Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the features of respiratory distress in children?

A
  • Tachypnoea
  • Tachycardia
  • Nasal flaring
  • Use of accessory muscles
  • Intercostal and subcostal recession
  • Head retraction
  • Inability to feed

Severe:
- Cyanosis
- Tiring due to increased work of breathing
- Reduced conscious level
- Oxygen saturation <92% despite oxygen therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which children are particularly susceptible to respiratory failure?

A
  • Ex-preterm infants with bronchopulmonary dysplasia
  • Haemodynamically significant congenital heart disease
  • Disorders causing muscle weakness
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Immunodeficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the physiology of stridor and wheeze

A
  • Narrowing of the airway due to inflammation
  • Upper airway narrowing results in increased effort and added respiratory noises during inspiration, such as stridor (harsh, single note)
  • Lower airway narrowing results in increased effort and added respiratory noises during expiration, such as crepitations and wheeze
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the causes of stridor?

A
  • Most common: viral laryngeal, tracheal, bronchial infections (e.g. croup)
  • Epiglottitis
  • Bacterial tracheitis
  • Foreign body/trauma
  • Anaphylaxis (allergic laryngeal angioedema)
  • Severe lymph node swelling (tuberculosis, infections mononucleosis, malignancy)
  • Inhalation of smoke/hot fumes in fire
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is upper airway obstruction assessed?

A
  • Assessed by characteristics of stridor and degree of chest retraction (none, on crying, at rest, biphasic)
  • Features suggestive of impending complete obstruction: tachypnoea, tachycardia, agitation, reduced consciousness, hypoxaemia (late feature)
  • Total obstruction may be precipitated by examination of the throat with spatula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the term upper respiratory infection include?

A

The most common presentation is a combination of these conditions…
- common cold (coryza)
- sore throat (pharyngitis, tonsilitis)
- acute otitis media
- sinusitis (uncommon)
- cough (secondary to postnasal drip, or attempts to clear secretions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the complications of upper respiratory tract infections?

A
  • Difficulty feeding (blocked nose obstructs breathing)
  • Febrile seizures
  • Acute exacerbations of asthma
  • Hospital admission (rare, if feeding/hydration is inadequate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the features of croup? (cause, presentation)

A
  • Laryngotracheal infections caused by viruses (parainfluenza, rhinovirus, RSV) in 95% of cases
  • Most common in 6 months- 6 years, occurring in autumn
  • Presentation: coryza and fever, followed by hoarseness, barking cough, harsh stridor, variable degree of difficulty breathing with chest retraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the management of croup?

A
  • Can be managed at home if mild obstruction with no stridor or chest recession at rest, with oral dexamethasone/prednisolone or nebulised steroids (budesonide)
  • Hospitalisation depends on severity of illness, age of child (low threshold <12 months), parental understanding and confidence, access to hospital
  • Severe obstruction is managed with nebulised epinephrine + oxygen, and 2-3 hours of observation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the features of acute epiglottitis? (definition, causes, presentation, management)

A
  • Intense swelling of the epiglottis and surrounding tissue, associated with septicaemia and high risk of respiratory obstruction
  • Caused by H. influenzae type b (Hib) or strep
  • Most common in ages 1-6, but can affect any age
  • Presentation: acute onset, high fever (>38.5), very-ill looking, intensely sore throat preventing speaking/swallowing and causing drooling of saliva, soft stridor, rapidly increasing difficulty breathing (over hours), child sitting upright with open mouth to optimise airway
  • Do not examine throat with spatula, lie child down, as these can precipitate total obstruction and death
  • With any suspicion: urgent admission to ICU for intubation (rarely tracheostomy), IV cefuroxime
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the features of bacterial tracheitis? (cause, presentation, management)

A
  • Similar presentation to epiglottitis with high fever, looks very ill, rapidly progressing airway obstruction, with copious thick airway secretions
  • Typically caused by staphylococcus aureus
  • Management includes IV antibiotics, and intubation and ventilation if required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the causes of wheeze?

A
  • Bronchiolitis
  • Viral episodic wheeze
  • Multiple trigger wheeze
  • Asthma
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Foreign object inhalation
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the features of bronchiolitis? (age, cause, presentation, management)

A
  • Most common serious respiratory infection, with winter epidemics, most admitted to hospital are 1-9 months
  • Pathogens: RSV (80%), parainfluenza, rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza, human metapneumovirus
  • Presentation: coryza, dry wheezy cough, increasing breathlessness, feeding difficulty, tachypnoea and tachycardia, subcostal and intercostal recession, hyperinflation of chest, fine end-inspiratory crackles
  • Hospital admission indicated if episodes of apnoea, persistent oxygen saturation <90% on air, inadequate oral fluid intake, respiratory distress
  • Management: oxygen therapy, fluids (NG or IV), assisted ventilation (CPAP or mechanical), consider chest physio or suctioning
  • Prophylaxis of RSV using monoclonal antibody given to high-risk preterm infants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe viral episodic wheeze

A
  • Most common cause of wheeze in preschool children, usually resolves by age 5
  • Results from small airways being more likely to narrow and obstruct due to inflammation and abnormal immune responses to viral infections
  • More common in reduced airway diameter from birth, maternal smoking during and/or after pregnancy, prematurity, family history of early wheeze
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe multiple trigger wheeze?

A
  • Children of preschool and school age may have a wheeze triggered by many stimuli, including viruses, cold air, dust, exercise
  • In preschool age, this diagnosis is helpful where a diagnosis of asthma is unjustified, as many benefit from asthma preventer therapy, and many go on to have asthma
  • Where symptoms are evident between viral infections and there is evidence of allergy to inhaled allergens (e.g. pollen, pets, house dust mite), this is diagnosed as atopic asthma
  • A smaller number children with recurrent/persistent wheeze will have other causes, such as non-atopic asthma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the features of a common cold (coryza)? (cause, presentation, treatment)

A
  • Most common infection in childhood
  • Presentation: nasal discharge and blockage, cough
  • Pathogens: rhinovirus, coronavirus, RSV
  • Treatment: self-limiting, simple analgesia for pain, antibiotics have o benefit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the features of pharyngitis? (cause, pathophysiology, treatment)

A
  • Inflammation of the pharynx and soft palate
  • Tender and enlarged local lymph nodes
  • Usually due to viral infection (adenovirus, enterovirus, rhinovirus), but commonly group A strep in older children
  • Treatment: antibiotics for severe cases (despite on 1/3 caused by bacteria) to hasten recovery and eradicate organism
  • Hospital admission is rarely needed, for IV fluids and analgesia if difficulty swallowing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the features of tonsilitis? (definition, causes, symptoms, treatment)

A
  • A form of pharyngitis with inflammation of the tonsils, often with purulent exudate
  • Common pathogens are group A strep, and Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)
  • Constitutional disturbance such as headache, apathy, abdominal pain, cervical lymphadenopathy are more common with bacterial infection
  • Treatment: same as pharyngitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the features of scarlet fever? (cause, ages, presentation, treatment, complications)

A
  • Results from group A strep infections, most common in ages 5-12
  • Presentation: fever, followed by headache and tonsilitis 2-3 days later
  • Variable appearance of rash, typically ‘sandpaper-like’ maculopapular, flushed cheeks
  • Tongue is often white and coated, may be sore or swollen
  • Requires treatment with antibiotics (penicillin V, erythromycin) to prevent complications (acute glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the feature of acute otitis media? (age, cause, presentation, treatment)

A
  • Most common in infants and young children due to short and poorly functioning Eustachian tubes
  • Pathogens: viruses (RSV, rhinovirus), bacteria (pneumococcus)
  • Presentation: pain in ear, fever, red and bulging tympanic membrane
  • Occasionally there is acute perforation of the eardrum with pus visible
  • Treatment: most resolve spontaneously, regular simple analgesia, antibiotics (amoxicillin) may shorten duration of pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the causes and treatment for otitis media with effusion? (cause, features, complications, treatment)

A
  • Caused by recurrent ear infections, most common in ages 2-7
  • Usually asymptomatic apart from possible decreased hearing
  • Eardrum is seen to be dull and retracted, fluid level often visible
  • Usually resolves spontaneously, but may interfere with speech development and cause learning difficulties
  • Serious complications include mastoiditis and meningitis (now uncommon)
  • Children with recurrent URTIs and chronic otitis media with infusion undergo gromet insertion, but benefits may not last more than 12 months
  • If recurrent after gromet insertion, reinsertion with adjuvant adenoidectomy may give long-term benefit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the indication for tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy?

A

Tonsillectomy:
- recurrent severe tonsilitis
- peritonsillar abscess
- obstructive sleep apnoea (often remove adenoids too)

Adenoidectomy:
- recurrent otitis media with effusion and hearing loss
- obstructive sleep apnoea (absolute indication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of asthma

A
  • Triggers include genetic predisposition, atopy (eczema, hay fever), and environmental factors (URTIs, allergens, smoking, cold air, exercise, emotional stress, chemical irritants)
  • These factors cause bronchial inflammation, excessive mucus production, and infiltration with immune cells (eosinophils, mast cells, neutrophils, lymphocytes)
  • This leads to bronchial hyperresponsiveness to inhaled stimuli, and then airway narrowing (reversible airflow obstruction)
  • This produces the symptoms of asthma (wheeze, cough, breathlessness, chest tightness)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the clinical features of asthma? (presentation, examination)

A
  • Symptoms include wheeze (polyphonic), cough, breathlessness, chest tightness
  • Worse at night or early in morning (may disturb sleep)
  • Presence of non-viral symptoms
  • Interval symptoms (present between exacerbations)
  • Personal of family history of atopic disease
  • Positive response to asthma therapy
  • On examination: Harrison’s sulci (depressions at base of thorax associated with muscular insertion of diaphragm, seen in chronic obstructive airway disease during childhood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What investigations are needed for asthma?

A
  • Peak flow: increased variability (diurnal, and day-to-day)
  • Spirometry: FEV1/FVC <70% (but normal dose not exclude diagnosis), FEV1 increase of > 200ml, or by > 12% after bronchodilator (reversibility)
  • Skin prick testing for common allergens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the management of asthma

A
  1. For mild intermittent asthma: inhaled SABA
  2. Regular preventer therapy: add ICS, or LTRA in < 5 years if CI
  3. Initial add-on therapy:
    - in <5 years: increase ICS dose, if poor response add LTRA
    - in >5 years: add LTRA, if poor response stop LTRA add LABA, if poor response increase ICS dose, if poor response consider slow release theophylline
  4. Persistent poor control:
    - in <5 years: refer to respiratory paediatrician
    - in >5 years: increase ICS to 800 ug/day (1600 in adolescents), consider LTRA or SR theophylline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the features and management of moderate acute asthma?

A

Features:
- able to talk
- oxygen saturations > 92%
- peak flow > 50% of best
- respiratory rate <40 for 2-5 years, <30 for 5-12 years, <25 for 12-18 years
- heart rate <140 for 2-5 years, <125 for 5-12 years, <110 for 12-18 years
- some intercostal recession

Management:
- reassurance to child and parents
- SABA via spacer 2-4 puffs, increasing every 2 mins to 10 puffs
- oral prednisolone 1-2 mg/kg (max 40)
- monitor response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the features and management of severe acute asthma?

A

Features:
- to breathless to talk
- oxygen saturations < 92% for <12 years
- peak flow 33-50% of best
- respiratory rate >40 for 2-5 years, >30 for 5-12 years, >25 for 12-18 years
- heart rate >140 for 2-5 years, >125 for 5-12 years, >110 for 12-18 years
- intercostal recession and use of accessory neck muscles

Management:
- high flow oxygen
- SABA 10 puffs, or nebulised salbutamol, repeat as required
- oral prednisolone, or IV hydrocortisone
- consider inhaled ipratropium, IV salbutamol, aminophylline, or magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the features and management of life-threatening acute asthma?

A

Features:
- silent chest
- cyanosis
- poor respiratory effort (normal pCO2)
- exhaustion
- arrythmia
- hypotension
- altered consciousness
- agitation or confusion
- peak flow <33% of best
- oxygen saturation <92%

Management:
- high flow oxygen
- nebulised SABA, repeated as required
- oral prednisolone, or IV hydrocortisone
- nebulised ipratropium
- consider IV salbutamol, aminophylline, or magnesium
- Discuss with PICU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the cause of an acute episode of cough?

A
  • Most episodes of cough in children are due to tracheobronchial spread of URTIs, and is a reflex to remove unwanted material from the airways
  • Dry cough suggests some narrowing of small/moderate sized airways
  • Moist cough suggests increased mucus production of infection in the lower airway
  • Barking cough suggests a degree of tracheal inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the causes of a persistent or recurrent cough?

A
  • Recurrent respiratory infections
  • Following specific infections (e.g. pertussis, RSV, mycoplasma - can last up to 8 weeks)
  • Asthma (associated with wheeze)
  • Persistent lobar collapse following acute infection
  • Persistent bacterial bronchitis
  • Suppurative lung diseases (e.g. cystic fibrosis, ciliary dyskinesia)
  • Recurrent aspiration (due to GORD, or swallowing problems)
  • Inhaled foreign body
  • Smoking (active or passive)
  • Tuberculosis
  • Habit cough
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the common organisms which cause pneumonia in different ages?

A
  • Newborn: organisms from mothers genital tract e.g. group B strep, gram-negative bacilli
  • Infants/young children: respiratory viruses (e.g. RSV), bacterial causes (e.g. Strep. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Bordetella Pertussis, Chlamydia trachomatis)
  • Older children: Strep. pneumoniae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae
  • All ages: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the clinical features of pneumonia?

A
  • Most common presentation is fever, cough, rapid breathing, preceded by URTI
  • Other symptoms include lethargy, poor feeding, localised chest/neck/abdominal pain (pleural irritation)
  • Examination: tachypnoea, nasal flaring, chest indrawing, end-inspiratory coarse crackles, dull percussion, decreased breath sounds, decreased oxygen saturations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What investigations are needed for pneumonia?

