibitor is usually an antibody made against a factor, such as lupus anticoagulant or antibodies formed by haemophilia patients receiving recombinant factors
What is the peak incidence of immune thrombocytopaenic purpura in children?
2-5 years
What is the classical presentation of ITP?
What do you find on examination?
What do you find on investigations?
Presentation
Clinical manifestations of platelet disorder develop acutely – mucosal and skin petechiae, epistaxis, rectal bleeding, haematuria, bleeding gums
Examination
Normal examination – no pallor, no lymphadenopathy or hepato-/spleno- megaly (exclude leukaemia)
Investigations
FBE –> thrombocytopaenia, blood film shows isolated low platelets with no other findings
A bone marrow aspirate is an invasive procedure with some morbidity in children who bruise easily, and is only necessary if the diagnosis is uncertain. It is rarely necessary in uncomplicated ITP.
ITP is a diagnosis of exclusion, but an FBE and blood film may be sufficient for diagnosis if Hx and Ex consistent.
It can be thought of as isolated thrombocytopenia with no other suggestive findings on Hx, Ex, FBE or blood film.
In ITP what level of platelets makes you worry?
Platelets consistently under 10
How long does ITP typically take to resolve in kids with conservative or active treatment?
Untreated 75% in 6 weeks, 90% will resovle within 6 months
With standard dose steroids 1 week
With high dose steroids 2-4 days
With IVIG 1-3 days
What are the stepwise treatment options for ITP? What advice do you give the parents?
-
Safety precautions are key
- Allow for generous supervision, especially of young children
- Avoid contact sports or any moderate-impact activity
- Regular follow up
- Parents must receive thorough education
- Avoid NSAIDs and 5-ASA
Splenectomy is a last line option. Often very effective but vaccinations and life-long antibiotic prophylaxis required.
What is the typical presentation of haemophilia?
Neonates
- Often picked up on screening due to FMHx
- Cord blood can be used for genetics and coagulation studies
- Intracranial haemorrhage, severe birth bruising and excessive bleeding after circumcision can suggest the disese
Older children
- Haemarthroses tend to occur in walking children
What is the management of haemophilia?
- Mild-moderate haemophilia A can be treated with DDAVP after appropriate challenge test (>5y/o)
- Not adequate for major bleeding
- Tranexamic acid can reduce mucosal bleeds and epistaxis
- Severe disease can be treated with 25-40 units/kg of recombinant factor concentrates three times a week.
What are the clinical features of leukaemia?
Auer rods = ?
AML (less common than ALL)
What is the initial work up of a child with suspected leukaemia?
- CXR is used to investigate the possibility of mediastinal masses (occurs in 50% of T-ALL).
- Lumbar punctures are mandatory to detect occult CNS infiltration. They are often delayed until treatment has begun to reduce the risk of seeding into CNS. Also because often thrombocytopenic
Many more tests are done. This is the realm of a paediatric oncologist. Tumour lysis bloods, liver and renal function, lactate dehydrogenase and coagulation studies all form part of the initial work-up at baseline.
What is the cure rate of ALL?
What are the general principles of chemotherapy approaches to ALL?
What steps are taken to reduce the chances of tumour lysis syndrome?
It is commonly quoted that cure rates (in children) are 80%. The current rate is probably higher, especially in low risk disease.
Remission Induction
- Aims to eliminate 99% of the tumour cell population. This should achieve normal haematopoiesis and functional status.
- Does the ‘heavy lifting’ –> remaining treatment is about total eradication, relapse prevention and cure
- High risk of tumour lysis in early chemo.
- the breakdown products of dying cells causes hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia (which causes hypocalcaemia), high blood uric acid and high urine uric acid and consequent acute uric acid nephropathy and acute kidney failure.
- Tumour lysis prevention:
- bicarb to alkylise urine and prevent uric acid crystal formation in kidney
- allopurinol
- fluid diuresis
- monitor all electrolytes
CNS protection
- Most chemo penetrates the BBB poorly
- Intrathecal and IV methotrexate can obviate the need for cranial irradiation (CI). CI is still used for overt CNS disease or high risk patients.
A child presents with petechiae on their lips, eyes and gums but nowhere else, what are your differentials?
Strangulation/NAI
Vomiting
Coughing
+ other causes of petechiae (SHIELD)
Why do kids with ITP and really low platelets not bleed as much as you’d think?
Immature megakaryocytes in BM churning out platelets. The platelets are young/healthy/sticky. Vs kids with cancer with same low platelet count who will bleed because unhealthy platelets.
What are analgesic options for kids?
· Oral – paracetemol, ibuprofen, oxycodone
· Intranasal – fentanyl (device that makes a mist out of it)
· IV – morphine, ketamine
· IM – (rare) ketamine, morphine
· Local anaesthetic
What things do you assess when examining for dehydration in a child?
- Wet nappies
- Tears
- Fontanelles
- Skin turgor
- Mucus membranes
- Cap refill
- HR/BP
- Weight
- Vomits/diarrheoa
- Alertness
Newborn with cough, cyanotic episodes with feeding, respiratory distress, recurrent pneumonia, what is the diagnosis?
Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
What are the differentials for projectile vomiting?
pyloric stenosis (if age 2-7wks)
duodenal atresia
What is a SUFE?
How does it present, how is it diagnosed and what is the treatment?
A ‘Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis’ (also called a ‘SUFE’) is when the femoral epiphyseal plate is weak and the ball head of the femur slips downward and backward. The exact cause of this condition is not known.
A ‘SUFE’ is not usually associated with an injury. The symptoms often develop slowly - over several months - and may seem like a pulled muscle in the hip, thigh or knee. It is important to get an early diagnosis and treatment before the slip gets worse and children may need to have the unaffected side treated as well to prevent future slipping.
Clasically happens to obese teenage boys, can be bilateral
True hip pathology causes GROIN pain!
Signs and symptoms
Groin, hip, thigh or knee pain. (Some people only have knee pain, even though the condition affects the hip)
Limp
Limited movement of the hip joint
There may be slight shortening of the affected leg.
Diagnosis
Diagnosis is usually made by physical examination of hip movement and an x-ray.
Attached X ray shows how in the abnormal side the line does not cut off the femoral head like it should
Management
Surgical correction with screw
What features differentiate septic arthritis from post viral synovitis?
Refusal to weight bear
Fever (>38.5)
Raised WBC
ESR >40
CRP >20
At what age does crying peak?
6 weeks, it gets better after that
A child in brought in to the ED for some totally benign condition (like an URTI). You need to give the parents advice on what situations should prompt them to bring the child back in to ED, what do you tell them.
Bring them back if:
- They become dehydrated (because of vomiting/diarrheoa) with poor oral intake and no wet nappies
- Become drowsy or not responsive to interactions
- Puffing very hard or finding it difficult to breathe
- Uncontrollably irritable, not able to be soothed
You are trying to find a localising source of a young child’s fever. They have a history of vomiting, what does that tell you?
Nothing, vomiting is not a localising sign in a kid. Could be anything from UTI to meningitis.
A child presents to ED with a fever, you don’t think it’s serious. What conditions do you need to rule out before sending them home?
Meningitis
Pneumonia
UTI
Sepsis
What are the diagnostic criteria for febrile convulsions?
What additional criteria apply to simple vs complex febrile convulsions?
Febrile convulsions / seizures are seizures in which
- Fever >38 degrees
- No evidence of CNS infection
- No history of afebrile seizures
- No history of neurological deficits or developmental delay
Simple febrile seizures are
- generalized tonic and/or clonic seizures
- Short in duration
- Do not recur within the same febrile illness
Complex febrile seizures are
- focal features at onset or during the seizure
- duration of more than 15 minutes
- Recurrence within the same febrile illness
- Incomplete recovery within 1 hour.
At what age do febrile convulsions typically occur?
6 months to 6 years
How common are febrile convulsions?
3 in 100 babies
What is the clinical presentation of a febrile convulsion?
- Signs and symptoms of infection (often URTI, otitis media or UTI).
- Description of a generalized, tonic-clonic seizure (simple) or a focal seizure (complex). Normal neurological exam post-ictally.
- *NB if eyes deviate to one side this is a sign of a focal seizure
What investigations should you order for a febrile convulsion?
Bedside tests
- BGL – this is the only investigation you should do if the child is >6 months and the source of the fever can be identified
- Urine dipstick and MC&S
Bloods and urine
- FBE
- CRP
- Blood culture
- UEC / CMP
- check for electrolyte derangement.
- Feeding babies water bottles causes hyponatraemic seizures
Imaging
CXR if respiratory symptoms
Special tests
LP – low threshold if unknown source of fever.
From RCH “consider LP if the child is less than 12 months and not up to date with immunisations, if they are clinically unwell, or if they are already on oral antibiotics that may mask meningitis.”
What can you tell the parents of a child who has just had a febrile convulsion about his/her prognosis?
- Recurrence rate depends on the age of the child;
- the younger the child at the time of the initial convulsion, the greater the risk a further febrile convulsion
- (1 year old 50%; 2 years old 30%).
- the younger the child at the time of the initial convulsion, the greater the risk a further febrile convulsion
- Risk of future afebrile convulsions (epilepsy) is increased by:
- family history of epilepsy,
- any neurodevelopmental problem,
- atypical febrile convulsions (prolonged or focal).
- With none of these risk factors risk of recurrence is similar to the rest of the population (1%). With 1 risk factor, risk is 2%, with >1 risk factor, 10%.
The parents of a child who has just had a febrile seizure ask about what they can do to prevent it happening again, what do you tell them?
- Fever control:
- minimal clothing, nappy alone or light outer layer depending on ambient temperature
- Tepid sponging, baths and fans are ineffective at lowering core temperature and are NOT recommended
- Paracetamol has not been shown to reduce the risk of further febrile convulsions. It may be used for pain/discomfort associated with febrile illnesses (e.g otitis media),it should not be solely used to control fever
- If the seizure recurs, roll him onto his side and allow him to fit, Seizure should not last longer than 3-5 minutes. Any longer and an ambulance should be called.
- If Henry was to have recurrent or prolonged febrile seizures, prophylactic oral diazepam or rectal diazepam (rescue therapy) may be prescribed
In hospital, how long would you allow a febrile convulsion to continue before commencing active management with benzos?
5-10mins
Is the response (or lack of response) of a child’s fever to paracetemol significant?
No, not at all
Does teething cause fever?
Teething will not cause fever > 38.5oC
A parent brings a febrile child to you, what do you do on history and exam?
History
- Headache (if child can talk)
- Photophobia (if child can talk)
- Cough
- Coryza
- Diarrheoa
- Vomiting
- Abdominal pain
- Joint symptoms
- Dysuria/foul smelling urine
- Travel history
- Sick contacts
- Immunisations
Exam:
- Vitals, general appearance, conscious state
- Neck stiffness
- ENT examination
- Work of breathing
- Abdominal exam
- Skin rash
- Joint swelling
What are the clinical indications for antibiotics in children with painful otitis media
- Sick child with fever
- Vomiting
- Red-yellow bulging TM
- Discharge
- Loss of TM landmarks
- Persistent fever and pain after 3 days of conservative approach
- Bilateral AOM
*
How common is Down’s syndrome?
What increases the risk?
Birth incidence is about 1 in 1000 live births.
Overall incidence rises after maternal age of 35 years.
How common are cardiac conditions in babies with Down’s syndrome?
50% have congenital heart defects
particularly AVSD
What is the “management” of Down Syndrome
Medical
- Growth
- Plot growth on Trisomy 21 specific growth charts
- Prevent obesity
- Cardiac
- ECHO at birth
- Annual follow up
- GIT
- Coeliac screening
- Endocrine
- Annual TSH (at increased risk of hypothyroidism)
- Haeamtological
- Annual FBE (at increased risk of polycythaemia)
- Hearing
- Hearing test as new born and at six months of age
- Opthalmology
- Eye examination every 3 years
- MSK
- Education RE: atlanto-axial instability, avoid trampoline and high risk activities, discuss positioning of the spine during anasthaesia/surgery
- Low threshold for imaging. Routine spinal xray is not recommended.
Non-Medical
- ?Early intervention
- ?Funding / Carer’s Pension
- ?Educational and Vocational Training
What is the risk of miscarriage associated with CVS vs amniocentesis?
CVS = 1% above the background risk
Amniocentesis = 0.5%
When in pregnancy do you perform CVS vs amniocentesis?
What are the advantages of CVS?
What are the advantages of amniocentesis?
This is a 3 year old child. What is the diagnosis?
What is the management?
What is the prognosis?
Diagnosis = herpes simplex gingivostomatitis
Management = Pain relief (codeine may be required as it is very sore). Antivirals inneffective
Prognosis =
Child may have a fever and become irritable, a day or two later ulcers develop on the lips and gums. These are painful and often lead to drooling and a refusal to eat or drink, dehydration can occur. The pain normally subsides after 3-4 days, the blisters usually take from 10 -14 days to go away. The blisters never leave scars.
A baby at day 25 of life develops a fever of 38.1, what do you do?
Discuss with registrar/consultant
Full sepsis work-up: FBE/film, blood culture, urine culture (SPA), LP ± CXR
Admit for empirical antibiotics
A child aged betwen 1 and 3 months presents with a fever of 38.1, what do you do?