A
  • CXR: confirms diagnosis, but not reliable in differentiating between bacterial and viral, may identify pleural effusions which may develop into empyema
  • Blood tests (e.g. FBC, acute-phase reactants) are also unhelpful in differentiating between bacterial and viral
  • Nasopharyngeal aspirate may identify viral cause in younger children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the management of pneumonia?

A
  • Most can be managed at home with oral amoxicillin, or erythromycin in older children
  • Management in hospital includes oxygen, analgesia, IV fluids, broad spectrum IV antibiotics in newborns, oral antibiotics in infants and older
  • Persistent fever despite 48 hours of antibiotics suggests pleural collection (empyema), requiring drainage

Indication for hospital admission:
- oxygen <92%
- recurrent apnoea
- grunting
- inadequate feed/fluid intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe chronic lung infection

A
  • A persistent wet/productive cough may be due to persistent bacterial bronchitis (persistent inflammation of the lower airways due to chronic infection e.g. H. influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis)
  • This may be a precursor to bronchiectasis if not investigated (growth from sputum or bronchial lavage) and treated (high dose antibiotics e.g. co-amoxiclav)
  • Bronchiectasis (permanent dilation of bronchi) may be generalised or restricted to a single lobe, caused by cystic fibrosis, primary ciliary dyskinesia, immunodeficiency, or chronic aspiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define cystic fibrosis

A

CF is the most common life-limiting autosomal recessive condition in Caucasians, with an incidence of 1 in 2500 live births and carrier rate of 1 in 25, and a life expectancy of mid-30s to 40s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis

A
  • Defective cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein, due to a number of different possible gene mutation on chromosome 7
  • The CFTR protein is a cyclical AMP-dependent chloride channel found on the membrane of epithelial cells, and defects lead to abnormal ion transport
  • In the airways, this causes a reduction in airway surface liquid layer, impaired ciliary function, retention of mucopurulent secretions, and chronic infection (e.g. pseudomonas aeruginosa)
  • In the intestine, thick viscid meconium is produced, leading to meconium ileus in some infants
  • In the pancreas, ducts become blocked by thick secretions, leading to pancreatic enzyme deficiency and malabsorption
  • Abnormal function of the sweat glands results in excessive concentrations of sodium and chloride in the sweat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the presenting clinical features of cystic fibrosis?

A

Newborns:
- diagnosed through newborn screening
- meconium ileus

Infancy:
- prolonged neonatal jaundice
- faltering growth
- recurrent chest infections
- malabsorption, steatorrhoea

Young child:
- bronchiectasis
- rectal prolapse
- nasal polyps
- sinusitis

Older child/adolescent:
- allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
- diabetes mellitus
- cirrhosis and portal hypertension
- distal intestinal obstruction
- pneumothorax or recurrent haemoptysis
- infertility in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the symptoms of cystic fibrosis?

A

Respiratory:
- persistent wet cough productive of purulent sputum
- chronic infection with specific bacteria (staph. aureus, H. influenzae, pseudomonas aeruginosa), leading to damage of bronchial walls, bronchiectasis, abscess formation
- on examination: hyperinflation due to air trapping, coarse inspiratory crepitations, expiratory wheeze, finger clubbing in severe disease

Pancreatic:
- exocrine insufficiency (lipase, amylase, proteases)
- maldigestion and malabsorption
- frequent steatorrhoea
- faltering growth

Intestinal (meconium ileus in neonates):
- vomiting
- abdominal distention
- failure to pass meconium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What investigations are needed for cystic fibrosis?

A
  • Diagnostic procedure is sweat test showing markedly elevated concentration of chloride in sweat
  • Confirmation of diagnosis by testing for gene abnormalities in CFTR protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the respiratory management for cystic fibrosis?

A
  • Regular monitoring of lung function (spirometry)
  • Chest physiotherapy for airway clearance
  • Continuous prophylactic antibiotics (usually flucloxacillin) with additional oral antibiotics for any increase in symptoms
  • Use of daily nebulised antibiotics specific for pseudomonas if chronic infection present
  • Regular nebulised hypertonic saline or DNase may decrease the viscosity of sputum to increase clearance
  • Regular azithromycin and nebulised hypertonic saline may decrease the number of respiratory exacerbations
  • Persistent symptoms require vigorous IV therapy to limit lung damage, and a peripheral or central venous catheter may be used
  • Bilateral lung transplantation is the only therapeutic option for end-stage disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the nutritional management of cystic fibrosis?

A
  • Oral pancreatic replacement therapy with all meals/snacks
  • High calorie diet, recommended 150% of normal
  • Over night feeding via gastrostomy to increase dietary intake
  • Fat soluble supplements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What factors need to be considered in the management of adolescents and adults with cystic fibrosis?

A
  • Diabetes mellitus: decreasing pancreatic endocrine function
  • Liver disease: hepatomegaly, abnormal LFTs, rarely cirrhosis, portal hypertension, and liver failure (regular ursodeoxycholic acid may improve bile flow)
  • Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome: meconium ileus equivalent, viscid mucofaeculent material obstructs bowel, usually cleared by oral laxatives
  • Infertility in males: due to absence of vas deferens
  • Psychological repercussions: chronic and fatal illness, frequent hospital admissions, absence from school/social events
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe the use of gene therapy in cystic fibrosis

A
  • CFTR potentiators (Ivacaftor): restore function of CFTR in class III and IV mutations (channel opening/pore defects)
  • CFTR correctors (Lumacaftor): partially restore CFTR number in class II mutations (incorrect folding of protein)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe primary ciliary dyskinesia (cause, features, complications, diagnosis, treatment)

A
  • Congenital abnormality in the structure or function of cilia lining the respiratory tract, leading to impaired mucociliary clearance
  • Clinical features: recurrent productive cough, purulent nasal discharge, chronic ear infections, recurrent upper and lower respiratory infections which if untreated may lead to severe bronchiectasis
  • 50% have dextrocardia and situs inversus (major organs in mirror position), as ciliary action is responsible for normal organ situs
  • Diagnosis: examination of structure and function of cilia of nasal epithelial cells brushed from the nose
  • Treatment: daily physiotherapy to clear secretions, proactive treatment of infections, ENT follow-up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How does immunodeficiency affect respiratory disease?

A
  • Children with immunodeficiency may develop severe, unusual, or recurrent chest infections
  • Immune deficiency is usually due to secondary illness (e.g. malignancy or its treatment), or rarely HIV or primary immune deficiency
  • IgG deficiency predisposes to infections such as S. pneumoniae
  • Cell-mediated immunodeficiencies predispose to infections such as Pneumocystis jirovecii and fungi
  • Neutrophil-killing immune defects predispose to staphylococcal infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What investigations are needed to rule out tuberculosis?

A

All children with a persistent productive cough need…
- chest X-ray
- tuberculin skin test, or tuberculosis blood tests (interferon-gamma release assays)

  • marked hilar or paratracheal lymphadenopathy is highly suspicious of TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Describe the circulatory changes at birth

A
  • In antenatal circulation, the left atrium is at low pressure and the right atrium is at higher pressure, meaning that blood flows through the foramen ovale across the septum
  • With the first breaths, resistance to pulmonary blood flow falls and the volume of blooding flowing to the lungs increases 6 fold
  • Meanwhile the volume of blood returning to the right atrium falls as the placenta is excluded
  • This change in pressure difference causes the flap valve of the foramen ovale to close
  • The ductus arteriosus (which connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta in the foetus) will also close within the first few hours or days of life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is meant by duct dependant circulation?

A
  • Some infants with congenital heart lesions rely on blood flowing through the ductus arteriosus
  • Their clinical condition will deteriorate dramatically when the duct closes, which is why some conditions only present after a few weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the most common congenital heart lesions?

A

Left-to-right shunts (breathless):
- ventricular septal defect
- persistent ductus arteriosus
- atrial septal defect

Right-to-left shunts (blue):
- tetralogy of Fallot
- transposition of the great arteries

Common mixing (breathless and blue):
- atrioventricular septal defect

Outflow obstruction in a well child (asymptomatic with murmur):
- pulmonary stenosis
- aortic stenosis

Outflow obstruction in a sick neonate (collapsed with shock):
- coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the common causes of congenital heart diseases?

A

Maternal disorders…
- rubella infection = peripheral pulmonary stenosis, PDA
- systemic lupus erythematosus = complete heart block
- diabetes mellitus = incidence increased overall

Maternal drugs…
- warfarin therapy = pulmonary valve stenosis , PDA
- fetal alcohol syndrome = ASD, VSD, tetralogy of Fallot

Chromosomal abnormality…
- down syndrome (trisomy 21) = atrioventricular septal defect, VSD
- Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18) = complex
- Patau syndrome (trisomy 13) = complex
- Turners syndrome = aortic valve stenosis, coarctation of aorta
- Noonan syndrome = hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, ASD, pulmonary valve stenosis
- Duchenne muscular dystrophy = cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the three main types of atrial septal defect?

A
  • Secundum ASD: most common, defect in the centre of the atrial septum, arises from enlarged foramen ovale
  • Primum ASD, or partial atrioventricular septal defect: intraarterial communication between the bottom end of atrial septum and atrioventricular valve
  • Sinus venous ASD: involves venous inflow of the superior or inferior vena cava
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the clinical features of atrial septal defects?

A
  • Asymptomatic (common)
  • Recurrent chest infection/wheeze
  • Arrhythmias/palpitations in older children/adults
  • Ejection systolic murmur (heard at upper left sternal edge, due to increased flow across pulmonary valve due to left-to-right shunt)
  • Fixed and widely split second heart sound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the investigations needed for atrial septal defect?

A
  • CXR: cardiomegaly, enlarged pulmonary arteries, increased vascular markings
  • ECG: secundum ASD has partial right bundle block and right axis deviation, partial AVSD has superior QRS complex
  • Echo: will show anatomy, diagnostic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the management for atrial septal defects?

A
  • Children with significant ASD (causing right ventricle dilatation) require treatment, usually at 3-5 years, to prevent right heart failure and arrythmias in later life
  • Secundum ASD is treated by cardiac catheterisation insertion of occlusion
  • Partial AVSD requires surgical correction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Describe ventricular septal defects

A
  • Account for 30% of all congenital heart disease
  • Defects can be anywhere in the ventricular septum, and peri-membranous (adjacent to tricuspid valve) or muscular
  • Categorised as small and large (less than/more than the diameter of the aortic valve, roughly 3mm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the clinical features of a ventricular septal defect?

A

Small:
- asymptomatic
- loud pan-systolic murmur (at lower left sternal edge)
- quiet pulmonary second sound

Large:
- heart failure with breathlessness and faltering growth (after 1 week old)
- recurrent chest infections
- tachypnoea, tachycardia, hepatomegaly
- active precordium
- no or soft pansystolic murmur
- apical mid-diastolic murmur
- loud pulmonary second sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What investigations are needed for ventricular septal defects?

A

CXR:
- small = normal
- large = cardiomegaly, enlarged pulmonary arteries, increased pulmonary vascular markings, pulmonary oedema

ECG:
- small = normal
- large = biventricular hypertrophy

Echo:
- small: shows precise anatomy and haemodynamic effects using doppler
- large: as above, as well as showing high pulmonary pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the management of ventricular septal defects?

A
  • Small: will close spontaneously, ascertained by disappearance of murmur
  • Large: surgery required at 3-6 months to manage heart failure and faltering growth, prevent permanent lung damage from pulmonary hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Describe patent ductus arteriosus

A
  • Failure of the closing of ductus arteriosus after 1 month of expected delivery date
  • Blood flows from the aorta to the pulmonary artery (left to right) following the fall in pulmonary vascular resistance
  • In preterm infants, PDA is due to prematurity not congenital heart disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the investigations needed for patent ductus arteriosus?

A
  • CXR: usually normal, but large PDA may have enlarged heart and pulmonary arteries
  • ECG: usually normal, but large PDA may have left and right ventricular hypertrophy
  • Echo: identifies anatomy, and distinguishes from large VSD as CXR and ECG will be the same
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the clinical features of patent ductus arteriosus?

A
  • Continuous murmur beneath the left clavicle/pulmonary area
  • Pulse pressure is increased, causing a collapsing or bounding pulse
  • Symptoms are unusual but when the duct is large there will be heart failure and pulmonary hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the management of patent ductus arteriosus?

A
  • Closure is recommended to reduce life long risk of bacterial endocarditis and pulmonary vascular disease
  • Method uses coil or occlusion device via cardiac catheter, ideally at age 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the anatomical features of tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  • Large ventricular septal defect
  • Overring of the aorta
  • Subpulmonary stenosis causing right ventricular outflow tract obstruction
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the clinical features of tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  • Most are diagnosed antenatally
  • If severe, will present with cyanosis, collapse, and acidosis
  • Hypercyanotic spells are rare but important to recognise, characterised by rapidly increasing cyanosis, severe hypoxia, irritability, breathlessness, pallor due to tissue acidosis
  • Signs include finger/toe clubbing, loud harsh ejection systolic murmur at left sternal edge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the investigations needed for tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  • CXR: relatively small heart with uptilted apex (boot shaped) due to right ventricular hypertrophy, decreased pulmonary vascular markings, pulmonary artery ‘bay’ (concave left heart border where pulmonary artery would be)
  • ECG: normal at birth, but right ventricular hypertrophy when older
  • Echo: will demonstrate anatomical features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the management of tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  • Definitive surgery around 6 months, to close VSD, and relive right ventricular outflow tract obstruction
  • Neonates who are very cyanised require a shunt to increase pulmonary blood flow, or balloon dilation
  • Hypercyanotic spells are usually self-liming following sleep, but if prolonged my need sedation and pain relief, IV propranolol (peripheral vasoconstrictor), bicarbonate to correct acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Describe transposition of the great arteries

A
  • When the aorta is connected to the right atrium an the pulmonary artery, so that deoxygenated is returned to the body
  • This forms two parallel circulations and unless there is mixing of their blood, this is incompatible with life
  • Often a number of naturally occurring associated anomalies (e.g. VSD, ASD, PDA) so mixing of the blood does occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the clinical features of transposition of the great arteries?