- Discuss with registrar/consultant
- Full sepsis workup:
- FBE/film, blood culture, urine culture (SPA) ± CXR (only if respiratory symptoms or signs) ± LP
- Discharge home with review within 12 hours if the child is:
- Previously healthy
- Looks well
- WCC 5,000 - 15,000
- Urine microscopy clear
- CXR (if taken) clear
- CSF (if taken) negative
- If the child is unwell or above criteria are not all satisfied, admit to hospital for observation +/- empiric i.v. antibiotics
A 4 month old child presents with a fever but no clear focus of infection. What is your management?
What are the different types of nephrotic syndrome in kids?
Idiopathic Nephrotic Syndrome (90% of presenting children)
- Minimal change disease
- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
- Also called steroid-sensitive nephrotic syndrome as 80+90% of cases will respond to initial steroid therapy
Non-idiopathic Nephrotic Syndrome (rare)
- Secondary
- SLE
- Henoch Schonlein Purpura
- Membranoproliferative GN
- Membranous nephropathy
- Congenital nephrotic syndrome
What is the prognosis of minimal change disease/focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?
- 80% of children with Minimal change will relapse
- Steroid-responsive patients have little risk of chronic renal failure
- Patients with FSGS may initially respond to steroids but later develop resistance
- Many children with FSGS progress to end-stage kidney failure
- Recurrence of FSGS occurs in 30% of children who undergo renal transplantation
What do you know about membranoproliferative glomerular nephropathy in kids?
What do you know about membranous glomerular nephropathy in kids?
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Characterised by hypocomplementemia (low C3 and C4) with signs of glomerular renal disease
5 to 15% of children with primary nephrotic syndrome
Typically persistent
Has a high likelihood of progression to renal failure over time
Membranous nephropathy
Less than 5% of children with primary NS
Seen most commonly in adolescents and children with systemic infections
Hep B, syphilis, malaria and toxoplasmosis
Or on specific medications
Gold, penicillamine
What are the clinical features and management of testicular torsion?
Usually neonates or teenagers
Sudden onset testicular pain and swelling; occasionally nausea, vomiting.
Note: pain may be in the iliac fossa, may be associated with sports activity
Discolouration of scrotum; exquisitely tender and swollen testis, riding high. Cremasteric reflex is usually absent.
Management: Early surgical consultation is vital, as delay in scrotal exploration and detorsion of a torted testis will result in testicular infarction within 8-12 hours. Keep the child fasted.
What is the management of pulled elbow?
- Perform a reduction manoeuvre (see below)
- expect distress and pain
- a click may be felt over the radial head
- review after ten minutes
- if reduction fails, consult with senior medical staff
https://youtu.be/-0ROu4hCXwQ
Colicky abdo pain, kid goes white when pain comes on, bilious vomiting
What is the diagnosis?
Intussusception
At what age does intussusception typically occur? What typically causes it?
Primary – ages 3 months – 2 year olds
Ileocaecal location
Idiopathic
Secondary – ages 4 years – 12 year olds
Ileoileul location
Mesenteric lymph nodes
HSP –> pathological lead point of submucosal haemorrhage
Meckels diverticula
Haemophilia –> submucosal haemorrhage
What is the management of intussusception?
- Fluid resuscitation
- Analgesia
- Air enema
- Definitive surgery if necessary
What is the best way to describe intussusception to parents?
Like a sock folding in on itself
When is meconium normally passed?`
99% in first day
Rest in second day
If not passed on 3rd day it’s a sign of abnormality
How do you differentiate between meconium ileus and hirschprungs?
In hirschprungs on rectal exam there is explosive discharge of flatus and faeces
What is the formal investigation to confirm hirschbrungs?
Suction rectal biopsy
A mother with a child with hirschprungs disease asks what the chances of her next baby having the condition, what do you say?
3-5%
What is the carrier rate for the cystic fibrosis gene in the Caucasian population?
What is the incidence in the genpop?
(This is frequently examined)
1/25
1/2500
What conditions are associated with duodenal atresia?
Cardiac defects
Down syndrome
How would you show an OSCE examiner that you had pyloric stenosis as a DDx in an OSCE?
Ask if either parent had pyloric stenosis when they were born.
The parents of a child with pyloric stenosis ask you what the chances of their next baby having the condition are, what do you say?
20% chance
What do you tell the parents of a child who has just had a Ramstedt procedure?
The vomiting may continue for 3 - 5 days, that is normal.
What is the most likely cause of vomiting in neonates of different ages in Monash OSCEs?
That is, in Monash exams what causes vomiting:
Immediately after birth
First few days after birth
3-4 weeks after birth
Immediately after birth = duodenal atresia
3 days after birth = malrotation with volvulus
First few days of life with failure to pass stools = MI or Hirschsprungs
3-4 weeks after birth = pyloric stenosis
What are the different RCH levels of dehydration and their associated clinical presentations?
Mild dehydration = No signs
Moderate dehydration = 4-6% depleted - Signs of dehydration
Severe dehydration is >= 7% depleted - Shock
For the purposes of calculation of fluid requirements use:
Mild - 3%
Moderate - 5%
Severe - 10%
A 6kg infant is moderately shocked, what IV fluids do you prescribe?
First: For shock give 10-20ml boluses of normal saline until signs of shock improve.
Second: Replace deficit, so for a 6kg kid if they’re moderately shocked that approx 5%, so their deficit is approx 300ml, give 300ml normal saline
Third: Give maintenance fluids using normal saline + 5% glucose. Using the 4,2,1 rule for a 6 kg infant that is 24ml/hr of normal saline + 5% glucose.
Monitor electrolytes daily and consider adding 20mmol K
What do you need to think about when prescribing maintenance IV fluids for kids in hospital?
In non-dehydrated children, consider using 2/3 maintenance doses in unwell children, especially those with pneumonia or meningitis.
Child with acute onset diarrheoa + abdo pain that has now been going for 16 days, what is the diagnosis?
Cryptosporidium
Giardia Lamblia
What are the features of diarhoea caused by salmonella species and shigella?
dysentery w blood, pus, pain and tenemus
What investigations do you order for a kid with acute onset diarrheoa?
Bedside
None
Bloods and urine
UECs and glucose a minimum if commencing any IV rehydration
Cultures
Faecal culture and MCS if significant abdominal pain, blood or mucus, or septic child
Faecal ova, cysts and parasites – if considering parasitic causes
C difficile toxin if recent use of antibiotics
A child had an an episode of diarrheoa, abdo pain and fever that came on suddenly and lasted for 3 days. It’s now two weeks later and they’re feeling better, but still having watery diarrheoa. What is the diagnosis?
What’s the management?
Post-gastroenteritis lactase deficiency
Mx - Lactose free diet for a few weeks
2 year old boy recently arrived from Iraq has a 1 year history of diarrhoea with significant weight loss. On examination he has a distended abdomen and wasted buttocks.
Coeliac disease!
James, an 18 month old child has chronic diarrheoa and a distended abdomen. You suspect coeliac disease, what investigations will you order?
Bedside
NA
Bloods
- (not anti TTG or IgA like normal as low sensitivity under 2 years)
- Anti Gliadin
- HLA testing
- Screen for T1DM and thyroid disease
- FBE
- May show microcytic or macrocytic anaemia from iron or folate deficiency
- U&E
- may reveal reduced concentrations of calcium, magnesium, total protein, albumin or vitamin D
Imaging
None
Special
Gastroscopy and small bowel biopsy
What is the management of coeliac disease?
Exclusion of gluten (barley, rye, wheat, and oats)
Dietary fortification – iron, folate, calcium and vitamin D
How common are undescended testes?
1/25 boys born
What are the (informal) criteria for admission for a child with bronchiolitis?
SpO2
Oral intake
Parental anxiety
What question should you ask every parent who brings their child to you for review?
What worries you the most?
What is the clinical picture of a mycoplasma pneumonia in kids?
What antiobiotic do you use?
Subacute onset, prominent cough, +/- headache, +/- sore throat
Roxithromycin PO for 10 days
A child presents with non-specific symptoms and a fever of 38.6, you give them paracetemol in the ED. Do you care if the paracetemol brings the fever down? Do you care if the paracetemol changes anything else?
The response of fever to paracetemol is not significant, and is not an indicate of illness severity.
However, if the child was tachycardic and the paracetemol does not bring their HR down, you would consider myocarditis. If it was myocarditis admit them for monitoring and supportive care.
What conditions cause bilious vomiting in a child?
- malrotation and volvulus
- duodenal atresia (if obstruction distal to Ampulla of Vater 80% of cases)
- jejunoileal atresia
- meconium ileus
- necrotising enterocolitis
When does meconium usually pass?
The first stool is passed within 24 hours of birth in 99 percent of healthy full-term infants and within 48 hours in all healthy full-term infants. Failure of a full-term newborn to pass meconium within the first 24 hours should raise a suspicion of intestinal obstruction.
What is this?
What is the condition associated with?
How is it diagnosed?
What is the management?
Exophalos (omphalocoele) - large defect at the umbilicus with herniation of bowel and liver into a sac covered by fused amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
Associations
Prematurity/IUGR
30% will have CVS defects
Also associated with trisomy 13 and 18, renal abnormalities and other syndromes.
Diagnosis
Usually diagnosed on the 12 and 20 week scans.
Aim is to then monitor them and deliver them in a tertiary centre.
Management:
- Glad wrap
- NG decompression
- IV Ab and fluids
- Catheter to monitor fluid output
- Heater
- BSL
- Look for associated malformations
- Delayed operation (as often unstable initially).
- appendix is removed and the goal is to get it all inside the abdomen. This is not always possible and thus a ‘silo reduction’ may be used.
What is this?
What is it associated with?
How is it diagnosed?
What is the management?
Gastroschisis - defect immediately to the right of the umbilicus through which bowel (and sometimes gonads) herniate. There is no covering sac and the eviscerated small and large bowel is thickened and densely matted with exudate as the result of amniotic peritonitis before birth.
Associations
Prematurity/IUGR
Related to maternal drug use.
Diagnosis
Usually diagnosed on the 12 and 20 week scans.
Aim is to then monitor them and deliver them in a tertiary centre.
Management:
- Glad wrap
- NG decompression
- IV Ab and fluids
- Catheter to monitor fluid output
- Heater
- BSL
- Look for associated malformations
- Immediate operation
- appendix is removed and the goal is to get it all inside the abdomen. This is not always possible and thus a ‘silo reduction’ may be used.
What key developmental milestones do you know?
The 9 S’s of development
Neonate
6 weeks
3 months
6 months
9 months
12 months
18 months
3 years
5 years
What are the causes of petechiae in a child?
SHIELD + vWD
vWD less likely to be acute diagnosis. The story is “abnormally prolonged bleeding when prompted (like teeth brushing)” versus SHIELD which is acute onset petechiae
Why do you need to do a challenge test before prescribing a child desmopressin?
Because remember that desmopressin/DDAVP is just synthetic ADH. ADH causes aquaporins to be plugged in to the distal collecting tubule allowing for resorbtion of water which can cause dilutional hyponatremia. The challenge test it to make sure the kid doesn’t get hyponatraemic.
What are the causes of abdo pain in a pre-pubescent child?
ABCDEFGHI
- A - Appendicitis
- B – Balls (testicular torsion)
- C – Chest infection
- D – Diverticulum (Meckel’s) + DKA
- E – E.Coli (UTI)
- F – Faecal or urinary retention
- G - Gastroenteritis
- H – Hernias/HSP
- I – Intussusception + intestinal malrotation
What do you know about post gastro lactase deficiency?
- Following infectious diarrhoea, infants may have temporary lactose intolerance.
- This sequela of acute gastroenteritis used to be prominent in infants
- This may be due in part to early oral feeding which aids mucosal recovery.
- Clinical features of sugar intolerance include:
- Persistently fluid stool
- Excessive flatus
- Excoriation of the buttocks
- Typically, these infants appear well.
Breast feeding should continue unless there are persistent symptoms with buttock excoriation and failure to gain adequate weight. Formula-fed infants should be placed on a lactose-free formula for 3–4 weeks.
What is “toddler’s diarrheoa”, what is the management?
A clinical syndrome characterised by chronic diarrhoea often with undigested food in the stools of a child who is otherwise well, gaining weight and growing satisfactorily. Stools may contain mucus and are passed 3–6 times a day; they are often looser towards the end of the day.
Onset is usually between 8 and 20 months of age.
Management
Reassurance and explanation. No specific drug or dietary therapy has been shown to be of value in toddler diarrhoea.
A child presents with fever and malaise for 2 days. What are your systems review questions?
- Headache/neck stiffness/photophobia/Rash
- Cough, coryza, sore throat
- Dysuria/frequency
- Vomiting/diarrheoa/abdominal pain
- Joint or elsewhere pain?
- Contacts
- Travel
- Immunisations
- Intake/vomiting/urine production
How many hours after the onset of symptoms does irreversible ischaemic injury occur to a torted testicle?
6 hours
What are your differential diagnosis for an acute scrotum?
What are the distinguishing feartures on history and exam of each of these conditions that will help you differentially diagnose each of them?
-
Tumour
- painless
-
Henoch Schonlein purpura
- purpuric rash on testicle
-
Varicocele
- bag of worms, left side, teenager
-
Hydrocele
- transilluminates, soft, can feel testis
- Incarcerated inguinal hernia
-
Epididymoorchitis
- fever, nausea, vomiting, urinary symptoms
-
Torsion of the appendix testis (hydatid of Morgagni)
- More gradual onset. Focal tenderness at upper pole of testis; “blue dot” sign - necrotic appendix seen through scrotal skin.
-
Torsion
- Sudden onset testicular pain and swelling; occasionally nausea, vomiting. Discolouration of scrotum; exquisitely tender and swollen testis, riding high. Cremasteric reflex is usually absent.