A
  • Cyanosis (always present, may be profound, or less severe/delayed if there is more mixing of blood)
  • Depending on severity, may have acidosis, collapse, and death
  • Second heart sound often loud and single
  • Usually no murmur, or may be systolic murmur from increased flow through left ventricular tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the investigations needed for transposition of the great arteries?

A
  • CXR: narrow upper mediastinum, cardiac shadow appears as ‘egg on side’, increased pulmonary vascular markings
  • ECG: usually normal
  • Echo: demonstrates abnormal arterial connections, and associated abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the management of transposition of the great arteries?

A
  • In cyanosed neonate, improve mixing by maintaining patency of ductus arteriosus with prostaglandin infusion
  • A balloon atrial septostomy is a life-saving procedure needed in 20%, which permanently opens the foramen ovale to allow mixing between atria as a temporary measure
  • An arterial switch operation is performed in all patients, in the first few days of life, to switch the pulmonary artery and aorta are switched over, as well as the coronary arteries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe atrioventricular septal defect

A
  • This is most often seen in children with Down syndrome
  • A complete AVSD is a defect in the middle of the heart, with a single 5-leaflet valve between the both atria and ventricles, with large a ASD and VSD
  • Blood shunts from left to right, and causes high pulmonary artery pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the clinical features of atrioventricular septal defect?

A
  • Presentation on antenatal ultrasound screening
  • Cyanosis at birth, or heart failure at 2-3 weeks
  • Other symptoms: failure to thrive, poor feeding, tachypnoea, hepatomegaly, oedema
  • Ejection systolic murmur (pulmonary stenosis), and may have diastolic murmur due to AV regurgitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the investigations needed for atrioventricular septal defect?

A
  • CXR: markedly enlarged heart, increased pulmonary vascular markings
  • ECG: superior axis
  • Echo: most diagnoses made on routine screening on newborns with down syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the management of atrioventricular septal defect?

A
  • Treat heart failure medically
  • Surgical repair at 3-6 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Describe aortic stenosis

A
  • Aortic valve leaflets are partly fused together, restricting the blood flow out of the left ventricle
  • There may be between 1 and 3 leaflets, and a bi-cuspid aortic valve leaflet is common and my be inherited
  • Often associated mitral valve stenosis and coarctation of the aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the clinical features of aortic stenosis?

A
  • Most present with asymptomatic murmur
  • Severe stenosis may present with reduced exercise tolerance, chest pain, or syncope
  • In neonates with critical aortic stenosis and duct-dependent circulation, may have severe heart failure, collapse, shock, and acidosis
  • Physical signs include weak pulses, carotid thrill, ejection systolic murmur (right upper sternal edge radiating to neck), delayed and soft aortic second sound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the investigations needed for aortic stenosis?

A
  • CXR: normal, or prominent left ventricle and post stenotic dilatation of ascending aorta
  • ECG: may have left ventricular hypertrophy
  • Echo: doppler study of pressure gradient across valve, used to assess when to intervene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the management of aortic stenosis?

A
  • Balloon valve dilatation for older children with symptoms of exercise, or who have high resting pressure gradient
  • Most neonates and children with significant stenosis will require aortic valve replacement later in life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the clinical features of pulmonary stenosis?

A
  • Mostly asymptomatic
  • Small number of neonates with critical pulmonary stenosis have duct-dependant circulation, so present in the first few days of life with cyanosis
  • Ejection systolic murmur and ejection click at the left upper sternal edge, may radiate to the back if pulmonary branches are also stenosed
  • When severe there may be a prominent right ventricular heave
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the investigations needed for pulmonary stenosis?

A
  • CXR: normal, or post-stenotic dilation of pulmonary artery
  • ECG: evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy (upright T wave in V1)
  • Echo: doppler study of pressure gradient across valve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the management of pulmonary stenosis?

A
  • Most children are asymptomatic and will not require intervention, unless they have increased pressure gradient
  • Transcatheter balloon dilatation is most commonly used if required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Describe coarctation of the aorta

A
  • Arterial duct tissue encircles the aorta at the point of ductus arteriosus insertion
  • When the duct closes, the aorta constricts and causes severe left ventricular outflow obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the clinical features of coarctation of the aorta?

A
  • Examination on the first day of life is usually normal, before the duct closes
  • Neonates present at about 2 days old when the duct closes, with acute circulatory collapse and acidosis
  • Physical signs include severe heart failure, absent femoral pulses, severe metabolic acidosis
  • If less severe (e.g. not duct-dependent, presenting after years), will have weak femoral pulses, BP difference between upper and lower limbs, continuous murmur over back as collaterals form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the investigations needed for coarctation of the aorta?

A
  • CXR: cardiomegaly
  • ECG: may be normal, or have left ventricular hypertrophy
  • Echo: shows details of anatomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the management of coarctation of the aorta?

A
  • Resuscitation if required
  • If duct-dependent in neonates, prostaglandin infusion as early as possible
  • Early surgical intervention in neonates
  • If less severe, stent inserted with cardiac catheter, and later surgical repair if required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Describe sinus arrythmia in children

A
  • Sinus arrhythmia is normal in children, as a cyclical change in heart rate with respiration
  • There is acceleration during inspiration and deceleration on expiration
  • This difference may be up to 30 bpm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Describe supraventricular tachycardia

A
  • This is the most common childhood arrhythmia, with a rapid heart rate of 250- 300 bpm
  • Typically presents with symptoms of heart failure in neonates or young infants
  • Can cause poor cardiac output and pulmonary oedema, and hydrops fetalis and intrauterine death
  • ECG will show a narrow complex tachycardia, and evidence of myocardial ischemia in severe heart disease
  • Echo should also be performed to rule out structural problem (rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the management of supraventricular tachycardia?

A
  • Circulatory and respiratory support
  • Vagal stimulating manoeuvres (e.g. carotid sinus massage or cold ice pack to face) are successful in 80%
  • IV adenosine, given incrementally in increasing doses
  • Electrical cardioversion if adenosine fails
  • Once sinus rhythm is restored, maintenance therapy is requires (e.g. flecainide or sotalol), and most children have no further episodes so this is stopped at 1 year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Describe congenital complete heart block

A
  • A rare condition usually related to the presence of anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies in maternal serum (with recurrence in subsequent pregnancies)
  • This antibody appears to prevent normal development of the electrical conduction system in the developing heart, with atrophy or fibrosis of the atrioventricular node
  • May cause fetal hydrops, intrauterine death, or neonatal heart failure
  • Most remain symptom free for many years, but may become symptomatic with syncope
  • All children require insertion of endocardial pace-maker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Describe long QT syndrome

A
  • A condition associated with sudden loss of consciousness during exercise, stress, or emotion, usually in late childhood
  • It is a type of channelopathies caused by specific gene mutation, where abnormalities of the sodium, potassium, or calcium channels lead to loss or gain of function
  • There are many genetic causes and several phenotypes, inheritance is autosomal dominant
  • If unrecognised, sudden death from ventricular tachycardia may occur, so anyone with a family history of sudden unexplained death should be assessed
  • Has been associated with erythromycin therapy, electrolyte disorders, and head injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Define syncope

A
  • Transient loss of consciousness associated with a loss of postural tone with spontaneous recovery
  • Caused by transient impaired cerebral perfusion
  • Common in adolescents and usually benign, but may be serious if cardiac cause (suggested by symptoms on exercise, family history of sudden unexplained death, palpitations)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the causes of syncope?

A

Vasovagal:
- response to a range of ‘stressors’ such as standing up too quickly (orthostatic intolerance), sight of blood/needles, sudden unexpected pain
- usually prodrome of dizziness, light headedness, abnormal vision, nausea, sweating, pallor
- in most episodes there is maladaptive drop in blood pressure, and some may also have drop in heart rate

Cardiac:
- may be arrhythmic, form hear block, supraventricular or ventricular tachycardia (e.g. long QT syndrome)
- may be structural, associated with aortic stenosis, or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Describe Eisenmenger syndrome

A
  • If high pulmonary blood flow due to large left-to-right shunt is not treated early, the pulmonary arteries become thick walled an the resistance to flow increases
  • Gradually children become less symptomatic as the shunt decreases, but eventually at aged 10-15 years the shunt reverses and Eisenmenger syndrome develops
  • The child becomes blue (cyanosed) and the situation will be progressive, adults will die from right heart failure at variable ages
  • Treatment is aimed at preventing this condition by treating high pulmonary flow early
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the causes of pulmonary hypertension?

A

Pulmonary arterial hypertension:
- idiopathic (sporadic or familial)
- post-tricuspid shunts (VSD, AVSD, PDA)
- HIV infection

Pulmonary venous hypertension:
- left sided heart failure
- pulmonary vein stenosis or compression

Pulmonary hypertension with respiratory disease:
- COPD
- bronchopulmonary dysplasia in preterm
- interstitial lung disease
- obstructive sleep apnoea
- upper airway obstruction

Others:
- pulmonary thromboembolic disease
- pulmonary inflammatory or capillary disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Define rheumatic fever

A

A multisystem autoimmune response to group A streptococcus, mainly affecting children aged 5-15 years in low/middle income countries, which may progress to rheumatic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the clinical features of rheumatic fever?

A

Acute febrile illness after a latent period of 2-6 weeks following group A strep pharyngitis…

Carditis:
- endocarditis with significant murmur and valvular dysfunction
- myocarditis which may lead to heart failure or death
- pericarditis (pericardial effusion, tamponade, valvulitis)

Migratory arthritis:
- can affect ankles, knees, and wrists, with tenderness and redness
- usually earliest symptom
- lasts <1 week in each joint but migrates to other joints over 1-2 months

Sydenham chorea:
- present in 20%
- occurs 2-6 months after strep infection
- consists of involuntary movements and emotional liability for 3-6 months

Erythema marginatum:
- uncommon early manifestation
- rash on trunk and links
- pink macules spread outwards causing pink border with fading centre

Subcutaneous nodules
- painless, pea sized and hard
- mainly on extensor surfaces especially elbows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What investigation are needed for rheumatic fever?

A
  • Usually evidence of prior group A strep infection
  • Raised acute phase reactants (CRP, ESR) from systemic inflammation
  • ECG and echo should be preformed serially to identify carditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Describe rheumatic heart disease

A
  • Most common form of long-term damage form rheumatic fever, consisting of scarring and fibrosis of the heart valve tissue
  • Symptoms usually occur in early adult life, but may be sooner if repeated attacks of acute rheumatic fever with carditis
  • The mitral valve is most commonly affected, but other valve disease may also occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the management of rheumatic fever?

A
  • NSIADs to treat arthritis and prevent new joint involvement
  • Aspirin or naproxen to supress inflammatory response
  • Treatment of cardiac failure if severe
  • Sydenham chorea is managed with psychological, educational, and social support
  • Group A strep carriage is eradicated with penicillin
  • Treatment of household contacts also need penicillin treatment
  • Recurrence of infection is prevented with prophylactic monthly benzathine penicillin injections for 10 years/until age 21
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Define infective endocarditis

A
  • A rare, life-threatening disease involving infection and inflammation of the heart lining
  • All children of any age with congenital heart disease are at risk, especially if there is turbulent blood flow (e.g. VAS, PDA, coarctation of aorta) of if prosthetic material has been inserted
  • The most common causative organisms are staph. aureus, or strep. viridans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the clinical features of infective endocarditis?

A
  • Non-specific symptoms (low fever, flu-like illness, polymyalgia, loss of appetite, abdominal symptoms)
  • Heart murmur (present in most patients, may be new, or changing)
  • Anaemia and pallor
  • Congestive hear failure
  • Splinter haemorrhages (other classic signs are not reliable)
  • Splenomegaly
  • Neurological signs from cerebral infarction
  • Haematuria (microscopic)
  • Necrotic skin lesions
  • Retinal infarcts
  • Clubbing (late sign)
  • Arthritis/arthralgia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What investigations are needed for infectious endocarditis?

A
  • Multiple blood cultures (from different sites, at different times, before antibiotics are started)
  • Detailed cross-sectional echo may confirm diagnosis by identification of vegetations as soon as possible
  • Acute phase reactants (CRP, ESR) will be raised, and can be used to monitor response to treatment
  • ECG to detect conduction defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the management of infective endocarditis?

A
  • Antibiotics (depending on native/prosthetic valve, severity of sepsis, causative organism)
  • Surgical removal of prosthetic material may be required, or surgery to prevent systemic embolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the prophylaxis for infective endocarditis?

A
  • Good dental hygiene must be encouraged for all children with congenital heart disease, as well as avoidance of body piercings and tattoos
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis is no longer routinely recommended, unless for those at high risk (e.g. prosthetic valves) when undergoing surgery which is likely to be associated with bacteraemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Describe childhood leukaemia

A
  • Leukaemia accounts for 33% of all childhood cancers in the UK
  • Most are acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (80% ), and most others are acute myeloid leukaemia (chronic leukaemias are rare in children)
  • Presentation peaks at 2-5 years of age, usually over weeks, but some may progress rapidly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the risk factors for leukaemia?

A
  • More common in white children than black
  • Slightly more common in boys than girls
  • Chromosomal abnormalities (e.g. Down’s syndrome)
  • Specific genetic abnormalities
  • Exposure to ionising radiation and some other chemicals
  • Maternal X-ray during pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the clinical features of leukaemia?

A

Non-specific:
- malaise
- anorexia
- fatigue

Bone marrow infiltration:
- anaemia, pallor, and lethargy
- neutropenia, infection
- thrombocytopaenia, bruising, nose bleeds, petechiae
- bone/joint pain

Reticulo-endothelial infiltration:
- hepatosplenomegaly
- lymphadenopathy

Other organ infiltration (more often at relapse):
- central nervous system (headaches, vomiting, nerve palsies)
- testes (enlargement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the investigations needed for leukaemia?

A
  • FBC: low hb and platelets, high white cell count despite neutropenia
  • Blood film: leukemic blast cells
  • Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy: diagnostic, identifies immunological and cytogenic characteristics
  • Lumbar puncture (if suspected CNS infiltrate)
  • Imaging: e.g. CXR to check for mediastinal mass, US to check for testicular infiltrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the management for leukaemia?

A

Chemotherapy:
- Remission induction (combination of chemotherapy drugs and steroids, to achieve <5% blasts in bone marrow or remission)
- Intensification (drugs given at higher doses and additional drugs, to consolidate remission, but causes increased toxicity)
- Continuing therapy (combination of agents continued at moderate intensity for up to 3 years)

Treatment of relapse:
- high dose chemotherapy
- allogenic bone marrow transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What types of brain tumours affect children?

A

Most common solid tumour in children, and leading cause of childhood cancer deaths
- Astrocytoma: varying from low grade to highly malignant (glioblastoma multiforme)
- Medulloblastoma: arises in midline of posterior fossa, may seed through CNS
- Ependymoma: arises in CSF spaces, commonly 4th ventricle, most are high grade
- Brainstem glioma: highly malignant and poor prognosis
- Craniopharyngioma: developmental tumour, not truly malignant but locally invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the risk factors for brain tumours in children?

A
  • Neurofibromatosis
  • Specific gene mutations (retinoblastoma, neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis)
  • Previous cranial irradiation (e.g. meningeal leukaemia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the clinical features of brain tumours?

A

Depending on age (ability to report), site of tumour, mostly due to raised intracranial pressure, but some may have focal neurology

  • Headache (worse on waking or lying down)
  • Problems with walking/balance/gait or ataxia (particularly with posterior fossa/brainstem tumours
  • Nausea/vomiting (typically early morning)
  • Papilloedema
  • Personality changes
  • Nystagmus or squint
  • Visual field loss (bitemporal hemianopia, midline tumours)
  • Seizures
  • Cranial nerve defects and pyramidal tract signs (brainstem tumours)
  • Growth failure, hormonal changes, diabetes insipidus (craniopharyngioma)
  • Macrocephaly, separating sutures, bulging fontanel (in infants)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What investigations are needed for brain tumours?

A
  • MRI: preferred imaging for most detail
  • CT: quicker, doesn’t need sedation, but less detailed
  • Lumbar puncture: for CSF analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the management of bran tumours?

A

Surgery:
- resection (complete, partial, only for biopsy)
- ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus

Radiotherapy:
- for malignant tumours in older children
- used alone or with chemo, particularly when inoperable

Chemotherapy:
- single or combination of agents
- limited use due to ineffective penetration through blood brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Describe Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Malignant tumour of the lymphatic system, characterised by the presence of multinucleated giant cells (Reed-Sternberg cells), most common in adolescents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are the risk factors for Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
  • EBV
  • Previous mononucleosis
  • HIV
  • Immunosuppression
  • Cigarette smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the clinical features of Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
  • Most present with painless lymphadenopathy (commonly in lower neck or supraclavicular)
  • Lymph nodes may cause airway or superior vena cava obstruction
  • B symptoms (night sweats, weight loss, fever) are not commonly seen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What investigations are needed for Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
  • Rule out other causes: e.g. HIV, infectious mononucleosis, leukaemia
  • Lymph node biopsy and excision
  • Radiological assessment (CXR, CT): to identify other affected nodal sites, for staging
  • Bone marrow biopsy: for staging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the management of Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
  • Combination chemotherapy
  • Radiotherapy (in some cases, mostly early stage)
  • In relapse: high dose chemotherapy followed by autologous stem cell transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Define non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A
  • A group of lymphoproliferative malignancies, divided into low-grade (good prognosis, but incurable) and high-grade (shorter history, but cured with intensive treatment)
  • Further categorised by histology (B and T-cell)
  • Children and young adults are most likely to have high-grade lymphomas (low-grade are rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What are the risk factors for non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
  • Higher risk in white people over black or Asian
  • EBV (associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma)
  • Hepatitis C
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma (associated with lymphoma in HIV patients)
  • Environmental factors (pesticides, solvents, radiation exposure)
  • Congenital and acquired immunodeficiency
  • Autoimmune disorders e.g. Sjogren’s syndrome, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis promote development of MALT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are the clinical features of non-Hodgkin lymphomas?

A
  • Painless lymphadenopathy (most common presentation, can be in neck, head, or abdomen)
  • Systemic symptoms of fatigue, fever, night sweats, weight loss (usually only if high grade or in advanced stages)
  • Varying degrees of bone marrow infiltration (anaemia, bruising, petechiae, infection)
  • Mediastinal mass obstruction (e.g. breathlessness, facial swelling, vein distention)
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Abdominal symptoms: pain, mass, bowel obstruction (particularly Burkitt’s lymphoma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What investigations are needed for non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
  • Biopsy and excision
  • Radiological assessment of other nodal sites (CT or MRI)
  • Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
  • Lumbar puncture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is the management for non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
  • Varying options depending on type of lymphoma
  • Chemotherapy may be single or multi agent
  • Radiotherapy may be used as regional or extended
  • Some types require autologous or allogenic stem cell transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Describe neuroblastoma

A
  • Tumours arising from neural crest tissue in the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system
  • Common before the age of 5
  • Spectrum of disease from benign to highly malignant
  • Spontaneous regression sometimes occurs in very young infants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are the clinical features of neuroblastoma?

A
  • Abdominal mass (usually of adrenal origin, often large and complex at presentation)
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Bone marrow suppression (pallor, anaemia, weight loss, malaise, infections, bleeding/bruising, fever)
  • Bone pain, limp
  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
  • Proptosis (bulging eyes)
  • Paraplegia/spinal cord compression (from paravertebral tumours)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are the investigations needed for neuroblastoma?

A
  • Radiological features (on US, MRI)
  • Raised urinary catecholamine metabolite levels
  • Biopsy
  • Bone marrow aspiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is the management of neuroblastoma?

A

Surgery:
- resection (if localised primary)
- following chemotherapy

Chemotherapy:
- type determine by stage and biology
- high doses given to older children at high risk

Radiotherapy:
- mainly for high risk groups, or in relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Describe Wilms tumour

A
  • Also called nephroblastoma, originating from embryonal renal tissue
  • Most common renal tumour of childhood
  • Most present before 5, rarely after 10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are the clinical features of Wilms tumour?

A
  • Abdominal mass
  • Haematuria
  • Abdominal pain
  • Anorexia
  • Anaemia
  • Hypertension
  • Diagnosed at screening of infants with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are the investigations needed for Wilms tumour?

A
  • Characteristic intrinsic renal mass seen on US/CT/MRI
  • Staging to asses for distant metastases (usually lung)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is the management for Wilms tumour?

A
  • Initial chemotherapy
  • Delayed nephrectomy/resection (histology allows planning of further therapy)
  • Radiotherapy for advanced disease
  • Preservation of renal function (in bilateral disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Describe retinoblastoma

A
  • Malignant tumour of retinal cells
  • Accounting for 5% of severe visual impairment
  • May affect one or both eyes, all bilateral tumours and 20% of unilateral are hereditary
  • Retinoblastoma gene on chromosome 13, dominant inheritance, incomplete penetrance
  • Most present under 3 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are the clinical features of retinoblastoma?

A
  • Loss of red light reflex (leukocoria)
  • Squint (strabismus)
  • Pain or redness around the eye
  • Poor vision or change in child’s vision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What investigations are needed for retinoblastoma?

A
  • Ophthalmological examination (under anaesthesia)
  • MRI
  • Biopsy is not taken (to preserve vision)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the management of retinoblastoma?

A
  • Chemotherapy (shrinks tumour) followed by local laser treatment to the retina
  • Radiotherapy (advanced or recurrent disease)
  • Surgical enucleation of the eye is sometimes needed in advanced disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Describe bone cancers

A
  • Osteosarcomas are the most common primary bone cancer in children, more common in older children and boys
  • Ewing sarcoma is rarer, but more common in younger children and also boys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What are the clinical features of bone cancers?

A
  • Persistent localised pain
  • Swelling/mass
  • Redness over affected area
  • Systemic symptoms (malaise, fever, weight loss) are rare and poor prognostic features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What are the investigations needed for bone cancers?

A
  • X ray: osteosarcoma has bone destruction, formation and calcification in ‘sunburst’ appearance, Ewing sarcoma has bone destruction and overlying ‘onion-skin layers’ of periosteal formation
  • Chest CT: assess for lung mets
  • MRI/PET scan: assess for other bony mets
  • Bone marrow sampling: exclude marrow infiltration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is the management for bone cancers?

A
  • Combination chemotherapy
  • Surgical removal of tumour (limb-sparing with prosthetic bone replacement)
  • Radiotherapy is used for Ewing sarcoma, especially if surgical resection is impossible/incomplete
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Describe the features and management of hepatoblastoma

A
  • Most common primary liver cancer in children, usually under 3
  • Usually symptomatic but may present with abdominal mass and distention, vomiting, anaemia, failure to thrive
  • Alpha-fetoprotein is elevated and used to monitor treatment response
  • Management involves surgical resection followed by adjuvant chemotherapy, radiotherapy may be used, and transplantation may be necessary if nonresectable
  • Survival rates can be 90-100%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What are the late effects of cancer treatment?

A
  • Specific organ dysfunction (toxicity from chemotherapy, nephrectomy for Wilms tumour)
  • Growth problems (hormone deficiencies, or bone deformities from irradiation)
  • Infertility (gonadal irradiation, of toxicity from chemotherapy)
  • Mental health (PTSD, health care related anxiety)
  • Social (chronic illness, absence from school)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Define faltering growth

A
  • A descriptive term of failure to gain adequate weight or achieve adequate growth during infancy or early childhood, due to an underlying cause
  • Defined as a fall in weight of two or more major centile lines in weight, or a weight below the 2nd centile for age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What are the risk factors for faltering growth?

A
  • Congenital abnormalities (cerebral palsy, Down’s syndrome, autism)
  • Developmental delay
  • Gastroesophageal reflux
  • Low birth weight (<2500g)
  • Poor oral health
  • Prematurity
  • Tongue-tie
  • Disordered feeding technique
  • Family stressors
  • Poor parenting skills
  • Postpartum depression
  • Poverty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What are the causes of faltering growth?

A

Inadequate intake:
- feeding issues (insufficient breast milk, poor technique, lack of feeding pattern/routine, infants resistance to feeding, unavailability of food)
- psychosocial (poor maternal-infant interaction, maternal depression, poor maternal cognitive function)
- neglect or child abuse (including factitious illness)
- impaired suck/swallow (neurological dysfunction e.g. cerebral palsy , anatomical e.g. cleft palate)
- chronic illness leading to anorexia (cystic fibrosis, Crohn disease, CKD)

Inadequate retention:
- vomiting
- GORD
- cow’s milk protein allergy

Increased requirements:
- congenital heart disease
- hyperthyroidism
- cystic fibrosis
- malignancy
- chronic infection (e.g. HIV, TB)

Malabsorption:
- coeliac disease
- cystic fibrosis
- cow’s milk protein allergy
- infections

Failure to utilise nutrients:
- genetic disorders (e.g. Down’s syndrome)
- intrauterine growth restriction
- metabolic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

How is faltering growth assessed?

A
  • Serial measurements of weight, length/height, head circumference
  • Dietary history (milk feeding, age of weaning, range and type of foods, meal routine, feeding behaviours)
  • Assess other symptoms, development, psychosocial problems, illnesses in family
  • Examine for signs of organic pathology
  • Blood tests (for anaemia, coeliac disease, allergy etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are the potential signs of faltering growth seen on examination?

A
  • Dysmorphic features of genetic conditions
  • Evidence of nutritional deficiencies (koilonychia, angular stomatitis, hair changes)
  • Signs of chronic respiratory disease (e.g. cystic fibrosis)
  • Heart murmur or signs of heart failure from congenital heart disease
  • Distended abdomen, hepatomegaly in malnutrition/chronic illness
  • Rash/skin changes (cow’s milk allergy, or HIV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is the management for faltering growth?

A
  • Treat underlying pathology (e.g. PPI for GORD, treat infection, management of chronic conditions, etc.)
  • Dietician (increase energy intake by increase energy dense foods and variety of foods, regular meal times, avoid conflict, etc.)
  • Speech and language therapy (specialist techniques for feeding disorders)
  • Psychologist/social services (alleviate stress at home, support mother/parents)
  • If severe: hospital admission, active refeeding, enteral tubes (NG tube, gastrostomy), parenteral nutrition (IV, PICC, central venous catheter)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

How is a fever identified in children?

A
  • Less than 4 weeks: electronic thermometer in the axilla
  • Aged 4 weeks to 5 years: electronic or chemical dot thermometer in the axilla, or infrared tympanic thermometer
    • fever = over 38 C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What are the risk factors for infection?

A
  • Illness of other family members
  • Specific illness prevalent in community
  • Lack of immunisations
  • Recent travel abroad (e.g. malaria)
  • Increased susceptibility from immunodeficiency
  • Immunosuppressive drugs
  • Splenectomy for underlying conditions
  • Antibody defects (e.g. in prematurity)
  • HIV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What are the low, intermediate, and high risk features of a serious illness?