-
Idiopathic scrotal oedema
- It usually affects boys between 5-9 years of age.
There is insidious onset of redness and swelling of perineum or inguinal region (groin), extending to scrotum. It may be itchy but is not often painful.
An 8 year old presents with an acute scrotum, what will you do on examination?
- observation of the patients gait and resting position
- natural position of the testis in the scrotum while standing
- presence or absence of cremasteric reflex (this is absent in torsion)
- palpation of lower abdomen, inguinal canal and cord
- palpation of scrotum and contents, compare with unaffected hemiscrotum
- transillumination
- Is the swelling reducible?
What are the causes of chronic diarrheoa in a child?
Without failure to thrive
- Infectious
- Bacterial - campylobacter, salmonella
- Antibiotic induced - C difficile colitis
- Parasitic - Giardia lamblia
- Post-infectious - secondary lactase deficiency
- Toddler’s diarrhoea
- Lactase deficiency (lactose intolerance)
- Irritable bowel syndrome - a diagnosis of exclusion in an older child/adolescent
Chronic diarrhoea with failure to thrive
- GI causes
- Coeliac disease
- Milk protein allergy - cow’s milk, soya protein, etc.
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- Pancreatic insufficiency –> Cystic fibrosis
- Others
- Thyrotoxicosis
- Food allergy
What is the paediatric clinical picture of coeliac disease?
The classical presentation is of a profound malabsorptive syndrome at 6-24 months of age after the introduction of wheat-containing weaning foods (e.g. steatorrhoea, vomiting in some cases).
- FTT with poor appetite
- Steatorrhoea
- Anorexia, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain
- Abdominal distention
- Buttock wasting
- General irritability, apathy and fatigue - consider Fe deficiency
Presentation is highly variable, and may be less acute later in childhood.
What causes constipation in kids?
What is the management?
Most commonly functional constipation (99%) - due to lack of fibre, poor fluid intake, behavioural things (especially around toilet training), and changes in diet (esp. when changing to cow’s milk).
Management
Clean out + maintain with stool softeners and adequate fibre. Address any underlying problems. This may need to be done multiple times.
What is the management of gastro in a child?
Basics
- Keep breastfeeding
- Regular small volume flood intake
- Ondansetron
Place and person
Admit the following:
- Infants with moderate-severe dehydration
- Diagnosis in doubt
- Those who are high risk of dehydration (keep in hospital for 4-6 hours):
- Infants
- Infants
- High frequency diarrhoea (8 per 24 hours)
- High frequency vomiting (>4 per 24 hours)
Investigations
- Mostly not required.
- UECs and glucose - if severe dehydration and needs resuscitation.
- If there is significant abdominal pain, or blood or mucus in the stools, or if the child appears septic
- Faecal culture
- Faecal leukocytes or blood
- Faecal ova, cysts and parasites - when considering parastic infections
- C difficile toxin (faecal) - if recent use of antibiotics
Definitive
Oral, NG or IV rehydration
There is no role for antibiotics in bacterial gastroenteritis.
Long term
Early feeding as soon as rehydrated reduces stool output and aids gut recovery. Anti-diarrhoeals and maxalon are not recommended.
At what age does foreskin typically become retractible?
What is the treatment of true phimosis?
The proportion of boys with retractile foreskins is: 40% at 1 year, 90% at 4 years and 99% at 15 years.
Management of true phimosis
- 0.05% betamethasone cream should be used twice daily for 2 to 4 weeks.
- Gently retract foreskin without causing any discomfort and apply a thick layer of cream to the tightest part of the foreskin.
- Circumcision (if significant phimosis and steroid creams fail)
What is smegma?
What is Balanitis?
Smegma = white/yellow lumps are called smegma and are made up of the cells that once attached the foreskin to the head of the penis. Smegma is normal and will eventually disappear. No treatment is needed.
Balanitis: severe inflammation of the glans penis +/- foreskin is often due to infection and is usually termed balanitis. Tx is Soaking in a warm bath with the foreskin retracted plus topical steroid.
What pathogens typically cause encephalitis in a child?
- Enterovirus
- HSV
- Other herpes viruses (EBV, CMV, HHV6, VZV)
- Arboviruses.
- Less commonly, encephalitis can be caused by bacteria, fungi or parasites.
What pathogens typically cause meningitis in kids below 2 months of age?
What about kids above 2months?
What empirical drugs do you use in each of these age groups?
Below 2 months of age
- Group B streptococcus
- E. coli and other Gram-negative organisms
- Listeria monocytogenes
- Plus the below….
Use cefotaxime and ben pen
Above 2 months of age
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Neisseria meningitidis
- Haemophilus influenzae type B (in unimmunised children)
- As a result of immunisations Hib meningitis is now rare and there has been a reduction in the incidence of pneumococcal meningitis.
Use ceftriaxone and dexamethasone
A mother has been told her child might have autism and wants to know if her child with have a low IQ, what do you say?
25% of people with autism will have normal/high IQ
75% will have some degree of intellectual disability
The child’s level of ability is often uneven, with areas of strength and weakness.
The mother of an 8month old boy with an inguinoscrotal hernia asks whether surgical intervention is really necessary and why do you need to repair the patent processus vaginalis, what do you tell her?
There are three problems:
- Protrusion of the bowel through the processus vaginalis can obstruct it’s blood supply causing necrosis/peritonitis/sepsis
- Obstruction of the processus vaginalis can put pressure on and ultimately obstruct the blood supply to the testicles and the spermatic cord, resulting in death of the testis and/or reduced fertility
- obviously there is the risk of bowel obstruction
What is this? What is the management?
Ballooning of the foreskin during urination due to physiological phimosis.
In itself is not a concern, no need for management, will resolve as phimosis resolves.
A 2 year old child has non-retractible foreskin, you advice the parents that this is normal, not to retract the foreskin for cleaning, and that it will resolve itself. But, you say, if it has not resolved by a certain age you can prescribe them something. At what age would you intervene and what would you prescribe.
4 years old, topical steroid.
How do you distinguish between an inguinoscrotal hernia and a hydrocele?
- Hernia is reducable (unless strangulated, in which case it will be extremely painful)
- Hydrocele is not reducable, it would take hours for you to squeeze the fluid back up the narrow patent processus vaginalisis
- Hydrocele transilluminates, hernia does not
- You can get above a hydrocele but not a hernia
- Hydrocele doesn’t really ever have to be fixed, but you do for cosmesis after age 2.
What is the clinical picture of NEC?
What do you see on Xray?
- Pre-term baby, typically in the 2nd-3rd week of life
- Infant stops tolerating feeds –> vomiting (bilious sometimes)
- Abdominal distention
- Rapidly becomes shocked
- Other features:
- Bloody stools
- Pneumatosis intestinalis - gas cysts in the bowel wall; diagnostic for NEC
- Diminished bowel sounds
- Signs of bowel perforation - sepsis, shock, peritonitis, DIC
Oesophageal atresia is usually associated with what other anatomical abnormality?
How do you confirm the diagnosis?
Tracheo-oesophageal fistula in 85% of cases
Diagnosis is confirmed by passing a large firm catheter through the mouth and finding that it cannot be passed more than about 10cm from the gums. A plain XRAY of the torso will show gas in the bowel (if there is distal TOF).
What is a SUFE?
What are the different ways to classify the condition?
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) is the most common hip disorder in the adolescent age group. It occurs when weakness in the proximal femoral growth plate allows displacement of the capital femoral epiphysis. The metaphysis displaces anteriorly and superiorly, leading to the slipped state.
There are a number of ways that SUFE can be classified
Stable vs unstable
The patient is able to weight bear on the affected leg (stable) versus unable to weight bear even with crutches (unstable).
Acute, chronic or acute on chronic
Acute = Sudden onset of severe symptoms and inability to weight bear
Chronic = Gradual onset and progression of symptoms for more than 3 weeks, without sudden exacerbation. This is the most common presentation (85% of patients with SUFE)
Acute on chronic = Sudden exacerbation of symptoms due to acute displacement of a chronically slipped epiphysis
Radiographical degree of displacement
Type I (0 to 33% displacement) Type II (34 to 50% displacement) Type III (\>50% displacement)
The likelihood of complications increases with displacement
A 12yo obese boy comes in with a sore hip, you think it’s a SUFE, what examination could you perform to confirm this?
A very reliable sign of chronic SUFE is detection of obligatory external rotation during flexion of the hip. As the hip is flexed on the affected side, the thigh will automatically rotate and abduct
What is the management of a SUFE?
Basics
Nil by mouth
Depending on severity, pain management according to WHO pain management ladder.
Place and person
Urgent orthopaedic referral
Investigate and confirm diagnosis
AP and frog lateral pelvis x-rays of both hips
Non-invasive management
The patient needs to be kept non-weight bearing
Definitive management
Immediate surgical screw fixation across the physis (within 24 hours)
Name the different types of JIA in order of frequency.
What age group and gender does each type tend to affect?
(1 - 50%) Oligoarticular JIA (peak age 2-3, rare after age 10, F>M)
(2 - 40%) Polyarticular JIA (dual peaks at 2-5 then 10-14 years, F>M)
(3 - 10%) Less common types like systemic JIA, psoriatic and enthesitis (HLAB27+) (anyone less than 17, M=F)
What are the diagnostic criteria for oligo, poly, systemic JIA and enthesitis?
JIA diagnosed if age 6 weeks of symptoms
Systemic arthritis
- 1 or more joints
- Preceded by at least 2 weeks of fever
- Signs/symptoms include one or more of:
- evanescent rash,
- generalised lymphadenopathy,
- hepato/splenomegaly,
- serositis
Oligoarthritis
- Arthritis affecting 1-4 joints during the first 6 months
- Persistent oligoarthritis affects up to 4 joints throughout the course of the disease
Polyarthritis
- 5 or more joints during the first 6 months
- RF+ disease is more aggressive than RF-
Psoriatic arthritis
- Diagnosed if there is arthritis and psoriasis, or
- arthritis plus 2 or more of:
- dactylitis,
- nail pitting,
- onycholysis,
- fam hx of psoriasis
Enthesitis-related arthritis
- Diagnosed if there is arthritis and/or enthesitis with 2 or more of:
- hx of sacroiliac joint tenderness
- HLA B27 antigen,
- onset of arthritis in a male over 6 years of age
- acute anterior uveitis
- Fhx of ankylosing spondylitis, enthesitis-related arthritis, sacroiliitis with inflammatory bowel disease, Reiter’s syndrome, or acute anterior uveitis in a first-degree relative
What is the (generic) management of JIA?
Basics
Rule out septic arthritis
Place and person
Refer to specialist paediatric rheumatology multidisciplinary team
Ix and confirm diagnosis
- FBE (anaemia, thrombocytosis, WCC)
- ESR/CRP
- RhF, anti-CCP
- ANA (for anterior uveitis risk)
- HLA B27 genotyping if suspect enthesitis
- Fe studies (reactive ferritin)
- Xray
Non-invasive management
Physiotherapy and occupational therapy
Swimming and cycling encouraged, weight-bearing activities for those at greater risk of low bone mineral density
Definitive management
Varies depending on type of JIA, sounds very specialized.
- Pain relief with NSAIDs or corticosteroid injections
- Methotrexate, sulfasalazine, steroids
- Biologics (anti-TNFa) increasingly used
What is the prognosis of JIA
- 70% of patients will have minimal or no joint disease by age 15
- Oligoarticular disease has the best prognosis, with most patients achieving remission
- RF+ve patients and those with systemic arthritis have a worse prognosis, with more continuing to have active disease after several years
What complication do you worry about in systemic JIA?
MAS – Macrophage activation syndrome
- Life-threatening emergency
- Usually occurs early in the onset of systemic JIA
- high fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, pancytopenia, liver dysfunction, disseminated intravascular coagulation, hypofibrinogenemia, hyperferritinemia, and hypertriglyceridemia
- Reduced ESR
- Tx with high dose steroids and cyclosporin
A baby presents with malrotation/volvulus, when should the corrective surgery be done?
Now. You have 6 hours before bowel becomes ischaemic and patient dies
How is oesophageal atresia diagnosed?
- Wide-calibre feeding tube is passed and checked by X-ray to see if it reaches the stomach
- AXR shows gasless abdomen –> absent gastric bubble
- If not diagnosed at birth, presents clinically with:
- Persistent salivation and drooling from the mouth after birth
- Infant will cough and choke when fed, and have cyanotic episodes
If you discover a congenital abnormality in a newborn what do you do?
Check for others, they tend to co-occur….
VACTERL
V - Vertebral anomalies
A - Anal atresia
C - Cardiovascular anomalies
T - Tracheoesophageal fistula
E - Esophageal atresia
R - Renal (Kidney) and/or radial anomalies
L - Limb defects
What are the differences betweeen omphalocele and gastroschisis?
What is the most dangerous manifestation of Hirschprungs? How is it managed?
Enterocolitis
Decompression washout enemas, IV ABx and intensive care
Describe the surgical management of hirschprungs and the complications of this approach
- Surgery too hard in neonate, use colonic washout enemas until baby is 5-6kgs
- Pull-through procedure
- Involves resection of distal bowel to transition point (established via contrast enema X-ray), and mobilisation of proximal bowel to allow pull-through to anal anastomosis
- Complications
- Prone to dehydration as large bowel is responsible for absorption of sodium, potassium and fluid
Increased frequency of bowel movements due to increased fluidity of stools - Often incontinent
- Technically difficult procedure due to risk of damage to continence muscles, possibility of anastomotic breakdown, stricture
- Prone to Hirschsprung’s Enterocolitis even years after corrective procedure
- Requires IV antibiotics every time
- Prone to dehydration as large bowel is responsible for absorption of sodium, potassium and fluid
What are the causes of a limp/non-weight bearing in a child?