A

Colour:
- green = normal
- amber = pallor
- red = pale, mottled, ashen, blue

Activity:
- green = responds normally, content, awake/wakes easily, normal/not crying
- amber = not responding normally, no smile, wakes with prolonged stimulation, decreased activity
- red = no response to social cues, appears ill, not rousable, weak or continuous cry

Respiratory:
- green = normal
- amber = nasal flaring, tachypnoea, oxygen saturations < 95% on air, crackles in chest
- red = grunting, tachypnoea (more than 60 breaths per min), moderate/severe chest indrawing

Circulation:
- green = normal skin/eyes, moist mucous membranes
- amber = tachycardia, dry mucous membranes, capillary refill > 3s, poor feeding, reduced urine output
- red = reduced skin turgor

Other:
- amber = 3-6 months with temperature more than 39, fever for more than 5 days, swelling of limb/joint, non-weight bearing
- red = less then 3 months with temperature more then 38, non-blanching rash, bulging fontanelle, neck stiffness, focal neurological signs, seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What investigations are needed in children younger than 3 months with a fever?

A
  • FBC
  • Blood culture
  • CRP
  • Urine microscopy
  • CXR (if resp sings)
  • Stool culture (if diarrhoea)
  • Lumbar puncture (unless contraindicated, in all under 1 months, in 1-3 months if looks unwell or high/low WBC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What investigations are needed in children over 3 months with a fever?

A
  • FBC
  • Blood culture
  • CRP
  • Urine testing (urinalysis)
  • Lumbar puncture (unless contraindicated, in all ages with red features, in under 1 years with amber features)
  • CXR (in all with red features, with amber features if temp above 39 or high/low WBC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What are the 4 domains of development?

A
  • Gross motor
  • Vision and fine motor
  • Hearing, speech, and language
  • Social, emotional, and behavioural
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are the median ages for gross motor development?

A
  • Newborn: limbs flexed, symmetrical posture, head lag on pulling up
  • 3 months: no head lag
  • 6-8 months: sits without support (straight back by 8 months)
  • 8-9 months: crawling
  • 10 months: independent standing, cruises around furniture
  • 12 months: walks unsteadily, broad gait, hands apart
  • 15 months: walks steadily
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What are the median ages for vision and fine motor development?

A
  • 6 weeks: follows moving object by turning head
  • 4 months: reaching out for toys
  • 4-6 months: palmar grasp
  • 7 months: transfers toys from hand to hand
  • 10 months: pincer grip
  • 16-18 months: makes marks with crayons
  • 15 months-4 years: tower of 3 (15m), 6 (2y), 8 (2.5y), bridge (3y), steps (4y)
  • 2-5 years: draws line (2y), circle (3y), square (4y), triangle (5y)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What are the median ages for hearing, speech, and language?

A
  • Newborn: startles to loud noises
  • 3-4 months: vocalises alone or when spoken to, coos, laughs
  • 7 months: turns to soft sounds out of sight
  • 7-10 months: sounds used indiscriminately (7m), discriminately to parents (10m)
  • 12 months: 2-3 words
  • 18 months: 6-10 words, shows 2 body parts
  • 20-24 months: joins 2 or more words to make simple phrases
  • 2.5 to 3 years: talks constantly in 3-4 word sentences, understandable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What are the median ages for social, emotional, and behavioural development?

A
  • 6 weeks: smiles responsively
  • 6-8 months: puts food in mouth
  • 10-12 months: waving, peek-a-boo
  • 12 months: drinks from cup with 2 hands
  • 18 months: holds spoon and brings food to mouth
  • 18-24 months: symbolic play e.g. feeds doll
  • 2 years: dry by day, pulls off some clothes
  • 2.5-3 years: parallel play, interactive play, takes turns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What are the red flags for developmental delay?

A
  • Gross motor: head control (4m), sitting unsupported (9m), stands with support (12m), walks independently (18m)
  • Vision and fine motor: fixes and follows visually (3m), reaches for object (6m), transfers objects (9m), pincer grip (12m)
  • Hearing, speech, language: polysyllabic babble (7m), consonant babble (10m), 6 words (18m), joining words (2y), 3 words sentences (2.5y)
  • Social, emotional, behavioural: smiles (8w), fear of strangers (10m), feeds self with spoon (18m), symbolic play (2-2.5y), interactive play (3-3.5 months)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What are the causes for abnormal development and learning disability?

A

Prenatal:
- genetic (chromosome/genetic disorders e.g. Down’s syndrome, microdeletions or duplications)
- structural brain problems (cerebral dysgenesis e.g. microcephaly, absent corpus callosum, hydrocephalus)
- teratogenic (alcohol or drug use)
- infection (rubella, CMV, HIV)
- neurocutaneous (tuberous sclerosis, neurofibromatosis)

Perinatal:
- extreme prematurity (intraventricular haemorrhage/periventricular leukomalacia)
- perinatal asphyxia (hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy)
- metabolic (hypoglycaemia, hyperbilirubinemia)

Postnatal:
- infection (meningitis, encephalitis)
- anoxia (suffocation, near drowning, seizures)
- trauma (accidental or non-accidental brain injury)
- cerebrovascular (haemorrhagic or ischemic stroke)
- nutritional (malnutrition, vitamin deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What investigations are needed for developmental delay?

A

Genetic:
- array-based comparative genomic hybridization/microarray
- fragile X analysis
- whole genome sequencing

Biochemical:
- U&E, creatinine
- Creatine kinase (for DMD)
- FBC, ferritin, B12
- Bone chemistry, LFTs, TFTs

Metabolic:
- blood amino acid, ammonia, fatty acids,
- urinary organic acid, amino acids, sugars

Others:
- brain imaging
- EEG
- nerve conduction studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Define cerebral palsy

A
  • A group of permanent disorders of movement and posture
  • Motor disturbances are often accompanied by disturbances of cognition, communication, vision, sensation, behaviour, seizure disorders
  • The causative lesion in non-progressive, but clinical manifestations may change over time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What are the causes of cerebral palsy?

A
  • Prenatal (80%): structural maldevelopment of the brain, cerebrovascular haemorrhage or ischemia, some genetic causes, congenital infection
  • Perinatal brain injury (10%): hypoxic-brain injury before/during delivery, preterm infants are particularly vulnerable
  • Postnatal (10%): meningitis, encephalitis, head trauma, hydrocephalus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What are the clinical features of cerebral palsy?

A
  • Feeding difficulties, oromotor incoordination, difficulties latching, gagging and vomiting
  • Delayed motor milestones (not rolling over, sitting unsupported by 9 months, not walking by 18 months)
  • Poor head control, floppy/stiff limbs, asymmetry of hand function
  • Abnormal gait e.g. toe-walking
  • Global developmental delay
  • Examination: reduced or increased tone, increased reflexes, upgoing plantar reflex, persistence of primitive reflexes, slowing of head growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What are the different types of cerebral palsy?

A

Spastic:
- damage to the upper motor neuron pathway and pyramidal pathways
- increased limb tone, velocity dependent
- brisk deep tendon reflex
- limb involvement can be unilateral (hemiplegia) or bilateral (quadriplegia - all 4 limbs)/(diplegia - legs worse than arms)

Dyskinetic:
- damage in the basal ganglia and extra-pyramidal pathways
- movements that are involuntary, uncontrolled, stereotyped
- may be described as chorea (irregular, sudden, non-repetitive), athetosis (slow, writhing, more distal), dystonia (contraction of agonist and antagonist muscles of trunk)
- muscle tone is variable, primitive motor reflexes predominate, intellect may not be impaired

Ataxic (hypotonic):
- most are genetically determined, or due to damage to the cerebellum or its connections
- early trunk and limb hypotonia, poor balance, incoordinate movements, intention tremor, ataxic gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is the management for cerebral palsy?

A
  • MDT approach to associated medical, psychological and social needs
  • Medication for spasticity: baclofen (muscle relaxant), diazepam, in conjunction with orthoses
  • Anticholinergic drugs (e.g. trihexyphenidyl) for dyskinetic CP or dystonia
  • Botulinum toxin injections, followed by serial casting
  • Intrathecal baclofen and deep brain stimulation of the basal ganglia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What are the causes of speech and language delay?

A
  • Hearing impairment
  • Global developmental delay
  • Environmental deprivation
  • Lack of opportunity for social interaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are the types of hearing impairment?

A

Sensorineural:
- caused by lesion in the hair cells of the cochlea, or auditory nerve
- uncommon, irreversible, of varying severity

Conductive:
- problems in transmission of sound through outer or middle ear
- common, often self-limiting

Mixed:
- both sensorineural and conductive elements

Central auditory dysfunction:
- damage or dysfunction to the to auditory nerve, brain stem or cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What are the causes, features, and management of sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Causes:
- genetic (80%)
- antenatal/perinatal (congenital infections, prematurity, meningitis, head injury, neurodegenerative disorders)

Features:
- unilateral or bilateral
- some or all frequencies
- can be profound
- does not improve and may progress

Management:
- amplification using conduction hearing aids, or cochlear implants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What are the causes, features, and management of conductive hearing loss?

A

Causes:
- chronic secretory otitis media (most common)
- eustachian tube dysfunction (Down’s syndrome, cleft palate)
- hypoplasia of external auditory canal/wax in canal
- perforation of tympanic membrane

Features:
- unilateral or bilateral
- usually low to mid frequencies
- mild or moderate
- usually self-limiting, may recur or fluctuate, permanent if caused by malformation of outer/middle ear

Management:
- conservative
- nasal inflation balloons
- bone conduction hearing aids
- grommet insertion
- adenoidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Describe the newborn hearing screening

A
  • Automated otoacoustic emission test: a series of clicks evoke an ‘echo’, which indicates a healthy cochlea
  • Auditory brainstem response test: done if the otoacoustic emission test was abnormal, evokes brainwaves in response to sound to test both cochlea and auditory nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What are the different presentations of visual impairment?

A
  • Obvious ocular malformation (e.g. anophthalmia)
  • Absent red reflex due to opacification of cataracts, corneal abnormalities, or retinoblastoma
  • Not smiling by 6 weeks
  • Poor eye contact or visual responses
  • Roving eye movements
  • Nystagmus
  • Squint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Define neurodivergent and neurodiversity

A
  • Neurodivergent: individuals whose neurology differs substantially from dominant norms
  • Neurodiversity: describes the diversity across humans (often used incorrectly to mean neurodivergent)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What are the features of ADHD?

A

Inattention:
- bored or day dreamy
- easily distracted
- failure to persist with tasks (e.g. school work/chores)
- disorganisation
- poor concentration
- careless mistakes

Hyperactivity:
- excessive movement and/or talking
- restlessness
- fidgeting
- difficulty remaining seated/sitting

Impulsivity:
- thrill seeking
- not thinking about consequences of actions
- interrupts/inpatient
- difficulty respecting boundaries/waiting turns

Others:
- poor emotional regulation (short lived, exaggerated, situation specific)
- low self esteem
- poor peer relationships (risk of antisocial behaviour)
- poor school performance (risk of exclusions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Which groups of people have a high prevalence of ADHD?

A
  • Preterm
  • Looked after children
  • OCD
  • Mod disorders (depression/anxiety)
  • Close family members with ADHD
  • Epilepsy
  • Neurodevelopmental conditions
  • Substance use disorders
  • Youth/adult criminal system
  • Acquired brain injury
178
Q

What are the features of an ADHD assessment?

A
  • Clinical interview
  • Classroom observation
  • Questionnaires
  • Quantitative behavioural test (computer measures attention and impulse control)
179
Q

What is the management of ADHD?

A

Psychosocial:
- 1st line in preschool and school age with mild/moderate disorder
- active promotion of behavioural and educational progress
- parental and teacher advice

Pharmacological:
- only if over 6 years old
- 1st line = stimulants (methylphenidate)
- needs close monitoring for side effects (anxiety, weight loss, hypertension) and for titrations
- may need medication into adulthood, with trails off medication to reassess needs

180
Q

What are the category A features of autism?

A
  • need all
    Social communication and interaction:
  • social emotional reciprocity
  • info dumping
  • direct answers to questions
  • literal interpretation
  • difficulty with abstract interpretation (metaphors, idioms, etc.)
  • alexithymia (inability to recognise or describe own emotions)
  • preference for written communication

Nonverbal communicative behaviours used in social interaction:
- facial expression mismatch
- eye gaze differences
- hand gestures

Developing, maintaining, understanding relationships:
- absence of interests in peers
- communicates well with autistic people
- auditory processing speed and working memories
- doesn’t follow expectations

181
Q

What are the category B features of autism?

A
  • need 2 out of 4
    Stereotyped or repetitive motor movements/speech/use of objects:
  • spinning, flapping, tapping
  • toe walking
  • intense attachment to objects
  • repetitive behaviours with objects (e.g. lining up)
  • echolalia or odd/repetitive phrases

Preference for sameness, adherence to routines, ritualised patterns of behaviour:
- anxiety
- difficulty with transitions
- ridged thinking
- strict routine and upset with deviation

Hyper/hypo sensory input:
- neurological differences in perception
- unusual interest in sensory objects
- distress caused by certain sensory experiences

Highly restricted fixated interests, abnormal intensity and focus:
- special interests in objects/topics/people
- used for comfort at times of stress

182
Q

What are the category C, D, and E features of autism?

A
  • must have all
  • C: symptoms must be present in early developmental period (but may not fully manifest until demand exceeds capacity)
  • D: significant impairment in social, occupational or other areas of functioning
  • E: disturbances cannot be better explained
183
Q

What are the clinical features of UTI?

A

Under 3 months:
- fever
- vomiting
- lethargy
- irritability
- poor feeding/faltering growth
- abdominal pain
- jaundice
- offensive urine
- septicaemia
- febrile seizures

Over 3 months:
- fever
- frequency
- dysuria
- urgency/changes in continence
- abdominal/loin pain
- lethargy, malaise, anorexia
- vomiting
- haematuria
- cloudy/offensive urine

184
Q

What are the investigations needed for UTI?

A

Urine collection:
- cotton wool in nappy
- ‘clean-catch’ (midstream)
- adhesive bag to perineum
- urethral catheter
- suprapubic aspirate (rarely)

Urine testing:
- urine dipstick (not under 3m, need positive nitrates and leukocytes)
- culture (more than 10^5 colony forming units)
- microscopy

Imaging:
- USS for all infants with first UTI, identifies serious structural abnormalities, obstruction, or scarring
- Micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) if obstruction or reflux is suspected
- Functional scan (DMSA, MAG3) identifies scarring and loss of function

185
Q

What is the management of UTI?

A
  • All infants under 3 months: IV antibiotics for 5-7 days, followed by oral prophylaxis
  • Acute pyelonephritis/upper UTI: oral or IV antibiotics (if concerns about sepsis) for 2-4 days followed by oral for total of 7-10 days
  • Cystitis/lower UTI (no systemic signs): oral antibiotics for 3-5 days
    • antibiotics = oral trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, IV cefuroxime, meropenem for resistant organisms

Other measures:
- high fluid intake to produce high urine output and regular voiding
- ensure complete bladder emptying
- treatment/prevention of constipation
- perineal hygiene
- antibiotic prophylaxis (if congenital abnormality or severe reflux)

186
Q

What are the features of atypical UTI?

A
  • Septicaemia
  • Requiring IV antibiotics
  • Non E.coli organism
  • Poor urine flow
  • Abdominal/bladder mass
  • Raised creatinine
  • Failure to respond to treatment within 48hrs
187
Q

What are the causes of increased interstitial fluid?

A
  • Obstruction of lymphatic drainage
  • Obstruction of venous drainage (e.g. DVT)
  • Lowered oncotic pressure
  • Salt and water retention
188
Q

What is the pathophysiology of nephrotic syndrome causing oedema?

A
  • Nephrotic syndrome causes hypalbuminaemia which results in decreased intravascular oncotic pressure
  • This causes a fluid shift into the extravascular compartment and decreased intravascular fluid volume
  • This increases the synthesis of aldosterone and vasopressin to cause salt and water retention and contributes to oedema
189
Q

What are the clinical features of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Core features:
- Heavy proteinuria
- Hypoalbuminaemia
- Oedema

Presentation:
- periorbital oedema (often earliest sign)
- scrotal, vulval, leg, or ankle oedema
- ascites
- breathlessness due to pleural effusions
- infection such as peritonitis, septic arthritis, sepsis

190
Q

What are the investigations needed for nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Urine dipstick: confirms heavy proteinuria (<3+ protein)
  • FBC: identify infection
  • U&E: raised in intravascular fluid depletion
  • Albumin: <25g/L
  • Complement levels: to differentiate from postinfectious glomerulonephritis (low C3) or lupus (low C3 and C4)
  • Urinary sodium concentration: low in intravascular fluid depletion
  • Screen for malaria, hep B and C: secondary causes of nephrotic syndrome
191
Q

Describe steroid-sensitive nephrotic syndrome

A
  • 85-90% of children with nephrotic syndrome have proteinuria which resolves with corticosteroid
  • They have normal renal function, blood pressure, and complement levels, and no haematuria
  • There are minimal changes on histology
  • Most do not progress to chronic kidney disease in adulthood
192
Q

What is the management of steroid-sensitive nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Initially dose of 60mg/m^2 per day of prednisolone for 4 weeks, then reduced to 40 for 4 weeks, then weaned/stopped
  • Children who do not respond after 4-6 weeks may have a more complex diagnosis and require renal biopsy
  • Histology on light microscopy is normal, but fusion of podocytes my be seen on electron microscopy
  • Monitoring/management of complications: e.g. hypovolaemia, thrombosis, infection, hypocholesteraemia
193
Q

Describe steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome

A
  • Clinical features of raised blood pressure, impaired renal punction, haematuria
  • No response to steroid treatment, requiring a biopsy and genetic testing (30% have gene mutations affecting GBM)
  • Histology shows basement membrane abnormality, e.g. focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
  • 50% have end stage renal failure by 10 years
194
Q

What is the management of steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Diuretic therapy
  • Salt and fluid restriction
  • ACE inhibitors
  • NSAIDs (may reduce proteinuria)
195
Q

Describe congenital nephrotic syndrome

A
  • Rare inherited disease, most commonly recessive
  • Presents in first 3 months of life, and in the UK is most common in consanguineous families
  • Complications are related to progressive chronic kidney disease
  • Albuminuria is so severe that management may include unilateral nephrectomy followed by dialysis, and then transplant when old enough
196
Q

What are the clinical features of glomerulonephritis?

A
  • Haematuria and proteinuria
  • Oedema (initially periorbital)
  • Hypertension (may cause seizures)
  • Decreased urine output (volume overload)
197
Q

What are the causes of acute glomerulonephritis?

A
  • Postinfectious (including streptococcus)
  • Vasculitis (Henoch-Schonlein purpura, SLE)
  • IgA nephropathy
  • Anti-glomerular basement membrane (Goodpasture syndrome)
198
Q

What are the non-glomerular causes of haematuria?

A
  • Infection
  • Trauma to genitalia, urinary tract, kidneys
  • Stones
  • Tumours
  • Sickle cell disease
  • Bleeding disorders
  • Renal vein thrombosis
  • Hypercalciuria
199
Q

Describe postinfectious glomerulonephritis

A
  • Inflammation in the kidneys usually following a group A streptococcal pharyngitis of skin infections (after 10-21 weeks)
  • Presentation: macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria, oedema, hypertension, lethargy, decreased urine output
  • Investigations: mild normocytic anaemia, elevated blood urea, nitrogen, and creatinine, low C3 complement, evidence of strep. infection
  • Management: antibiotics to eradicate remaining strep, treating hypertension and oedema (diuretics, antihypertensives)
200
Q

Describe Henoch-Schonlein purpura

A
  • Autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis, usually occurs at ages 3-10 years, often proceeded by URTI commonly in winter
  • Presentation: characteristic skin rash on extensor surfaces of arms/legs and buttocks, arthralgia, abdominal pain, glomerulonephritis (micro/macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria), rarely nephrotic syndrome
  • Investigations: urinalysis, raised ESR, raised serum creatinine, raised serum IgA, renal biopsy if persistent
  • Management: usually self-limiting, NSAIDs may help with pain but not in GI/renal involvement, high dose steroids for renal disease
201
Q

Describe IgA nephropathy

A
  • Abnormal glycosylation of IgA leading to deposits in the kidneys, commonly associated with URTI
  • Presentation: episodes of macroscopic haematuria (or microscopic), may have proteinuria, oedema, hypertension
  • Investigations: urinalysis, IgA on kidney biopsy
  • Management: blood pressure control, steroids for persistent proteinuria
202
Q

Define seizure

A
  • A paroxysmal abnormality of motor, sensory, autonomic, and/or cognitive function, due to transient brain dysfunction
  • Includes epileptic, syncopal (anoxic), brainstem (hydrocephalic), of functional
  • Epileptic seizures are defined by the nature of underlying electrical activity in the brain (excessive and hypersynchronous electrical activity)
  • Convulsions define the motor component of a seizure (tonic, myotonic, clonic, vibratory, hypermotor)
  • Non-convulsive seizures involve motor arrest (unresponsive stare in absence seizures, or drop attack in atonic seizures)
203
Q

What are the causes of seizures?

A

Epilepsy:
- genetic (idiopathic, 70-80%)
- structural or metabolic (cerebral malformation, damage (infection, ischemia, haemorrhage), cerebral tumour, neurodegenerative disorders

Acute symptomatic seizures:
- provoked by any cortical brain injury/insult
- stroke, traumatic brain injury, intracranial infection
- hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypo/hypernatraemia
- poisons/toxins

Febrile seizures:
- epileptic seizure accompanied by fever, in the absence of intracranial infection

Non-epileptic seizures:
- expiratory apnoea syncope (‘blue breath-holding spells’)
- vasovagal syncope
- reflex asystolic syncope
- cardiac syncope

204
Q

Describe febrile seizures

A
  • Epileptic seizure accompanied by fever, in the absence of intracerebral infection, usually occurring early in viral illness when the temperature is rising rapidly
  • Occur in 3% of children between 6 months and 6 years
  • Genetic predisposition, 10% risk with family history
  • Seizures are usually brief generalised tonic-clonic seizures, and 30-40% may go on to have further febrile seizures
  • Simple febrile seizures do not cause brain damage, and the risk of developing epilepsy is the same as all children
  • Complex febrile seizures (focal, prolonged, repeated) have an increased risk of developing epilepsy
205
Q

What is the management for febrile seizures?

A
  • Identify cause of fever (rule out bacterial infection e.g. meningitis with blood cultures, urine cultures, lumbar puncture)
  • Reassurance and first aid information about seizures to parents
  • Antipyretics may be used, but do not prevent febrile seizures
  • Buccal midazolam can be given if history of prolonged seizures
    • EEG and prophylactic antiepileptic drugs are not indicated
206
Q

Describe expiratory apnoea syncope

A
  • Also known as ‘blue breath-holding’ spells
  • Most commonly occurs in toddlers when they cry, hold their breath, and go blue
  • The child may lose consciousness briefly, but rapidly recovers
  • There is no drug treatment as attacks resolve spontaneously
  • Treating any iron deficiency anaemia may help
207
Q

Describe reflex asystolic syncope

A
  • Also called reflex anoxic seizures
  • Occur in infants and toddlers, may have first-degree relative history of faints
  • Triggered by head trauma, cold food, fright, fever
  • After the trigger, children become pale, goes limp or falls to the floor, and loses consciousness,
  • This is followed by a brief tonic-clonic seizure due to hypoxia, caused by cardiac asystole from excessive vagal inhibition
  • Recovery is usually rapid, but the child may be tired/washed-out for some time
  • Drug therapy is not needed, and pacemaker insertion is the only treatment for severe frequent episodes
208
Q

What are the different types of epilepsy?

A

Generalised: electrical discharges arise from both hemispheres
- absence
- myoclonic
- tonic
- tonic-clonic
- spasms
- atonic

Focal: seizures arise from one or part of one hemisphere
- frontal (may have clonic movements, tonic seizures with upper limbs raised, asymmetrical tonic seizures, hypermotor)
- temporal (may involve strange warning/aura sensations of smell or taste, lip-smacking, chewing, automatisms, deja-vu)
- occipital (stereotyped visual hallucinations, positive or negative phenomena)
- parietal (contralateral dysesthesias/altered sensation, distorted body image)

209
Q

Describe infantile spasms (West syndrome)

A
  • Onset usually at age 3-12 months
  • Seizure pattern: violent flexor spasms of the head, trunk and limbs, followed by extension of the arms, lasting 1-2s in bursts of 20-30, usual just before sleep or on waking
  • May be misinterpreted as general discomfort e.g. colic, and most have underlying neurological cause
  • There may be delay or reversal of social or psychomotor development, and most will develop learning disability
  • Investigations: EEG - hypsarrhythmia (abnormal high amplitude waves between seizures)
  • Treatment: daily IM ACTH, vigabatrin, and/or corticosteroids, and anti-epileptic drugs as adjuncts
210
Q

Describe some other epilepsy syndromes?

A
  • Lennox Gastaut syndrome: onset at age 1-3 years, multiple seizure types but mostly atonic, absences and tonic seizures in sleep, also neurodevelopmental arrest/regression, often other neurological problems
  • Childhood absence epilepsy: onset at age 4-12 years, sudden onset of absence seizures with no recall of events, developmentally normal but may disrupt schooling, episodes induced by hyperventilation which is helpful for EEG, 2/3 are female, 80% remission in adulthood
  • Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy: myoclonic seizures, and generalised tonic-clonic or absence seizures that may occur, learning is impaired, characteristic EEG, remission is unlikely but response to treatment is good
211
Q

What investigations are used for seizures?

A
  • ECG: rule out convulsive syncope caused by cardiac arrhythmia e.g. long-QT syndrome
  • EEG: ictal EEG can make the diagnosis of epilepsy, interictal EEG helps to categorise the epilepsy type and severity
  • Brain imaging: MRI or CT routinely required to rule out structural pathology
  • Functional imaging: detect abnormal metabolism suggestive of epileptogenic zones
  • Genetic testing: for specific mutations or conditions
212
Q

Describe the use of antiepileptic drug therapy

A
  • Choices are made based on seizure type, epilepsy type, frequency, social/educational consequences, with the goal of monotherapy at minimum dose to prevent seizures, without adverse effects
  • Valproate: 1st line for most seizure types, but to be avoided in females of child-bearing age, (SE of weight gain, hair loss, teratogenic, rare liver failure)
  • Carbamazepine: 1st line in tonic-clonic or focal seizures, but to be avoided in absence or myoclonic seizures (SE of rash, ataxia, reduced effect of contraception)
  • Levetiracetam: 1st line in myoclonic or focal seizures, 2nd line in other (SE of irritability)
  • Ethosuximide: 1st line in absence seizures (SE of nausea and vomiting)
  • Topiramate: 2nd line, highly effective but worse side effects (SE of weight loss depression, paraesthesia)
  • Buccal midazolam: for prolonged seizures (>5mins) as rescue therapy
213
Q

What are the non-medical managements of epilepsy?

A
  • Education and support to child and family
  • Advice on lifestyle issues (education, behaviour, driving, contraception, pregnancy)
  • Ketogenic diet: low-carb, high-fat may be helpful in some children
  • Vagal nerve stimulation: externally programmed stimulation of a wire inserted around the vagus nerve
  • Surgery: used if there is a well-localised structural cause e.g. temporal lobectomy for mesial temporal sclerosis
214
Q

Define status epilepticus

A
  • Continuous seizure, or intermittent seizures without recovery of consciousness, lasting more than 30 minutes
  • Early termination of seizures is crucial, as longer duration has poorer outcome with more resistance to treatment
  • First step is resuscitation and high flow oxygen, IV/IO lorazepam, buccal midazolam, or rectal diazepam within 5 minutes of seizure, with a 2nd dose if needed by 15mins
  • After this IV/IO levetiracetam, phenytoin, or phenobarbitone can be used
  • Final step is rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia by 30/35 mins, and admission to PICU
215
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of anaemia?