HAI! DONT TAP SAM
H - HSP
A - Appendicitis
I - Inguinoscrotal pathology/testicular torsion
D- DDH (age 1-4)
O- Osteomyelitis/septic arthritis
N- NAI
T- Toddler’s fracture (age 1-4)
T- Transient synovitis
A- Arthritis/JIA
P- Perthes disease (age 4-10)
S- SUFE (aged >10)
A- Articular or non-articular stress fracture
M- Malignancy (ALL)
What is the management of transient synovitis of the hip?
Basics
Bed rest is important for children with transient synovitis.
Analgesia; NSAID (eg ibuprofen) +/- paracetamol
Place and person
Review with local doctor within 3 days.
Ix
None
Definitive
Analgesia
Long term/follow up
Return to hospital if febrile, unwell or getting worse
Patients with symptoms for greater than 4 weeks can be referred to rheumatology clinic.
A child presents to ED due to a painful hip. They are not weight bearing. Describe in full what you would do on examination.
- General appearance, temp
- Gait - running may exaggerate a limp
- Neurological examination - look for ataxia, weakness
- Generalised lymphadenopathy (viral infection / haematological cause)
- Excessive bruising or bruising in unusual places (NAI, haematological)
- Abdomen, scrotum and inguinal area (masses)
- Bony tenderness
- All joints
- knee pain can be referred from the hip, and thigh pain can be referred from the spine
- Include sacro-iliac joints and spine in joint assessment - look for pain on flexion and/or midline tenderness which may be present in discitis
- Exaggerated lordosis (discitis)
- Hip abduction and internal rotation are often the most restricted movements in hip pathology
What organisms typically cause osteomyelitis?
Staphylococcus aureus
but can be caused by group A b-haemolytic streptococci and Haemophilus influenzae.
What do you know about Perthe’s disease?
A self-limiting disease of the femoral head comprising of necrosis, collapse, repair, and re-modelling that presents in the first decade of life and is more commonly seen in boys.
Presentation
- An occasional limp in the early phase
- Knee pain
- Worsening pain and limping as the disease progresses
- Pain in the knee, thigh or groin on movement or when putting weight through the leg
- Decreased movement
- Uneven leg length – the affected leg may become shorter
Investigation - Xray +/- MRI
Management
If the hip joint is only mildly affected, no immediate treatment may be required. If there is pain or stiffness, they will need to rest to relieve the hip joint from weight-bearing movements (no high-impact activities, like jumping or running, until the joint has recovered.) Low impact activities like swimming and gentle cycling are recommended. Ortho referral for consideration of surgical repair
What are the causes of diarrheoa in a child?
Acute
Gastro
Chronic
Coeliac
Lactose intolerence (temporary after gastro or permanent)
Pancreatic insufficiency from CF
Parents of a 6month old baby present to you worried about a lump under the babies umbilicis which appears when he cries or becomes irritable. What do you tell them?
It’s an umbilical hernia.
Common condition and > 95% will resolve spontaneously by 2-3 years.
In infants, hernia may become large and increase in size in the first 6 months.
No treatment needed
Refer to the OPD of General Surgery if still present after 2 years or if there is parental anxiety due to large size in infancy
Parents bring in a 9 month old boy and report than he gets a lump next to his penis when he cries, it is not there now. What investigations should you order.
None. This is an indirect inguinoscrotal hernia protruding through a patent processus vaginalis. If the duct was smaller it would just cause a hydrocele. There are no tests indicated. Ultrasound can not see anything.
A father brings his 7yo daughter to you and explains that she has been weak, tired and pale. You suspect anaemia, what:
- history questions do you ask?
- examination do you perform?
- Investigations do you order?
History
-
Microcytic anaemia – Iron deficiency
- Intake
- diet, meat, chicken, veges
- Absorbtion
- Screen for malabsorbtion
- diarheoa, steatorheoa, poor growth, abdo pain
- Family history or coeliac
- Screen for malabsorbtion
- Loss
- blood loss
- Intake
-
Microcytic anaemia – thalassaemia
- family history of thalassaemia
-
Normocytic anaemia – aplastic anaemia
- Weight loss, night sweats, predisposition to infection, bruising/petechiae
- Slapped cheek picture or rash (transient erythroblastopenia of Parvovirus)
-
Macrocytic anaemia – B12 and folate
- adequate intake of folate and B12?
Exam
- Vitals
- Growth charts
- Pallor palmar creases/conjunctiva
- Jaundice
- Flow murmur?
- Hepatosplenomegaly
- Lymphadenopathy
Investigations
- FBE
- Blood flm
- Reticulocyte count
- Fe studies
How common is jaundice in neonates?
80% of preterm infants
60% of term infants
You order a fractionated serum bilirubin for a jaundiced baby. At what % of conjugated billirubin would you call the situation a “conjugated bilirubin - hepatic/post hepatic cause”
If >15% of total bilirubin is conjugated or absolute conjugated bili of 15umol, that’s when to consider a hepatic/post-hepatic causes
What are the four different types of pathological jaundice in a neonate?
- Too early (
- Too high (More than 320)
- Rising too quickly (Increasing at a rate of greater than 85 micromol per day)
- Too late (more than 2 weeks)
At what level can you see jaundice in the sclera/body?
Slera = 50
Body = 100 (progresses cephalocaudally)
What are the causes of jaundice “too early”
Before 24 hours
- Haemolysis due to blood group incompatibility
- Rhesus incompatibility
- ABO incompatibility
- Minor blood group incompatibility
- Haemolysis due to congenital infection/sepsis
- Haemolysis due to RBC abnormality
- RBC enzyme deficiency –> G6PD
- RBC membrane defect –> hereditory spherocytosis
Who is it at high risk of kernicterus?
- Premature infants
- Low albumin
- Sepsis (esp meningitis)
- Unconjugated bilirubin >350 micromol/L
- Asphyxia, acidosis, hypoxia and hypothermia
You have been asked to get consent from Lily’s parents for phototherapy because she is mildly jaundiced. What do you say?
Introduction
Explanation (before, during and after)
- Phototherapy transforms your baby’s bilirubin into a less harmful chemical
- Your baby is placed in an incubator, they are undressed and wear eye protection
- Because they can dehydrate, you will need to feed your baby every 3-4 hours
- This therapy will normally last 1-2 days until the bilirubin levels are rechecked are low enough to be safe
Benefits
Safe way to reduce the level of bilriubin and protect the brain
Risks
Overheating, water loss, diarrhea, rash, (theoretical) retinal damage
Alternatives
A bili-blanket is a pad that applies light directly to the skin. Can allow your baby to stay in the cot
What are the causes of late jaundice?
Depends whether it is conjugated or not…
Unconjugated
- G6PD
- Hypothyroidism
- Breast mild jaundice
- Sepsis
Conjugated
- Hepatitis due to TORCH infections
- Alpha1 antitrypisin
- Cholestasis due to biliary atresia or choledocal cyst
What are the acute signs and long term side effects of kernicterus?
Acute signs
- Lethargy/drowsiness
- Poor feeding
- Irritability
- Temperature instability
- Arching of the head, neck and back (opisthotonos)
- Seizures
Long term
- Death
- Permanent brain damage including:
- Athetoid cerebral palsy
- Deafness
- Mental retardation
What are the differentials for haematochezia in a child?
- Inflammation
- Crohn’s, ulcerative colitis
- Infection
- C diff, giardia, enamoeba, shigella, other causes of gastro
- Meckel’s
- Milk
- Cow’s milk protein intolerance is a common cause of rectal bleeding
- Trial a non-milk (and non-soy) diet
- Often resolves with age
Why do we think breast feeding can cause jaundice? What is the management of breast milk jaundice?
Breast milk is high calories of low volumes –> more enterohepatic circulation
Don’t stop breast feeding!
In fact, important to keep feeding to rehydrate and to interrupt enterohepatic circulation / ‘get the gut moving’
How would you approach history taking for a jaundiced neonate?
- Determine the time course of the jaundice
- early, high, accelerating, late
- Ask after the underlying cause
- Blood groups/anti-D
- PPROM/GBS/infections
- Family history of blood disorders
- Instrumental delivery/cephalhaematoma
- Dirty nappes/bowel obstruction
- Ask about symptoms of kernicterus
- irritability
- decreased appetite
- seizures
- drowsiness
- arching back
- Screen for kernicterus risk factors
- prematurity
- low albumin
- Sepsis, particularly meningitis
- Asphyxia, acidosis, hypoxia and hypothermia
What is G6PD deficiency?
an X-linked recessive genetic condition that predisposes to hemolysis and resultant jaundice in response to a number of triggers, such as certain foods, illness, or medication.
There is no treatment.
What investigations would you order for a jaundiced neonate?
Frickety Fuck Bloody Mum Seems To Give Crappy Antibodies - Liver Ultrasound
FBE/Retics/film
Fractionated SBR
Bloood group and hold
Mothers blood type
Septic screen
Thyroid function tests
G6PD deficiency
Coombs Direct antibody test (detects IgG attached to RBCs suggesting autoimmune haemolysis)
Alpha1 anti-trypsin
LFTs
Ultrasound
A neonate is jaundiced, what is your management?
Basics
Ensure adequate caloric intake / glucose (breast, formula)
Ensure kept at warm temperature (incubator)
Place and person
Contact Paeds
Admit to SCN / NICU
Investigate and confirm the diagnosis
Frickety Fuck Bloody Mum Seems To Give Crap Antibodies – Liver Ultrasound
- FBE/Retics/film
- Fractionated SBR
- Bloood group and hold
- Mothers blood type
- Septic screen
- Thyroid function tests
- G6PD deficiency
- Coombs Direct antibody test (detects IgG attached to RBCs suggesting autoimmune haemolysis)
- Alpha1 anti-trypsin
- LFTs
- Ultrasound
Definitive management
- Treat cause if possible
- Phototherapy
- IVIG if immune mediated haemolysis
- Exchange transfusion if anaemic
- Low threshold for empirical ABx
What are the causes of “too high” jaundice?
- All the causes of early jaundice
- Cephalhaematoma
- Polycythemia (were they IUGR?)
- Poor feeding
- Bowel obstruction causing increased enterohepatic circulation
How can anaemia present in a child?
- Pallor – conjunctival, palmar crease
- Fatigue, listlessness
- Poor growth
- Flow murmur
- Air hunger (severe)
- Hypotension and cardiac failure (severe)
- Iron deficiency can present with poor attention span, irritability and pica (eating dirt, clay, ice etc)
What are the minimum investigations for suspected haemolytic anaemia in a child?
- FBE
- Blood film (e.g. spherocytosis)
- Bilirubin
- Reticulocytes
- Direct Coombs test
- G6PD assay
Andrew is a 7 year old boy from Hong Kong. A few days ago he developed a cough and a sore throat.
He presents with pallor and mild jaundice. On examination he has splenomegaly. His mother mentioned that this has happened before.
G6PD deficiency
Common in Chinese, Mediterranean and African people
X-linked defect in the enzyme that protects cells from oxidative damage
Triggered by infections, fava beans and drugs (sulfurs, antimalarials)
Martha is fed up. She is 25 years old. An upper abdominal U/S has confirmed yet another gallstone, despite her cholecystectomy last year. She has mild splemegaly.
On history, she tells you that she was jaundiced at birth and, now that you mention it, she has occasionally gone yellow during periods of illness.
Her blood film shows:
Hereditary Spherocytosis
- Fairly common
- Usually associated with neonatal jaundice.
- These RBCs have a membrane defect, that causes their funny shape and predisposed them to destruction in periods of illness. May present with jaundice, anaemia and splenomegaly throughout life (even in adult life with recurrent cholelithiasis!)
What are the causes of abdominal pain in kids?
MIDGUT MISHAP
Migraines - abdominal
Intussception
DKA
Gastroenteritis
UTI
Testiicular Torsion
Malignancy (Wilm’s, Leukaemia, Neuroblastoma)
Inguinal hernia - stranulated
Stuck poo (constipation)
HSP
Appendix + mimickers (mesenteric adenopathy / Meckel’s diverticulum)
Pregnancy / ectopics / gynae
You diagnose transient synovitis of the hip. The parents ask:
“In a sentence, what is it?”
What age kids does it typically affect?
How long till it will be better?
It’s the common cold of the hip
It affects kids age 3-10
It should improve within 3 days
It should be resolved within 2 weeks
What is the management of transient synovitis of the hip?
- Home care should involve complete rest and pain relief
- Time off school until better
- Avoidance of sport and strenuous activity until completely better
-
Paracetemol
- NSAIDs should be used with caution in asthmatics
- Aspirin should be avoided in children
- Importantly, tell them to come back if:
- High fevers
- Swelling
- Redness
- Severe or worsening pain
- Pain that does not improve after 3 days or significantly resolve in a week.
As a side note the concern with aspirin in kids under 16 is Reyes Syndrome. It is a very rare condition of acute deadly noninflammatory encephalopathy and fatty degenerative liver failure.
What is the management of septic arthritis?