A

Blood loss:
- acute haemorrhage
- chronic bleeding e.g. gut

Decreased production:
- nutritional deficiencies
- bone marrow failure
- bone marrow infiltration (e.g. acute leukaemia, lymphoma)

Increased consumption:
- acquired (immune, drugs, parasites)
- inherited (red cell membrane or enzyme defects)

216
Q

What are the causes of anaemia in children?

A

Microcytic:
- iron deficiency
- thalassaemia
- sideroblastic anaemia
- chronic disease
- severe malnutrition

Normocytic:
- acute blood loss
- infection
- renal failure
- bone marrow infiltration
- haemolysis
- drugs

Macrocytic:
- normal in newborns
- fanconi anaemia
- megaloblastic anaemia
- increased erythropoiesis
- post splenectomy

217
Q

What are the clinical features of iron-deficiency anaemia?

A
  • Asymptomatic until drops below 60-70g/L
  • Pallor
  • Fatigue
  • Poor/slow feeding
  • Irritability
  • May cause PICA
  • If severe: tachycardia, murmur, splenomegaly
218
Q

What is the management of iron deficiency anaemia?

A
  • Dietary advice (e.g. breast/formula milk, not cows milk in infants, red meat, fish, green veg)
  • Oral iron: treatment needed for 3 months after iron levels restored, constipation is common side effect
219
Q

Describe haemolytic anaemia

A

Haemolytic anaemia is caused by increased red blood cell destruction, which can be…

Intravascular (most common, in the circulation):
- haemoglobinopathies (sickle cell, B-thalassaemia)
- enzyme disorders (G6PD)
- cell membrane disorders (hereditary spherocytosis

Extravascular (in liver or spleen):
- autoimmune
- fragmentation
- hypersplenism
- plasma factors

220
Q

What are the diagnostic features of haemolysis?

A
  • Anaemia with normal white cell and platelet count
  • Raised reticulocytes (polychromasia on blood film)
  • Raised unconjugated bilirubin
  • Abnormal appearance of red cells on blood film
  • Increased red blood cell precursors in the bone marrow
  • Moderately enlarged spleen/and or liver (extramedullary haemopoiesis)
221
Q

Describe the pathophysiology, clinical features, and treatment of G6PD deficiency

A
  • Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is the most common red cell enzyme deficiency, mostly affecting people from Africa or Middle East, with X linked inheritance and many different gene mutations
  • Red cells lacking G6PD are susceptible to oxidative damage causing haemolysis
  • Clinical features: varying and intermittent depending on mutation but may include neonatal jaundice, acute haemolysis precipitated by infection or certain drugs, presenting as fever, haemoglobinuria, back/abdominal pain
  • Treatment: stopping precipitant, transfusion, renal support
222
Q

Describe the pathophysiology, clinical features, and treatment of hereditary spherocytosis

A
  • Commonest hereditary haemolytic anaemia in Europeans, with autosomal dominant inheritance, but no family history in 25%
  • Mutations in genes which encode important red cell membrane proteins (e.g. spectrin, ankyrin), causing some cells to become spherical (spherocytes), which are prematurely destroyed in the spleen
  • Clinical features: variable but may include jaundice, anaemia, splenomegaly, gallstone, aplastic crisis
  • Treatment: folic acid, may need blood transfusions, or splenectomy
223
Q

Describe the inheritance and pathophysiology of sickle cell disease

A
  • One of the most common inherited disorders in children in Europe, mostly affecting those with Afro-Caribbean/Indian origin, with autosomal recessive inheritance
  • Sickle cell disease is the collective name for haemoglobinopathies which inherit HbS, including sickle cell anaemia (HbSS), sickle haemoglobin C disease (HbSC), sickle B-thalassaemia (HbSb-thal.), and those who carry one copy of abnormal b-globulin gene have sickle cell trait
  • HbS forms as a result of a point mutation in the B-globulin gene, causing substation of amino acids (valine for glutamate)
  • HbS polymerise when deoxygenated to deforms the cells into a sickle shape, which may get trapped in microcirculation causing vaso-occlusion and ischemia in an organ or bone
  • Sickled cells also have a shortened survival which leads to haemolysis
224
Q

What are the clinical features of sickle cell disease?

A
  • Anaemia (from chronic haemolysis)
  • Increased susceptibility to infection (due to hyposplenism secondary to microinfarcts)
  • Painful crises (due to vaso-occlusion, commonly in hands/feet, or bones of limbs/spine, precipitated by cold, dehydration, hypoxia, excessive exercise, stress, infection)
  • Splenomegaly (more common in young children than older)
  • Acute anaemia (haemolytic crisis - increased destruction, aplastic crisis - decreased production, sequestration crisis - accumulation of sickled cells in spleen)
  • Priapism (prolonged erection, may lead to fibrosis and subsequent erectile dysfunction)
  • Long term problems (short stature, delayed puberty, cognitive problems, stroke, cardiac enlargement, heart failure, gallstones, leg ulcers, psychosocial problems)
225
Q

What is the management of sickle cell disease?

A
  • Education: keeping warm, hydrated, avoiding excessive exercise
  • Infection prophylaxis: routine immunisation plus daily oral penicillin V throughout childhood
  • Painful crises treatment: IV analgesia, hydration, treatment of infection, exchange transfusion if severe acute chest syndrome
  • Hydroxycarbamide: increases HbF production to prevent vaso-occlusive crises and improve long-term outcomes
  • Bone marrow transplant: in severe patients with strokes, or no response to hydroxycarbamide
226
Q

Describe the inheritance and types of B-thalassaemia

A
  • Most common in Middle Easter, Mediterranean, or Indian, with autosomal recessive inheritance
  • B-thalassaemia major (or transfusion dependent thalassaemia): most severe from, patient inherits two abnormal B-globulin so no HbA (2 a-chains, 2 B-chains) is produced
  • B-thalassaemia intermedia (or non-transfusion dependent thalassaemia): less severe, B-globulin mutations allow a small number of HbA and a large amount of HbF to be produced
227
Q

What are the clinical features of B-thalassaemia?

A
  • Severe anaemia
  • Mild/moderate jaundice
  • Faltering growth
  • Splenomegaly and/or hepatomegaly
  • Bone marrow expansion causing skeletal deformity (e.g. frontal bossing, maxillary overgrowth)
  • Complications of blood transfusions (iron deposition, antibody formation, infection, difficult venous access)
228
Q

What is the management of B-thalassaemia?

A
  • Regular blood transfusion (fatal without)
  • Aim to maintain Hb above 95mmol/L
  • Iron chelation (to prevent cardiac failure, liver cirrhosis, and diabetes due to iron overload)
  • Bone marrow transplant (from a matched sibling, only cure)
229
Q

Describe B-thalassaemia trait

A
  • Individuals who carry one normal and one mutates B-globulin gene
  • Usually asymptomatic with absent/mild anaemia, but with reduced MCV and MCH
  • If both parents have B-thalassaemia trait, prenatal diagnosis with amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling should be offered, as 1 in 4 chance of having an affected child
230
Q

Describe the a-thalassaemia

A
  • Occurs mainly in families from South-East Asian origin, autosomal recessive inheritance
  • In the most severe form there is deletion of all four a-globulin genes so no HbA can be produced, which is always fatal in utero due to hydrops fetalis
  • If intrauterine transfusions are given, babies will survive to birth, and require bone marrow transplant
  • If only three globulin genes are deleted, this causes HbH disease resulting in mild-moderate anaemia
231
Q

What are the causes of anaemia in newborns?

A

Blood loss:
- feto-maternal haemorrhage
- twin-to-twin transfusion
- peripartum (e.g. placental abruption)

Reduced red blood cell production:
- congenital parvovirus B19
- congenita red cell aplasia (Diamond-Blackfan anaemia)

Increased red cell destruction:
- haemolytic disease of the newborn
- other haemolytic anaemias

232
Q

Describe haemolytic disease of the newborn

A
  • Caused by antibodies against blood group antigens, most commonly when the mother is rhesus D negative and the baby is positive
  • The mother makes antigens against the baby’s blood which cross the placenta and cause foetal or neonatal haemolytic anaemia
  • Diagnostic test is a positive direct anti-globulin tests (Coombs test)
  • Clinical features: severe anaemia, compensatory hepatosplenomegaly
  • Treatment: prevention of sensitisation with Rh immune globulin, and intrauterine transfusion of affected foetus
233
Q

Describe Fanconi anaemia

A
  • Rare but most common type of inherited aplastic anaemia (bone marrow failure), with a reduction/absence of all three blood cell lineages (red, white, platelets)
  • Caused by mutations in one of the many FANC genes, with autosomal recessive inheritance
  • Most children have congenital abnormalities including short stature, abnormal radii and thumbs, renal malformations, pigmented skin lesions
  • Children are at risk of death from bone marrow failure, or transformation to acute leukaemia
  • Diagnosed by evidence of chromosomal breakage of peripheral blood lymphocytes, and/or genetic analysis
  • Treatment is bone marrow transplantation
234
Q

Describe the inheritance and pathogenesis of haemophilia

A
  • Haemophilia A and B are the most common severe inherited coagulation disorders, both with X-linked recessive inheritance (so more common in boys)
  • Haemophilia A (more common) has a factor VIII deficiency, and haemophilia B has a factor IX deficiency
  • Both factor VIII and IX are involved in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, so result in increased activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
235
Q

What are the clinical features of haemophilia?

A

Graded on level of factor:
- mild (5-40%): bleeding after major surgery, spontaneous bleeding is rare
- moderate (1-5%): prolonged bleeding with minor trauma or surgery, occasional spontaneous bleeding
- major (<1%): spontaneous bleeding into joints or muscles

Presentation:
- 40% during neonatal period with intracranial haemorrhage, large cephalohaematomas, prolonged bleeding post circumcision or heel prick
- When starting to crawl/walk and fall over, with bleeding into joints and muscles, progressing to arthritis if not treated
- At any age: large bruises from trivial pressure/trauma, giving suspicion of non-accidental injury

236
Q

What is the management of haemophilia?

A
  • Prophylactic IV factor VIII or IX for severe haemophilia (reduces risk of chronic joint damage)
  • During acute bleeds: IV recombinant factor concentrates
  • Desmopressin for minor haemophilia A (stimulates release of endogenous factor VIII and vWF, e.g. before minor surgery/dental extraction)
  • Avoidance of intramuscular injections, aspirin, NSAIDs
237
Q

Define von Willebrand disease

A
  • An inherited bleeding disorder affecting vWF, with mostly autosomal dominant inheritance
  • Different types: type 1 (deficiency of vWF), types 2 A, B, M, N (dysfunction of vWF), type 3 (absent vWF)
  • The normal role of vWF is to facilitate platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium, and as a carrier protein for factor VIII
238
Q

What are the clinical features of von Willebrand disease?

A
  • Easy bruising
  • Excessive or prolonged bleeding following surgery or trauma
  • Epistaxis
  • Menorrhagia
  • Mucosal bleeding
239
Q

What is the management of von Willebrand disease?

A
  • depends on type and severity
  • Type 1: usually treated with desmopressin (increases secretion of vWF and factor VIII), with caution in under 1 years as causes hyponatraemia if fluid intake not regulated
  • More severe: require plasma-derived factor VIII concentrate
240
Q

Define immune thrombocytopenia

A
  • Most common cause of thrombocytopenia in childhood
  • Usually caused by destruction of circulating platelets by antiplatelet IgG autoantibodies
  • Reduced platelet count may be accompanied by compensatory increase of megakaryocytes in bone marrow
  • It is a diagnosis of exclusion, so other serious causes should be ruled out (inherited thrombocytopenia, aplastic anaemia, leukaemia)
241
Q

What are the clinical features of immune thrombocytopenia?

A
  • Most present between ages of 2-10 years, with onset of 1-2 weeks after a viral infection or vaccination
  • Children develop petechiae, purpura, and/or superficial bruising
  • May have mucosal bleeding (e.g. epistaxis), but profuse bleeding is uncommon
  • Intracranial bleeding is a rare complication in those with a long period of thrombocytopenia
242
Q

What is the management of immune thrombocytopenia?