Basics
Admit, ABC support and monitoring
Investigation
Blood – FBE, ESR, cultures
Imaging – plain film
Special – joint aspiration, bone scan (best test)
Definitive Management
Refer to orthopaedics
Urgent aspiration +/- arthrotomy and washout
Flucloxacillin IV
Follow up
What are the risk factors for DDH?
Breech presentation (10x)
Female (4x)
Oligiohydraminos (4x)
Macrosomia (>4kg) (2x)
1st born baby (2x)
FMHx
Essentially, anything that causes the foetus to be squished can cause hip development issues.
Who should receive screening for DDH?
Infants with a suggestive clinical examination
OR
risk factors (breech birth, oligohydraminos, macrosomia and FMHx)
What investigations do you use for suspected DDH?
Before 4-6 weeks, the hip is largely cartilaginous –> No test is useful
Formal investigation is often deferred until after 6 weeks
Before 4-6 months, ossification of the upper femur has not occurred
–> Ultrasonography is the best test.
After 4-6 months, there is sufficient ossification to enable interpretable radiography
–> Plain film becomes the best test
A concerned mother brings her 7 month old to you because her sister told her that she thinks the baby may have DDH, how would you check if the sister was right?
After 3 months, the Barlow and Ortolani tests are less useful
More meaningful signs include:
- Asymmetrical hip abduction
- Uneven leg length
- Asymmetrical skin creases (weak sign)
- High greater trochanter (dislocated)
- Gait disturbance and chronic limp (older children)
What is a toddler’s fracture?
What is the management?
What is the prognosis?
A radiologically subtle spiral fracture of the distal tibia that occurs in toddlers (9 months to 3 years). The periosteum remains intact and the bone is stable. These fractures occur as a result of a twisting injury.
Suspect when:
- Unexpected pain or duration of limp after a relatively minor injury
- Twisting one leg causes no pain, twisting the affected leg is very painful
- Tender tibia on palpation
Management
- Above-knee plaster can give pain relief, but if the pain is minimal treat conservatively.
- May continue to limp for 6 weeks.
What would you do for a kid with a Perthes disease?
What is the prognosis?
Orthopaedics referral
Normal recovery expected in 18-36 months
Femoro-acetabular contact is key to normal growth
Treatment depends on severity:
Symptomatic –> slings/braces –> broomstick plaster –> surgery
How do you detect a SUFE on xray?
Notice that a line along the lateral edge of the femoral neck does not cross the epiphysis on the affected side.
An obese 12yo boy presents with a painful left hip to ED. What do you do?
This is a SUFE
Order a plan x ray
No weight bearing until definitive management
Urgent orthopaedic review
In situ pinning of the epiphysis to the femoral neck
What are the features of an inflammed joint?
- Pain
- Warmth
- Swelling
- Erythema –> usually suggests an infectious pathology!
- Stiffness, worse in morning
- Loss of function (reduced range of movement)
What are the forms of JIA?
- Oligoarthritis
- 4 or fewer joints affected in the first 6 months of the disease
- Broken down into normal and extended
- Polyarthritis
- 5 or more joints affected in the first 6 months of the disease
- RH - and RF +
- RF + is basically just RA, bad prognosis
- Systemic Arthritis
- Formerly called ‘Still’s disease’
- Systemic symptoms like fever, rashes, lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly predominant the early illess
- Beyond the joint
- psoriatic
- enthesitis (HLA B27+)
This is the knee of a 14yo boy who has just had a growth spurt. He has come in because his knee is very painful.
What’s the diagnosis?
What’s the treatment?
What’s the prognosis?
- Osgood-Schlatter syndrome is a painful knee condition that affects adolescents.
- It often occurs during a growth spurt and is associated with physical activity. Symptoms include pain and local swelling in the front of one or both knees.
- It is thought that the quadricepts tendon becomes tight and causes inflammation and micro-fractures in the tibial tuberosity.
- Diagnosis
- Clinical but get an Xray
- Management
- Physio referral for excercises
- Rest
- NSAID analgesia
- Prognosis
- The condition usually completely resolves within 12 months but the prominent tibial tuberosity will always be there.
Sally, a 6yo girl has severe extended oligoarthritis of her right wrist and elbow. What effect may this have on her growth?
Chronic inflammation can lead to hyperaemia of the affected joint and the local epiphysis. This can lead to abnormally increased growth and lengthening of the affected bone!
Is oligoarticular JIA erosive?
Is polyarticular JIA erosive?
Oligo = no
Poly = can be, particularly if RF+
What are the clinical features of the presentation of Still’s disease?
- High spiking (>39) fever, with resolution between spikes. May occur 1-2x daily.
- 95% have a salmon pink rash on the limbs or trunk that forms during the fever spike. Rash may be urticarial.
- The rash may be triggered by warm baths or skin irritation (Koebner phenomenon)
- Lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly often occur
- Pericarditis and pleuritis are common
- There may be severe anaemia.
- Joint disease may manifest months to years after systemic presentation.
Who (gender/age) does enthesitis related arthritis typically affect in chldhood?
What % of these patients go on to have AnkSpond?
>6yo boys
10% progress to AnkSpond
In which of the JIA conditions is RF positive?
Only a small proportion of polyarticular JIA. Associated with poor prognosis.
What is the significance of a positive ANA in JIA?
What types of JIA is ANA typically positive in?
What is the management of ANA positive JIA?
Increases risk of anterior uveitis
Commonly positive in oligo and polyarticular JIA
Anterior uveitis is often asymptomatic, opthal review 2-6 monthly is needed
If untreated, can lead to cataract, adhesions in the anterior chamber and glaucoma.
Treat with topical steroids, dilators (mydriatics) and maybe MTX
What bedside test is thought to have 100% sensitivity for appendicitis?
Jumping up and down leading to severe pain
This is an xray of a neonate, what is the diagnosis?
Boot shaped heart
Tetralogy of Fallot
What causes subglottic stenosis?
Who does this typically affect?
Damage from intubation
Presents with chronic fixed stridor
Classically an ex-preterm infant who had long term ventilation
May require endoscopic ablation to resolve
A baby was born at 32 weeks and has tracheomalacia. If he gets bronchiolitis it could be deadly. What do you do?
Palivizumab monoclonal antibody against RSV
Super expensive, only for very high risk babies
Give as monthly injections throughout RSV season
What are the two groups that get intussuception?
Around 9 months old - no pathological lead point - respond well to air enema
Over 3 years - pathological lead point (Meckels, polyp, lymphoma, TB, HSP) - often require surgery
At what age should you start screening a child with T1DM for micro and macrovascular complications?
Age 10
What is the inheritence pattern of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
What is the pathophysiology?
What are the two forms of the condition?
What is the clinical presentation?
Inheritance pattern = autosomal recessive
Pathophysiology = Enzyme defect leading to impaired production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids by the adrenal glands. >95% of cases are caused by a 21-hydroxylase deficiency. Reduced negative feedback to the hypothalamus and pituatary leads to increased ACTH secretion and adrenal stimulation. The adrenal gland can only respond with hyperplasia and increased sex steroid synthesis.
Forms = simple virilising and salt-losing
Clinical presentation = in females either form presents with ambiguous genitalia. If this is missed they may present with salt losing adrenal crisis in the following 1-2 weeks. Missing this can lead to death. In males the virilising form leads to signs of puberty as a toddler.
In one sentence, what is the management of Congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
Long term mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid replacement.
A 5 month old child presents with a UTI. What is the likely organism? What is the management?
E. Coli.
IV cephalosporin
Why? In a child this young they cant present with dysuria so they present late when septic. In an older child trimethoprim would be fine?
A child comes to ED having had a febrile seizure. Mum asks you what the chance of it happening again are. What do you say?
30-40%
Mum brings her 2 yo to you because he’s been febrile with an URTI for 3.5 days. She is worried because he’s had a febrile seizure in the past. What do you tell her about the chance of him having a seizure?
If he’s had one there’s a 30-40% chance he’ll have another one at some point. But they generally occur early in the course of a febrile illness. At day 3.5 it’s less likely to occur now.
What is the prognosis of absence seizures in kids?
Good. Most grow out of it.
A 6 month old girl is brought to you because her parents are worried that she has “bouts of spasms”, where she grimaces and throws her arms out. She is unresponsive during these brief attacks but then recovers. What is going on? What do you know about this condition?
- Infantile spasms / West syndrome
- catastrophic childhood epilepsy
- Seizures start between 4 - 12 months
- Urgent neuro referral
- 1/20 mortality
- Poor prognosis with developmental delay and long term serious epilepsy
At what age would you worry if a child hadn’t started walking?
18 months
What is short gut syndrome?
What causes it?
How is it managed?
What is the prognosis?
What is it?
Malabsorbtion due to severe disease or surgical removal of a significant proportion of the small intestine.
Causes
Although SBS may rarely be a congenital condition, most patients with SBS have undergone bowel resection for one of the following:
- A congenital anomaly such as an omphalocele, gastroschisis, or intestinal atresia
- Necrotizing enterocolitis associated with prematurity
- Intestinal ischemia from malrotation and volvulus
- Crohn disease (infrequent with current treatment)
Management
Usually dependent on TPN
Prognosis
Fairly catastrophic
In newborn infants, the 4-year survival rate on parenteral nutrition is approximately 70%.
In newborn infants with less than 10% of expected intestinal length, 5 year survival is approximately 20%
In a setence, what is duplex kidney and what complications can it cause?
The inferior ureter can insert low down in the bladder leading to VU reflex and hydronephrosis
What are the features of salbutamol toxicity?
Tachycardia,
Tachypnoea
Metabolic acidosis.
Lactate commonly high.
Controversial: can cause VQ mismatch and worsen symptoms in very high doses
A nurse brings you an ABG on a child having a moderately severe asthma attack. She is worried because it shows metabolic acidosis, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia and a raised lactate. What do you think?
The lactate is high because of the large amounts of salbutamol the child would have received.
The glucose is likely high because the kid has probably been given prednisolone.
Metabolic acidosis and hypokalaemia are a sign of salbutamol toxicity. You would worry about this (stop salbutamol) but not so much the other stuff.
What is HSP?
What age/gender groups does it affect?
What is the aetiology?
What complications/other symptoms can it cause?
Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is the most common vasculitis of childhood and affects the small vessels. HSP is characterised by the classic tetrad of rash, abdominal pain, arthritis/arthralgia, and glomerulonephritis.
Age groups
Between the ages of 3 and 15 years.
Males twice as commonly as females
Aetiology
The underlying cause of HSP remains unknown. It is an immune-mediated vasculitis, with a variety of infectious and chemical triggers having been proposed as a cause. Many cases of HSP occur after a URTI, especially streptococcal infections
Complications/other symptoms
- Nephritic syndrome and long term renal damage
- Subcuteneous oedema
- Intussusception
- Pancreatitis
- Sponteneous bowel perforation
- bloody stools
- Haematemesis
- Painful scotal swelling
What is the significance of abdo pain in HSP?
Uncomplicated abdominal pain often resolves spontaneously within 72 hours. However serious abdominal complications may occur including intussusception, bloody stools, haematemesis, spontaneous bowel perforation, and pancreatitis.
What investigations would you order for suspected HSP?
Bedside
None
Bloods and urine
Urinalysis and urine microscopy (to quanitify haematuria)
FBE
UEC (elevated creatinine indicated renal Cx)
Blood culture
Imaging
USS of scrotum of abdo if suspect intusscusception, testicular torsion or other
Special
Can biopsy lesions in legs if really need to
What is the management of HSP?
Basics
Analgesia
Place and person
Any purpuric rash should be reviewed by at least a Reg
Consider admission if renal complications, suspicion of abdominal complications or severe pain
Investigate and confirm diagnosis
Urinalysis and urine microscopy
FBE/UEC
Blood cultures
Definitive
- Document the child’s blood pressure
- Consider a surgical consult if abdominal features are prominent. Testicular torsion can be hard to differentiate from the pain of vasculitic testicular pain.
- The use of prednisolone has not been shown to make clinically important improvements in the rate of long-term renal complications. It has been shown to reduce the duration of abdominal and joint pain and may reduce the risk of abdominal complications. It may be considered for use in patients with more than mild joint or abdominal pain. Consider prednisolone 1mg/kg while symptoms persist.
You see a kid in ED who you diagnose with HSP. You tell the parents that it will most likely self-resolve. What else do you need to tell them?
Come back if…
if your child has increasing stomach pains or swelling, blood in the stools or urine, or if you are worried for any other reason.
What you need to do now….?
BP and urinalysis with GP monthly for 6 months to ensure that if a kidney problem does arise it is picked up early.
What can you tell about this little girl?
Foetal alcohol syndrome
Most distintive features are thin upper lip and indistinct philtrum
What is persistent pulmonary hypertension of the neonate?
What causes it?
What is it?
Delayed relaxation of the pulmonary vascular bed at birth means that the baby maintains it’s foetal circulation (right to left shunt across the ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale ).
What causes it?
PPHN is seen in association with many neonatal respiratory diseases including:
- lung hypoplasia (eg diaphragmatic hernia)
- meconium aspiration syndrome
- pneumonia
- surfactant deficiency
The syndrome may also be seen in the absence of triggering diseases.
What is the main drug used for PPHN?
Nitric oxide (NO)
This baby has just been born, he is on vigorous and is not crying. Should you stimulate him?
No, meconium stained liquor suggests he could have mec in his oropharynx. Suction his oropharynx first before stimulating. Intubate immediately.
Babies usually lose weight in the first few days after birth. How much weight loss would make you worry though?
If they lose 10% or more of their birth weight you would worry.
What is the dosage of paracetemol in paeds?
15mg / kg
So a 30kg 6 year old would get 450mg
What is a posterior urethral valve?
How common is it?
Why is it a problem?
What is it?
An abnormal leaflet of tissue exists in the urethra, causing an obstruction to urine flow. It is a developmental anomaly, present before birth and only affects boys.
How common?
PUV is rare, occurring in 1 in 4000-6000 boys
Why is it a problem?
Urethral blockage near the bladder makes it hard for the bladder to expel urine, so the bladder has to push harder to try to empty. This increases pressure in the urinary tract. The pressure may push the urine back through the ureters to the kidney and cause the ureters, kidneys and bladder to dilate (expand).
What are the investigations, management and prognosis of posterior urethral valves?
Investigations…
- UEC
- Ultrasound
- Micturating cystourethogram (MCU)
- This is the definitive test for PUV. It is performed with a catheter placed through the urethra into the bladder. Contrast material is injected through the catheter to outline the bladder. An X-ray is taken which will show the shape of the bladder, whether there is any back flow up the ureters (reflux). Xrays are taken to identify the contrast outlining the urethra and any internal obstruction (valve).
- Cystoscopy
- This is both a confirmatory and therapeutic intervention. It is a surgical procedure, performed under anaesthesia. A small telescope is placed inside the urethra to identify the obstruction. Treatment of the valves can be performed at the same time. Other tests may be needed to check the function of the kidneys, the drainage, and to monitor treatment
Management
Catheter insertion then ablation via cystoscopy
Prognosis
About one third will develop kidney failure at some stage, requiring dialysis or renal transplant.
About one third of patients will have a degree of renal impairment, managed with medication and diet.
About one third of patients will have normal kidney function, but may have ongoing issues with urinary tract drainage, infection and bladder function.
What is the mortality rate of NEC?
20-40%
How much weight should babies gain per week in the first 3 months of life?
An infant should gain 180g/week within the first three months of life
What are the causes of failure to thrive?
Think of:
- Reduced calories in
- Reduced absorption
- Increased calories out
- Increased caloric requirement
- Inability to use calories
- Reduced calories in
- Recurrent vomiting / possets
- Poor sucking reflex
- Cleft palate
- Underlying organic pathology –> tiring at the breast
- Reduced absorption
- Coeliac disease
- Milk protein allergy
- Pancreatic insufficiency (eg. CF)
- Increased calories out
- Diarrhoea
- Increased caloric requirement
- Anything!
- Congenital heart disease
- Sepsis
- Hyperthyroidism
- Inability to use calories
- Inborn errors of metabolism
What do you know about innocent mumurs in childhood?
An innocent murmur is a murmur arising from turbulent blood flow through a normal heart, for reasons which may be unclear.
The 5 ‘S’s of an innocent murmur are:
- innoSent
- aSymptomatic
- Soft
- Systolic
- left Sternal edge
Innocent murmurs are very common and may be heard in around 50% of normal school aged children and approximately 80% of children in early infancy
An important DDx from an innocent murmur is an atrial septal defect (ASD). Therefore must carefully listen for wide or fixed splitting of S2 before concluding that it is an innocent murmur.
Innocent murmurs are made louder, and hence more easily detected, during an illness with a fever (as the heart works harder and this increases the turbulence in blood flow). If you hear the mumur during an illness wait until they’ve recovered then review it again.
What are the complications of prematurity?
FRANGRANT PPP THHD
F - Feeding difficulty
R - Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
A - Anaemia
G - GORD
R - Retinopathy of prematurity
A - Apneoa of prematurity
N - NEC
T - Transient tachypneoa of the newborn
P - Patent PDA
P - Physiological jaundice
P - Periventricular leukomalacia
T - Thermoregulation problems
H - Hypoglycaemia
H - Haemorrhage (intraventricular)
D - Developmental problems (ID, cerebral palsy)
What is intraventricular haemorrhage of prematurity?
How does it present?
How is it diagnosed?
What are the different grades?
What is the management?
Immature capillary bed lining the ventricles / vascular fragility of the germinal matrix. Occurs within 48 hours of birth.
Clinical presentation
- Often asymptomatic
- Tense fontanelles
- Floppy / limp
- Seizure activity
- Decerebrate posture
How is it diagnosed?
U/S between 5 and 7 days of life. Repeat at 28 days of life
Grades
Grade I - bleeding occurs just in the germinal matrix
Grade II - bleeding also occurs inside the ventricles, but they are not enlarged
Grade III - ventricles are enlarged by the accumulated blood
Grade IV - bleeding extends into the brain tissue around the ventricles
Grades I and II are most common, and often there are no further complications. Grades III and IV are the most serious and may result in long-term brain injury to the infant. After a grade III or IV IVH, blood clots may form which can block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid, leading to hydrocephalus and then cerebral palsy, epilepsy, hearing/visual problems.
Management
Grade 1 and 2 have no treatment.
Grade 3 and 4 –> VP shunt + follow up to monitor development
What is respiratory distress syndrome?
What is the clinical picture?
How can you prevent it?
How do you manage it?
What is it?
- Also known as hyaline membrane disease or surfactant deficiency syndrome
- Due to immaturity of the type 2 pneumocytes –> surfactant deficiency –> alveolar collapse –> stiff lungs –> increased WOB –> decreased tidal volume –> hypoxaemia –> respiratory acidosis
- Lung surfactant is only adequate by 30-32 weeks gestation
- RDS affects 50% of neonates with GA
- RDS affects almost 100% of those born
- Causes:
- Prematurity
- Perinatal asphyxia (hypoxia inhibits surfactant production)
- Maternal diabetes (delays surfactant synthesis)
- RDS affects about 1% of newborn infants and, along with NEC, is the leading cause of death in preterm infants
Clinical picture:
Signs of increased WOB (increased RR, nasal flaring, use of accessory muscles, grunting)
Hypoxaemia, cyanosis
Whether treated or not, the clinical course for the acute disease lasts about 2 to 3 days. During the first day the patient worsens and requires more support. During the second day the baby may be remarkably stable on adequate support and resolution is noted during the third day, heralded by a prompt diuresis.
Prevention
Antenatal betamethasone is used in the prevention of RDS, given to a mother expecting a premature baby (up to 24 hours before birth, should be given two courses. Unlikely to give beneficial effect if given >2 weeks prior to birth)
Mx
- Oxygen
- Nasal CPAP
- Surfactant administration (can be given down ETT!)
- Mechanical ventilation (severe)
- Non respiratory
- Attention to thermoregulation can reduce the severity of the condition
- Antibiotics commence penicillin and gentamicin therapy after initial investigations.
- Minimal handling
- No feeding until resolved
What is the dose of energy used for defibrillation of children?
4j per kg
What is apnoea of prematurity?
Why does it happen/what are the different types?
Defined no respiratory effort for greater than 20 seconds. No respiratory effort for shorter periods of time may also be classified as apnoea if accompanied by cyanosis or bradycardia
Why does it happen/what are the types?
- Central apnoea:* (40%) Caused by decreased central nervous system stimuli to respiratory muscles. Both the respiratory effort and airflow cease simultaneously. (Absence of chest wall movement and airflow).
- Obstructive apnoea:* (10%) Caused by pharyngeal instability / collapse, neck flexion or nasal obstruction. Absence of airflow in presence of inspiratory efforts. (Presence of chest wall movement but no airflow).
- Mixed apnoea*: (50%) Has a mixed aetiology. Central apnoea is either preceded (usually) or followed by obstructed respiratory effort
NB: Short episodes of apnoea are usually central whereas prolonged ones are often mixed
Apneoa of prematurity
When does it happen?
What is the management?
What is the prognosis?
When does it happen?
Onset is from days 2-7 of life. Apnoea beginning immediately after birth suggests another cause.
Management
- Monitoring in SCN/NICU
- Positioning:
- Ensure the neonate’s head and neck are positioned correctly (head and neck in neutral position) to maintain a patent airway.
- Tactile stimulation:
- Gentle rubbing of soles of feet or chest wall is usually all that is required for episodes that are mild and intermittent.
- Clear airway:
- Suction mouth and nostrils.
- Methyxanthines
- caffeine or theophyllline
- Improve diaphragm contraction and stimulates the respiratory centres
- caffeine or theophyllline
- Nasal CPAP (reducing obstruction; reducing work of breathing)
- Mechanical ventilation (if severe)
Prognosis
Since AOP is fundamentally a problem of the immaturity of the physiological systems of the premature infant, it is a self-limited condition that will resolve when these systems mature. It is unusual for an infant to continue to have significant problems with AOP beyond 42 weeks post-conceptual age.
What is the ductus venosis? What does it do?
What is the clinical significance?
In the fetus, the ductus venosus shunts a portion of the left umbilical vein blood flow directly to the inferior vena cava. Thus, it allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver. Compared to the 50% shunting of umbilical blood through the ductus venosus found in animal experiments, the degree of shunting in the human fetus under physiological conditions is considerably less, 30% at 20 weeks, which decreases to 18% at 32 weeks, suggesting a higher priority of the fetal liver than previously realized.
Clinical significance
You use the ductus venosis for venous access in resusc of the neonate.
How often is basic neonatal resusc required?
How often is advanced neonatal resusc required?
10%
1%
Describe the APGAR scoring criteria.
What do you do with APGAR scoring if the 5min APGAR is 6?
If less than 7 you score it every 5minute until it gets to 7
What is the nature of the relationship between the risk of cerebral palsy and prematurity?
The risk is much greater in preterm babies, but if you pick a random kid with CP 60% of them will have been born at term
What is the most significant risk factor for cerebral palsy?
HIE is the most common identifiable risk factor, but it contributes to less than a quarter of cases
What are the hallmark symptoms of cerebral palsy?
non-independent walking
non-independent feeding
epilepsy
blindness
hearing problems
Later then have learning difficulties and behavioural problems
What is the sensitivity of antenatal ultrasounds to congenital cardiac pathology?
Varies from 60-95% depending on the skill of the clinician.
Make sure where you send them have a Certificate of Obstetric and Gynaecological Ultrasound (COGU).
Why do paediatric surgeons see a lot of intussusception in winter?
Viral illnesses which occur in winter cause swelling of Peyer’s patches in the bowel which serve as pathological lead points for intussusception
What is Turner’s syndrome?
What are some of the key features
XO females
- short stature
- infertility
- congenital heart defects
- spatial awareness issues – problems with tasks such as maths but otherwise normal IQ
- Amenorrhoea
- Hearing problems
- no breays
- extra skin (‘webbing’) on the neck
- puffy hands and feet
- low hairline.
Spot diagnosis
Turner’s syndrome XO females
- short stature
- infertility
- congenital heart defects
- spatial awareness issues – problems with tasks such as maths but otherwise normal IQ
- Amenorrhoea
- Hearing problems
- no breays
- extra skin (‘webbing’) on the neck
- puffy hands and feet
- low hairline.
What is Eisenmenger syndrome?
In what cardiac conditions can it occur?
Eisenmenger’s syndrome is defined as the process in which a left to right shunt caused by a congenital heart defect in the fetal heart causes increased flow through the pulmonary vasculature, causing pulmonary hypertension, which in turn causes increased pressures in the right side of the heart and reversal of the shunt into a right-to-left shunt.
Eisenmenger syndrome is a cyanotic heart defect characterized by a long-standing intracardiac shunt (caused by ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, or less commonly, patent ductus arteriosus) that eventually reverses to a right-to-left shunt. This syndrome is less frequent today because of medical screening withechocardiography early in life.
Prognosis is poor if early intervention doesn’t happen. After pulmonary hypertension has developed, a heart–lung transplant or a lung transplant with repair of the heart is a possible option.
A baby is born with imperforate anus as well as tetrology of Fallot. What does this make you think?
The VACTERL association (also VATER association) refers to the non-random co-occurrence of birth defects
Vertebral anomalies,
Anal atresia
Cardiac defects
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Esophageal atresia
Renal & Radial anomalies
Limb defects.
The reason it is called an association, rather than a syndrome is that while the complications are not pathogenically related they tend to occur together more frequently than expected by chance. In general, the etiology of “associations” are not defined.
A baby is born with an umbilical hernia. You are able to easily reduce it, but of course coughing/crying pops it out again. What do you tell the parents?
- It’s very common
- Very likely will self resolve
- However, it will probably get bigger when the baby starts crawling as gravity takes it’s course
- If it hasn’t resolved by age 2 get a surgical consult to consider repair
- Tell parents warning signs
- can’t reduce
- skin changes
- pain (when able to talk)
- constipation/vomiting late signs
How many puffs of salbutamol should you give a kid having an asthma attack?
How often?
When can you discharge?
For kids under 6 = 6 puffs
For kids over 6 = 12 puffs
Give every 20mins as required, then stretch. Can discharge when stretched to 3 hourly
A child has come in to ED severely dehydrated and shocked. How do you calculate their IV fluids now and for the next 24 hours?
- 10-20ml/kg boluses of normal saline until not shocked
- Maintenance fluids of normal saline + 5% glucose according to 4,2,1 rule
- Slowly correct deficit
- ignore bolus fluid volumes given
- If severe shock assume 10% dehydrated
- Give 10% of bodyweight in fluids
- Give first half of this over the first 6 hours
- Give the second half of this over the second 18 hours
- You can do this more slowly if needs be
What is the most common presentation of worms in kids?
How do you confirm the diagnosis?
How are the worms spread?
What is the management?
What is the prognosis?
Presentation
Itching around the anus (pruritus ani). The itchiness tends to be worse at night and can cause trouble sleeping. The itching is caused by an inflammatory reaction to the adult worm and eggs on the skin.
Diagnosis
Sticky tape the kid’s bum at night, examine the tape for worms/eggs.
How are they spread?
Through swallowing the eggs. When someone with pinworm scratches their anus, the eggs get lodged beneath their fingernails, and are then deposited on clothing and furniture. Uninfested individuals can come in contact with pinworm eggs and ingest them unknowingly. Infested individuals continue to ingest the eggs (auto-infection).
Other family members are at particular risk of pinworm infestation.
Management
- Pyrantel (Combantrin) or mebendazole (Banworm).
- Very safe medications
- Treat the entire household
- Shower the night before taking and the morning after. Wash all sheets in very hot water and vacuum the bedroom.
- Have the child wash his/her hands with warm soapy water for at least 10 seconds after going to the toilet.
Prognosis
Reinfection is very common
It’s a mild disease though so doens’t really matter
At what ages do absence seizures typically occur?
4 to 14. It’s also possible for older teens and adults to have absence seizures, but it’s less likely.
What is the drug management of absence seizures?
Ethosuximide is used commonly to treat absence seizures. Ethosuximide is ineffective in controlling tonic-clonic seizures, so is not used in children with juvenile absence epilepsy. Treatment is usually for 2 years only in typical childhood absence epilepsy, with an expectation of seizure remission, and through puberty in juvenile absence epilepsy, with later appearance of tonic-clonic seizures being a risk. Intellectual development isusually normal.
What is a breath holding attack?
- Attacks usually commence in the first or second year of life.
- Crucial to the diagnosis is recognition that attacks are precipitated by either physical trauma, such as a knock or a fall, or emotional trauma such as fright, anger or frustration, the precipitants not always being significant and noticed.
- Attacks usually commence with crying, but this may be brief or absent. Apnoea then occurs with cyanosis or pallor, and may then either terminate without apparent loss of consciousness, or progress with the child becoming unconscious, limp and sometimes briefly stiffening or jerking in response to the cerebral hypoxia. Incontinence may occur with such convulsive features.
- Recovery is usually rapid, although some children are drowsy and lethargic after an attack with convulsive features. Attacks usually cease by the third or fourth year of life.
- They are not a cause of death, epilepsy, intellectual disability or cerebral damage in later life.
- The pathophysiology of breath holding attacks is not well understood,
What is this?
What is the significance?
Salmon patch
Also known as nevus simplex or “angel kisses”, these are a common capillary malformations that are present at birth. Eyelid spots generally fade over several months. Lesions on the glabella may take several years to resolve, and occasionally the outlines can be seen into adulthood, especially when the face is flushed.
This is a newborn, what is the diagnosis?
What is the prognosis?
Milia are keratin filled epithethial cysts which occur in up to 40% of newborns. Spontaneous exfoliation and resolution is expected within a few weeks. Parents will occasionally mistake these lesion for neonatal acne, but milia are present at birth and have no inflammatory component.
When performing a newborn examination you feel a ridge over the suture sites adjacent to the anterior fontanelle. What is the diagnosis? What’s the significance/prognosis of this diagnosis?
Craniosynostosis
One or more of the fibrous sutures in an infant skull prematurely fuses by turning into bone (ossification), thereby changing the growth pattern of the skull. Because the skull cannot expand perpendicular to the fused suture, it compensates by growing more in the direction parallel to the closed sutures.
Sometimes the resulting growth pattern provides the necessary space for the growing brain, but results in an abnormal head shape and abnormal facial features. In cases in which the compensation does not effectively provide enough space for the growing brain, craniosynostosis results in increased intracranial pressure leading possibly to visual impairment, sleeping impairment, eating difficulties, or an impairment of mental development combined with a significant reduction in IQ.
Can you visualise and name the newborn fontanelles and sutures?
When do they close?
Anterior fontanelle closes at 18-24 months
Posterior fontanelle closes at 3 months
In what layers do cephalhaematomas occur?
Where on the head do they normally occur?
What do they look/feel like on examination?
What causes them?
What is the management?
Layers
Under periosteum of skull bone but superficial to skull
Where on the head
Usually parietal bones, because this is where forceps attach
What do they look/feel like?
Margins are firm w/ a soft fluctant centre. They do not cross suture lines (help in by periosteum).
What causes them?
The usual causes of a cephalohematoma are a prolonged second stage of labor or instrumental delivery, particularly ventouse.
Management
Phototherapy may be necessary if blood accumulation is significant leading to jaundice. Rarely anaemia can develop needing blood transfusion. Do not aspirate to remove accumulated blood because of the risk of infection and abscess formation. The presence of a bleeding disorder should be considered but is rare. Skull radiography or CT scanning is also used if concomitant depressed skull fracture is a possibility. It may take weeks and months to resolve and disappear completely.
What are the differences between caput succedaneum and cephalhaematoma?
What is this? What layers are involved?
What does it look/feel like on examination?
What is the management?
Caput succedaneum is a neonatal condition involving a serosanguinous, subcutaneous, extraperiosteal fluid collection with poorly defined margins caused by the pressure of the presenting part of the scalp against the dilating cervix (tourniquet effect of the cervix) during delivery.
It involves bleeding below the scalp and above the periosteum.
Features on examination
Caput succedaneum presents as a scalp swelling that extends across the midline and over suture lines and is associated with head molding.
Management
Caput succedaneum does not usually cause complications and usually resolves over the first few days.
What is a subgaleal haematoma? What are the features on clinical exam?
What causes it?
What is the management?
What are the complications?
What is it?
Subgaleal hemorrhage or hematoma is bleeding in the potential space between the skull periosteum and the scalp galea aponeurosis.
It presents as a fluctuant boggy mass developing over the scalp (especially over the occiput) with superficial skin bruising. The swelling develops gradually 12–72 hours after delivery, although it may be noted immediately after delivery in severe cases. The hematoma spreads across the whole calvaria as its growth is insidious and may not be recognized for hours. If enough blood accumulates a visible fluid wave may be seen.
Cause
The majority (90%) result from applying a vacuum to the head at delivery (Ventouse assisted delivery).
Management
Management consists of vigilant observation over days to detect progression.
Complications
The subgaleal space is capable of holding up to 50% of a newborn baby’s blood and can therefore result in acute shock and death. Fluid bolus may be required if blood loss is significant and patient becomes tachycardic. Transfusion and phototherapy may be necessary. Investigation for coagulopathy may be indicated.
Spot diagnosis?
Management?
Ankyloglossia
May require surgery if severe
Spot diagnosis?
Why is this diagnosis important?
Pierre Robin Sequence
microganthia and cleft palate can cause severe respiratory problems
At what age is cerebral palsy usually diagnosed?
Around 18 months
What are some of the indicators that an infant may have cerebral palsy?
- Can’t hold their head up
- Feels floppy when picked up
- Unusual posturing
- Stiff muscles
- Delayed developmental milestones
- rolling
- sitting
- standing
- walking
Cerebral palsy
Define dystonia, chorea, athetosis and ataxia
Dystonia: characterized by involuntary, sustained contractions
Chorea: rapid, involuntary, jerky and fragmented motions
Athetosis: slower, constantly changing, writhing or contorting movements
Ataxia: loss of muscular coordination with abnormal force and rhythm and impairment of accuracy
Name and describe the four types of cerebral palsy
Spastic cerebral palsy: - most common type (86%)
- stiffness or tightness of muscles on movement
- Monoplegia – single limb involvement
- Hemiplegia: involvement of an ipsilateral upper and lower extremity
- Diplegia: predominant involvement of both lower extremities, greater than upper limbs
- Quadriplegia: involvement of all limbs and trunk.
Dyskinetic
- involuntary, recurring and occasionally stereotyped movements with a varying muscle tone.
- Dystonia: characterized by involuntary, sustained contractions
- Chorea: rapid, involuntary, jerky and fragmented motions
- Athetosis: slower, constantly changing, writhing or contorting movements
Ataxic
Loss of muscular coordination with abnormal force and rhythm and impairment of accuracy
Mixed
What is the most common cause of cerebral palsy where the condition is acquired after 1 month of age?
Stroke
What is the incidence of cerebral palsy?
1 in 500 Australian babies is diagnosed with cerebral palsy.
What % of people with cerebral palsy have an intellectual disability?
50%
What are the risk factors for cerebral palsy?
- Antenatal (70-80% of cases)
- premature birth (less than 37 weeks)
- low birth weight (small for gestational age)
- maternal thrombophilia
- placental abruption
- TORCH infections
- Perinatal
- RH or A-B-O blood type incompatibility between mother and baby
- Asphyxia during birth (contributes to less than 10% of cases)
- Postnatal
- hyperbilirubinaemia,
- neonatal sepsis,
- respiratory distress,
- early-onset meningitis,
- intraventricular haemorrhage,
- head injuries prior to 3 years (including child abuse and shaken baby syndrome).
List the childhood seizure disorders?
Childhood absence epilepsy. What is the?
Age of onset
Aetiology
Primary seizure activity
Associated with other seizure types
Treatment
Prognosis
4 – 9 years
Idiopathic but strong genetic component
Absence seizures (can be up to 100s per day)
It is rare for children to have other seizure types at first, but about 40% of children with childhood absence epilepsy develop tonic-clonic seizures as well.
Ethosuximide and sodium valproate are equally effective, but ethosuximide is better tolerated. However, unlike sodium valproate, ethosuximide does not protect against associated generalised tonic-clonic seizures.
Usually resolves two to five years after the seizures begin or when the child is a teenager
Juvenile absence epilepsy. What is the:
Age of onset
Aetiology
Primary seizure activity
Associated with other seizure types
Treatment
Prognosis
10 – 15 years
Idiopathic but strong genetic component
Absence seizures (less frequent that childhood absence epilepsy)
80% of children with juvenile absence epilepsy also have tonic-clonic seizures. These may begin later than the absence seizures. Some also have myoclonic seizures and absence status epilepticus.
Ethosuximide and sodium valproate are equally effective, but ethosuximide is better tolerated. However, unlike sodium valproate, ethosuximide does not protect against associated generalised tonic-clonic seizures.
We don’t have a lot of data. The seizures usually respond well to anti-epileptic drugs, but children with this syndrome may need to take medication to control seizures all their lives.
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. What is the:
Condition
Age of onset
Primary seizure activity
Associated with other seizure types
Treatment
Prognosis
15-19
Myoclonic jerks that occur on awakening from sleep either in the morning or from a nap. They are typically described as shock-like, irregular and arrhythmic movements of both arms. Sometimes these movements are restricted only to the fingers making the patient or individual look clumsy or prone to dropping things.
They ALL have tonic clonic seizures
One third have absence seizures
sodium valproate; however, avoidance of sleep deprivation and excessive alcohol may also be necessary to achieve complete freedom from seizures.
Although full remission is unlikely and most patients require lifelong treatment, the prognosis for seizure control is very good. Most patients remain neurologically normal
Benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes. What is the:
Age of onset
Primary seizure activity
Associated with other seizure types
Treatment
Prognosis
2 - 13
Seizures usually occur during sleep and begin in the face or mouth, producing a typical glugging sound. Speech arrest is common. The partial (focal) seizure may become secondarily generalised.
The EEG is typical and shows epileptiform discharges in the centrotemporal region.
Carbamazepine, sodium valproate and sulthiame are the drugs of choice. Treatment is not always indicated.
most children are seizure-free by early adolescence
A patient presents with a headache. What questions do you ask? (Think about how to rule in/out differentials)
- What were you doing at the time the headache first commenced?
- What had you been doing beforehand?
- What was the first thing you noticed and how long did it take from when you first noticed the symptom until it reached its maximum severity?
Headache Differentials QUESTION CLUSTERS
- MIGRAINE
- Did you see any funny smells, flashing lights, a funny sensations leading up to the headache, some people say it’s like an aura?
- Did you vomit?
- Does the light hurt your eyes?
- CLUSTER HEADACHE
- Did you get very bad pain in your eye?
- Or have you had any tearing up in one eye?
- Or was there watery discharge from your nose?
- Do you have any sinus symptoms?
- TENSION HEADACHE
- Is it recurrent? How regularly do you get it?
- Do they get worse over the day?
- How are things going generally? Is work okay? Is any thing stressful going on in your life?
- HAEMORHAGE (Sub-Arachnoid)
- Have you had any trauma?
- Did it feel like a thunderclap when it started?
- Does your neck feel stiff?
- Is it at the back of the head?
- Have you noticed any weakness in your body? Numbness? Have you had any speech or vision changes?
- STROKE
- Have you felt any weakness anywhere in your arms leg or face?
- Have you had any funny sensations anywhere in arms legs or face?
- Has your vision been affected?
- Has your speech become slurred?
- Did you lose any control of your bladder?
- MENINGITIS
- Have you felt any neck stiffness?
- Any fevers? Sweats? Shakes?
- Are you sensitive to light?
- TEMPORAL ARTERITIS
- When you chew food does it hurt?
- Have you lost vision in one eye?
- Is your scalp tender, say when you comb your hair?
- MALIGNANCY
- Fever, sweats, shakes
- Loss of weight, loss of appetite, fatigue,
- Nausea & vomiting
- Prominent headache behind your eye
- Weakness
- Better on leaning back, worse leaning forward
- REBOUND HEADACHE
- Are you taking any medication to manage the pain?
- What kind and how much?
Extradural/epidural haemorrhage.
Anatomy: In what layers does the bleed occur? What vessels are involved?
What is the classic clinical vignette/presentation for this type of bleed?
Can you visualise what the CT looks like?
What is the management?
Anatomy
Extradural space. Between the dura mater and the skull. (That is, both layers of dura are squashed against brain by pooling blood).
Classically transection of the anterior division of the middle meningeal artery running behind the pterion.
Clinical vignette
Traumatic injury to side of head in kids or young adult. Fluctuating conscious state.
Symptoms come on within hours of injury (arterial bleed –> fast!)
Management
Surgical evacuation
Subdural haemorrhage.
Anatomy: In what layers does the bleed occur? What vessels are involved?
What is the classic clinical vignette/presentation for this type of bleed?
Can you visualise what the CT looks like?
What is the management?
Anatomy
In the potential space between the dura and the subarachnoid. That is, both layers of dura are squashed against skull, the arachnoid is pushed against brain.
Transection of the cerebral veins (as they enter the sinuses).
Presentation
Older people, usually after acceleration-deceleration injury (imagine the brain shakes around in the head) eg. after fall. This is because in the older population the brain shrinks, stretching the veins which bridge the subdural space.
This occurs in alcoholics too for the same reasons.
Symptoms come on more slowly, within weeks to months. Think of the little old lady who has a fall and presents with focal neurology 3 weeks later.
Management
Surgical evacuation
Subarachnoid haemorrhage.
Anatomy: In what layers does the bleed occur? What vessels are involved?
What is the classic clinical vignette/presentation for this type of bleed?
Can you visualise what the CT looks like?
What is the management?
Anatomy
Subarachnoid space. Between the arachnoid and pia mater, mixed in with the CSF.
Classically an aneurysm of the Circle of Willis.
Presentation
- Often sponteneous.
- 1-6% of genpop have a subdural aneurysm. 1% of aneurysms bleed.
- Classically women under 60 with lots of vascular risk factors.
- “Thunderclap headache”
- The worst headache the patient has ever experienced.
- The pt will be able to pinpoint the second the headache started à “I was reaching for the remote.”
- May also get signs of meningism, as the pia and arachnoid mater are irritated (positive Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s sign, nuchal rigidity and photophobia).
- They also can get a ‘sympathetic surge’.
Management
Calcium channel blockers
Surgery (coil/clip)
When trying to determine if a child has appendicitis, what one question should you ask to help rule out an important differential?
Has the child had an URTI or other illness recently – is this mesenteric adenitis!?
What are the most common causes of failure to thrive?
PATIOS
- Psychosocial
- Absorption
- CF
- Coeliac
- Milk allergy
- Thyroid disease
- Intake
- Milk/formula supply
- Sucking
- GORD
- Output –> diarrheoa
- Sick
What history questions would you ask the parents of a baby with failure to thrive?
What should a baby be eating? How much?
When do you introduce solids?
Breastfeeding every 2 to 3 hours for 15mins per breast
May be less on formula.
Around 60ml per time but massive variation. Around 800ml per day
Start to introduce solids at 6 months
What questions do you ask in antenatal and birth histories?
- Antenatal
- Normal scans?
- Complications during pregnancy? High blood pressure or sugars?
- Blood type and anti D
- GBS status
- Birth
- Gestational age
- NVB or LUSCS
- Instrumental (forceps/vacuum(
- PROM?
- Did baby need resus? Prolonged hospital stay?
- Heel prick test done?
- Prolonged jaundice?
What gene mutation accounts for 95% of cystic fibrosis?
What chromsome is it on?
Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) ΔF508
Chromosome 7
What is this?
What are the other symptoms?
Who gets this condition?
What is the management?
What are the complications?
Measles
What are the symptoms?
- High fever
- Irritability
- Exudative conjunctivitis
- Rhinorrhea
- Otitis media
- Exanthem = mobilloform, blotchy and raised
- Enanthem = Koplik’s spots
Who gets it?
In developed countries –> unimmunised
In developing countries –> Malnourished and Vit A deficient
Management
Report, isolate, supportive
Complications
Complications can include otitis media, pneumonia and encephalitis. Measels specific IgM or IgG
What is burst therapy for asthma?
6 puffs every 20 minutes x 3 if
12 puffs every 20 minutes x 3 if > 6 yo
What are the systems questions for asthma?
FIT CAMPSITES
F - Frequency and severity of attacks
I - Interval symptoms?
T - Technique using inhaler
C - Compliance with preventer
A - Atopy - personal or family history
M - Medications, past and current
P - Pets in the house
S - School missed
I - ICU or hospital admissions
T - Triggers
E - Exercise tolerance
S - Smokers in the house
What are the potential complications if an undescended testis is not corrected by orchidopexy?
- Testicular torsion.
- Inguinal hernias through the patent processus vaginalis
- Lower fertility - the body temperature in the abdomen is higher than in the scrotum. This can affect sperm production in the testes.
- Risk of testicular cancer. The risk is usually less than 1 in 100.
- Poor self esteem.
What is the correct term for undescended testis?
What are the two types?
Cryptorchidism, pronounced kript-ork-id-iz-im
Congenital
- In premature babies, the testes may not have dropped down yet (usually happens in the eight month of pregnancy).
- Some hormone and genetic disorders can cause undescended testes
- Usually idiopathic
Acquired - boys who develop undescended testes after birth.
- This can happen between 1-10 years of age.
- The testes are in the scrotum at birth
- As the boy grows the cord attached to the testes (spermatic cord), fails to grow at the same rate. It ends up too short and pulls the testes back up into the groin.
What is the management of congenital Cryptorchidism?
What is the management of acquired Cryptorchidism?
How can you ask a developmental history in a child under 3?
Is he walking?
If no –> How does it get around?
If yes –> does he walk steadily? Does he run? Does he jump?
Is he talking?
If no –> does he babble?
If yes –> how many words? What does he say?
Does he point to things to show you?
If no –> does he wave bye bye?
How does he hold small objects?
Does he draw?
A mother has a baby born at 30 weeks. She asks you what the complications of prematurity are and what you will do about them. What do you say?
SHIRTFRONT LAD AJ
Sepsis
Hypoglycaemia (Intraventricular haemorrhage
Respiratory distress syndrome/Meconium ileus syndrome
Transient tachypneoa of the newborn
Feeding difficulties
Retinopathy of prematurity
Osteopaenia of prematurity
NEC
Temperature instability
Leukomalacia (periventricular) Anaemia / Fe deficiency Developmental problems (ID, cerebral palsy)
Apneoa of prematurity
Jaundice
What are the causes of IUGR
Foetal
Chromosomal disorders
Congenital anomalies
Multiple gestation
TORCH infection
Placental
Uteroplacental insufficiency
Abnormal implantation
Placental abruption
Maternal
Chronic illness
Pre-eclampsia
Early or advanced age
Malnutrition
Substance abuse (e.g. cigarettes, alcohol, narcotics, cocaine)
Medications (e.g. warfarin, anticonvulsants)
What are the complications of CF?
MR PANCREAS
Meconium Ileus / Distal Intestinal Obstruction
Recurrent infections
Pancreatic failure (exocrine and endocrine)
Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergilliosis
Nasal polyps and sinusutus
Cirrhosis of the liver
Restricted growth
Emotions
Airway leaks (males)
Sterility in males
What is the initial investigate performed in newborn screening for CF?
Levels of immunoreactive tripsin are tested for on the Gutherie Card (with the blood collected via heel prick test).
If IRT is high when testing for CF, what tests are performed next?
CFTR gene mutations screened for on Gutherie Card
(most common is delta F507)
+/-
Sweat Test
What is the incidence of CF?
What inheritence pattern is it?
What is the most common genetic mutation causing CF?
1:2500
autosomal recessive
Delta F507 (Long arm of Chromosome 7)
What is tested for on newborn screening?
Congenital hypothyroidism
CF
Metabolic disorders eg. PKU
What is the DDx of a wheeze?
Concerning Airway Wall
- Constrction*
- Asthma
- Compression*
- Mediastinal mass
- Congenial heart disease eg. causing L-R shunt and causing engorgment of the pulmonary vasculature
Structure
- Bronchomalacia
- Tracheomalacia
- Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
Concerning Airway Lumen
Pus / Infection
- Bronchiolitis
- Viral Induced Wheeze / Asthma
- Pneumonia
- Petussis
- Croup (even though an URTI)
- Gunk*
- CF
- Other*
- FB
What are the causes of stridor?
With Fever
- Abcess (peritonsillar - qunsiy, or retrophrayngeal)
- Big tonsils / bacterial tonsillitis
- Croup
- Diptheria
- Epiglottitis
Without Fever
- Floppy airways (tracheomalacia, laryngomalacia)
- Gagging on a foreign body
- Hypersensitivity / haemangioma
How do you classify asthma in children?
Infrequent Intermittent
Frequent Intermittent
Persistent
- Mild
- Moderate
- Severe
How do you classify asthma as infrequent intermittent?
Attacks are >6 weeks apart
No interval symptoms (morning cough / wheeze, night cough / wheeze, exercise tolerance, days at school missed)
How do you classify Frequent intermittent asthma?
Attacks are
No interval symptoms (morning cough / wheeze, night cough / wheeze, exercise tolerance, number of days missed at school)
How do you classify persitent asthma?
How do you further classify it?
Attacks
Mild = interval symptoms are less than 1 x per week
Moderate = 1 x per week
Severe = >1 x per week
What questions ascertain whether or not a person has interval symptoms?
Morning cough / wheeze?
Night cough / wheeze?
Reduced exercise tolerance? (Able to keep up with kids in sport / at school)
Missed days at school because of asthma?
What questions in the HOPC should you ask to classify a child’s asthma?
Q - how often do you have attacks?
Q - when you do have attacks, do you have to
- miss school
- go to ED
- be admitted to the ward
- be admitted to ICU
- take prednisolone (how many times have you used prednisolone in the last 12 months)
A - what triggers your asthma?
A - which medications allieviate it? Have you had to take prednisolone in the last 12 months? How often do you have to use your reliever?
What should be used in the treatment of infrequent intermittent asthma?
SABA prn
What treatment should be used for frequent intermittent asthma?
SABA prn
+preventor (ICS or chromone or LTRA or combination)
what treatment should be used for frequent presistent asthma?
SABA prn
Symptoms controller: ICS + or minus LTRA / cromone
LABA
oral corticosteroid
What would you look for on examination to ascertain the severity of a respiratory illness, such as asthma?
Primary Features
- WOB
- Neurological Status
Secondary Features
- SPO2
- HR
- Ability to talk
What are the signs of increased WOB?
- Increased RR
- Cyanosis
- Grunting
- Nasal flare
- Intercostal / Subcostal recession
- Head bobbing
What is the mnemonic to remember the management of asthma?
OASIS
Oxygen
And (Amyophilline / MGSO4 if severe, in ICU)
Salbutamol
Ipatropium Bromide
Steroids
Describe the management of a mild exacerbation of asthma
Basics
- make comfortable and reassure
- paracetamol for comfort if febrile due to viral induced
- assess hydration status: oral, NG or IV fluids if dehydrated (but avoid IV, procedure will make breathing more difficult)
Place and Person
- Contact Paeds resp team, likely to be monitored in ED
Ix and Confirm Diagnosis
- SpO2
Definitive Management
O - no oxygen unless SpO2 is
A
Salbutamol - 6 puffs if 6
I
Steroids - 1mg/kg of prednisolone for 3 days
Plan / Follow Up
Medication review
Education RE asthma delivery devices
Describe the management of a moderate exacerbation of asthma?
Basics
- Make the child comfortable
- Paracetamol for comfort if febrile (viral-induced exacerbation)
- Assess hydration status - encourage oral fluids, consider NGT or IV fluids if necessary, but try to avoid procedures as this may further upset patient
Place and Person
- Contact paediatric team
Ix and confirm Dx
- SpO2
Definitive Management
- Oxygen via NP
- A
- Salbutamol - burst therapy:
- Six puffs every 20 minutes x 3 if
- 12 puffs every 20 mins x 3 if >6yo
- Iprtropium bromide - not in moderate asthma in victoria
- Steroids: 1mg/kg for 5 days
Follow Up
- Medication review
- Ensure correct use of asthma delivery devices
What is salbutamol burst therapy?
When should you give it?
6 puffs of salbutamol every 20 minutes x 3 if
12 puffs of salbutamol every 20 minutes x 3 if >6yo
In moderate or severe exacerbations of asthma
What is the trade name for ipratropium bromide?
Atrovent
When should you give ipratropium bromide?
(ie. in what severity of acute asthma)
how much should you give?
in severe exacerbations of asthma
4 puffs every 20 mins if
8 puffs every 20 minutes if >6 years old (with salbutamol)
What is the management of a severe exacerbation of asthma?
Basics
- Comfort child (but the child is usually flat)
- Paracetamol for comfort if febrile
- Oral, NG or IV fluids if dehydrated
Place and Person
- Contact paeds resp / paeds ICU
- Contact PIPER if rurally
Investigate and confirm Dx
- SpO2
- ABG (if doesn’t further upset child)
Definitive management:
- Oxygen - via HFNP or CPAP or consider intubation
- Salbtamol Burst therapy - MDI or nebulised
- Ipretropium bromide
- 4 puffs every 20 minutes if
- 8 puffs every 20 minutes if >6yo, x 3
- Steroids - IV methylprednisolone
- MgSO4 or amiophilline in ICU
Follow Up
- Medication review
- Ensure correct understanding and usage of asthma delivery devices