A
  • Most children can be managed at home, and won’t need any treatment
  • If major bleeding (intracranial or GI haemorrhage), or persistent minor bleeding that interrupts daily life, treatment options include oral prednisolone, or IV immunoglobulin
  • Platelet transfusions are reserved for life-threatening haemorrhages
243
Q

Describe persistent oligoarthritis

A
  • Accounts for 50% of juvenile idiopathic arthritis
  • Onset at age 1-6 years, more common in females
  • No more than 4 joints involved, often knees, ankles, or wrists
  • Extraarticular features of chronic anterior uveitis (20%), leg length discrepancy
  • ANA may be positive
  • Good prognosis
244
Q

Describe extended oligoarthritis

A
  • Onset at age 1-6 years, more common in females
  • Over 4 joints involved after 6 months post-presentation
  • Asymmetrical distribution of large and small joints
  • Extraarticular features of chronic anterior uveitis (20%), asymmetrical growth
  • ANA may be positive
  • Moderate prognosis
245
Q

Describe polyarthritis

A
  • Two types: RF negative or positive
  • Onset at age 1-6 years in RF negative, but 10-16 in RF positive, both more common in females
  • Symmetrical large and small joint arthritis, often marked finger involvement, RF negative may have cervical spine and temporomandibular joint involvement
  • Extraarticular features: RF negative can have chronic uveitis (5%), late reduction in growth, RF positive can have rheumatoid nodules (10%) and features similar to adult RA
  • Prognosis is moderate in negative RF, but poor in RF positive
246
Q

Describe systemic arthritis

A
  • Onset at age 1-10 years, equal in males and females
  • Pattern may be oligoarthritis, polyarthritis, or arthralgia/myalgia but initially no arthritis
  • Extraarticular features include acute illness, malaise, high fever, macular rash, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly
  • Prognosis can be variable or poor
  • Tests may show anaemia, raised neutrophils, platelets, and acute-phase reactants
247
Q

Describe psoriatic arthritis

A
  • Onset at age 1-16 years, equal in males and females
  • Usually asymmetrical distribution of large and small joints, dactylitis
  • Extraarticular features of psoriasis, nail pitting or dystrophy, chronic anterior uveitis (20%)
  • Moderate prognosis
248
Q

Describe enthesitis-related arthritis

A
  • Onset at age 6-16 year, more common in females
  • Initially lower limb, large joint arthritis, later mild involvement of lumbar spine or sacroiliac joint
  • Extraarticular features of enthesitis (plantar fasciitis, Achilles tendonitis, etc.), occasional acute uveitis
  • Moderate prognosis
  • Presence of HLA B27
249
Q

What are the complications of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Chronic anterior uveitis:
- common but asymptomatic in early stages, if not treated can lead to cataract, glaucoma, vision loss, high risk in oligoarticular pattern, ANA or HLA B27 positive

Joint contractures/erosions:
- chronic uncontrolled inflammation leads to erosion of cartilage, limitation of joint movement, functional impairment, and eventual joint destruction needing replacement

Growth faltering:
- uncontrolled joint inflammation causes abnormal skeletal growth, overgrowth may occur due to increased blood flow, or undergrowth due to early fusion of growth plates

Macrophage activation syndrome:
- life threatening complication, with acute presentation of continuous fever, reduction in erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, abnormal clotting multiorgan failure

Osteoporosis:
- due to many factors including diet, reduced weight-bearing, corticosteroids, delayed menarche

250
Q

What is the management of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A
  • NSAIDs and analgesics: symptom relief during flares
  • Joint injections: 1st line treatment for oligoarthritis, often requires sedation/entonox, may need ultrasound/Xray guidance
  • Methotrexate: early use reduces joint damage, effective in polyarthritis, weekly dose given as tablet/liquid/injection, needs blood monitoring for abnormal liver function and bone-marrow suppression)
  • Systemic corticosteroids: avoided if possible to minimise risk of growth suppression and osteoporosis, IV methylprednisolone often used as induction agent for severe polyarthritis, may be life-saving in systemic arthritis of macrophage activation syndrome
  • Biologics: e.g. anti-TNF, IL-1/6, CTLA-4, for severe disease not managed by methotrexate, expensive and given under strict guidance
251
Q

What are the causes of limp?

A
  • Infection (septic arthritis, osteomyelitis)
  • Trauma (accidental, non-accidental, sport injuries)
  • Transient synovitis
  • Perthes disease
  • Malignancy
  • Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
  • Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
  • Developmental dysplasia of the hip
  • Neuromuscular disease (cerebral palsy, spina bifida)
  • Limb abnormality (length discrepancy, talipes, tarsal coalition)
252
Q

Describe the cause, features, investigations and management of transient synovitis

A
  • Most common cause of acute hip pain in children, occurs between ages 2-12 years
  • Often followed or accompanied by viral infection, may have mild fever
  • Presentation: sudden onset hip pain or limp, no pain at rest, decrease range of movement particularly internal rotation
  • Investigation: imaging may show synovitis, septic arthritis should be ruled out
  • Management: bed rest, analgesia, usually improves in <1 weeks
253
Q

Describe the cause, features, investigations and management of septic arthritis

A
  • Serious infection of joint space which can lead to bone destruction, most common in under 4 years
  • Usually resulting from haematogenous spread, or puncture wound/infection skin, most commonly staph. aureus or strep
  • Presentation: erythematous, warm, tender joint, reduced range of movement, acutely unwell and febrile, children often hold limb still and refuse to bear weight
  • Investigations: blood cultures, increased white cells and CRP/ESR, USS to detect effusion, X-ray shows widening of joint space and soft tissue swelling, joint aspiration to identify organism
  • Management: antibiotics started promptly, adjusted according to cultures, prolonged cause initially IV, washing and drainage of joint may be required
254
Q

Describe the features, investigations, and management of Perthes disease

A
  • Avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis of the femoral head, with eventual revascularisation and reossification
  • Mostly affecting boys aged 5-10 years, associated with obesity
  • Presentation: insidious onset of limp, hip or knee pain, limited range of all movements, Trendelenburg gait in late phase, bilateral in 15%
  • Investigation: X-ray of both hips (including frog view) initially normal but later may show patchy density and then collapse and deformity of the femoral head
  • Management: restriction of activities and weight-bearing until ossification is complete, physiotherapy, NSAIDs for pain relief, sometimes surgical intervention e.g. femoral osteotomy, hip arthroscopy
255
Q

Describe the features, investigations, and management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A
  • Displacement of the proximal femoral epiphysis from the metaphysis, can be acute or chronic (85%)
  • Most common in ages 10-15 years at adolescent growth spurt, associated with obesity, local trauma, inflammatory conditions, metabolic conditions (hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism)
  • Presentation: limp or pain in hip or knee, can be acute after minor trauma, or insidious, restricted abduction and internal rotation, unable to stand/walk if acute, shortening of leg and atrophy of thigh if chronic
  • Investigations: X-ray (including frog leg) shows widening of epiphyseal line and displacement of femoral head
  • Management: avoid moving/walking, analgesia, surgical stabilisation with in situ pin fixation, physiotherapy
256
Q

Describe the features, investigations, and management of developmental dysplasia of the hip

A
  • A spectrum of disorders ranging from dysplasia, subluxation, and complete dislocation, screened for in NIPE at birth and 8 weeks
  • Presentation of undetected condition is usually with limp or abnormal gait, may have asymmetry of skin folds around the hip, limited hip abduction, shortening of affected limb, positive Trendelenburg test
  • Investigations: dynamic ultrasound to assess hip stability, X-ray is more helpful in older children
  • Management: bracing is first line for under 6 months, surgery is needed if no response to bracing or in older children, results worsen the older the child
257
Q

Describe the cause, features, investigations and management of osteomyelitis

A
  • Infection of the metaphysis of the long bones, commonly distal femur or proximal tibia
  • Usually haematogenous spread, or infected wound, common organisms are staph. aureus, or strep
  • Presentation: fever and malaise, painful immobile limb, localised warmth, tenderness, and swelling, may be insidious in infants, may also have septic arthritis
  • Investigations: blood cultures, raised white blood cells and CRP/ESR, X-ray may initially be normal then show periosteal reaction, MRI shows early inflammation and differentiates from soft tissue infection
  • Management: prompt antibiotics, aspiration or surgical decompression, initially rested in splint to prevent pathological fractures
258
Q

Describe Osgood-Schlatter disease

A
  • Osteochondritis of the patellar tendon insertion at the tibial tuberosity in the knee
  • Often affects adolescent males, caused by repetitive strain from overuse in sports such as football and basketball
  • Presentation: anterior knee pain after exercise, localised tenderness, sometimes swelling, often hamstring tightness
  • Usually resolves with ossification of the growth plate, may need analgesics, reduction of impact activity, physiotherapy
259
Q

What are the clinical features of growing pains?

A
  • Age range 3-12 years
  • Bilateral and symmetrical pain, mainly in lower limbs, and not limited to joints
  • Pain never presents at start of the day after waking
  • Physical activities are not limited, no limp
  • Normal examination, with exception of hypermobility in some joints
260
Q

Describe torticollis

A
  • Tilting of the head to one side cause by contraction of the neck muscles, due to underlying pathology
  • Congenital muscular torticollis is the most common cause in infants, due to birth trauma, in utero positioning, a palpable mass may be felt within the SCM muscle
  • Acquires causes include muscle spams, infection (head and neck, spine, CNS), inflammation (JIA), malignancy (CNS, bone), atlantoaxial subluxation
  • Management depends on diagnosis e.g. ENT, orthopaedics, physio
261
Q

What are the red flag features of a limp?

A
  • Unable to weight bear
  • Fever
  • Systemic illness
  • Severe pain
  • Worsening limp/pain
  • Pain waking the child at night
  • Redness, swelling, stiffness
  • Weight loss, anorexia
262
Q

What are the causes of vomiting?

A

Infants:
- GORD
- feeding problems
- infection (GI, URTI, UTI, meningitis)
- food/milk allergy or intolerance
- intestinal obstruction (pyloric stenosis, atresia, volvulus in neonates, intussusception etc.)
- inborn errors of metabolism
- renal failure

Preschool:
- gastroenteritis
- other infection (URTI, UTI, meningitis)
- appendicitis
- oesophagitis
- intestinal obstruction (intussusception, volvulus, adhesions, foreign body)
- raised intracranial pressure
- coeliac disease
- torsion of testis
- renal failure

School age and adolescents:
- gastroenteritis
- other infection (pyelonephritis, septicaemia)
- peptic ulcers
- appendicitis
- migraine
- oesophagitis
- raised intracranial pressure
- coeliac disease
- testicular torsion
- diabetic ketoacidosis
- renal failure
- bulimia/anorexia nervosa
- pregnancy

263
Q

What are the red flag features of vomiting?

A
  • Bile-stained vomit (intestinal obstruction)
  • Haematemesis (oesophagitis, peptic ulcers, oral/nasal bleeding)
  • Projectile vomit in neonate (pyloric stenosis)
  • Vomiting at end of paroxysmal coughing (whooping cough)
  • Abdominal tenderness (surgical abdomen)
  • Abdominal distension (intestinal obstruction)
  • Hepatosplenomegaly (chronic liver disease, inborn error of metabolism)
  • Blood in stool (intussusception, bacterial gastroenteritis, IBD)
  • Severe dehydration/shock (systemic infection, DKA, severe gastroenteritis)
  • Bulging fontanelle or seizures (raised intracranial pressure)
  • Faltering growth (GORD, coeliac disease, chronic GI conditions)
264
Q

Describe GORD

A
  • Involuntary passage of gastric contents into the oesophagus
  • Extremely common in infants, most resolve by 12 months
  • Caused by functional immaturity of the lower oesophageal sphincter, predominantly fluid diet, mainly horizontal posture
  • Complications are rare, except in neurodevelopmental disorders, preterm, following surgery, obesity, hiatus hernia
265
Q

What are the investigations needed for GORD?

A
  • Not routinely required, unless atypical history, complications, failure to respond to treatment
  • 24 hour oesophageal pH monitoring
  • Wireless pH monitoring
  • 24 hour impedance monitoring
  • Endoscopy including biopsies
266
Q

What is the management of GORD?

A
  • Reassurance to parents
  • Smaller and more frequent pain
  • Thickening agents added to feeds (e.g. Carobel)
  • Gaviscon (alginate)
  • PPI or H2 receptor antagonist
  • Surgical management (for unresponsive cases)
267
Q

Describe pyloric stenosis

A
  • Hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle causing gastric outlet obstruction
  • Presents at 2-8 weeks of age, irrespective of gestational age
  • More common in boys, particularly first born
  • May have family history, particularly on maternal side
268
Q

What are the clinical features of pyloric stenosis?

A
  • Vomiting (non-bilious, increasing in frequency and forcefulness, becomes projectile)
  • Feeds normally after vomiting (until dehydration leads to loss of interest in feeding)
  • Weight loss (in delayed presentation)
  • Gastric peristalsis seen as wave across abdomen
  • Pyloric mass felt in upper right quadrant during feeding test
269
Q

What investigations are needed for pyloric stenosis?

A
  • Blood gas: metabolic alkalosis
  • Low chloride
  • Low potassium
  • Low sodium
  • USS: hypertrophy of pylorus
270
Q

What is the management of pyloric stenosis?

A
  • Correction of acid-base electrolyte imbalances
  • IV fluid rehydration
  • Surgery (pyloromyotomy, division of hypertrophied muscle down to mucosa)
271
Q

Describe gastroenteritis

A
  • Very common in young children, who often have more than 1 episode per year
  • Major cause of child mortality in low and middle income countries
  • Most frequent cause in high income countries are viruses (e.g. norovirus, rotavirus)
  • Bacterial causes are less common (suggested by blood in stools)
  • Rarely caused by protozoan parasites e.g. Giardia, Cryptosporidium
272
Q

What are the clinical features of gastroenteritis?

A
  • Sudden change to loose or watery stools of increased frequency
  • Vomiting
  • Blood in stools (campylobacter, shigella, salmonella, E. coli)
  • Dehydration (measured by weight loss, and evidence of shock)
  • Fever
  • History of contact with person with diarrhoea/vomiting, recent travel abroad, eating suspicious food
273
Q

What investigations are needed for gastroenteritis?

A
  • Stool samples (if sepsis suspected, blood/mucus in stools, immunocompromised, recent travel, not improved by day 7)
  • Blood culture (if given antibiotics)
  • Plasma electrolytes, renal function, glucose (if fluids are given, or features of hyponatraemia)
274
Q

What is the fluid management of gastroenteritis?

A

No clinical dehydration:
- prevent dehydration by continuing feeds/encourage fluid intake (not fruit juices or carbonated drinks)
- oral rehydration solution if at increased risk of dehydration

Clinical dehydration (5-10% weight loss):
- fluid deficit replacement + maintenance fluid
- give oral rehydration solution
- if inadequate fluid intake or persistent vomiting, consider NG tube

Shock (>10% weight loss):
- IV fluid therapy
- blouses of 10ml/kg of crystalloids

275
Q

What are the features of clinical dehydration and shock?

A
  • General unwell appearance
  • Altered conscious level (irritable, lethargic)
  • Decreased urine output
  • Sunken eyes
  • Dry mucous membranes
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnoea
  • Reduced skin turgor

Additional features of shock:
- Decreased level of consciousness
- Pale or mottled skin
- Cold extremities
- Weak peripheral pulses
- Prolonged capillary refill (>2s)
- Hypotension

276
Q

When are antibiotics indicate for gastroenteritis?

A
  • Suspected or confirmed septicaemia
  • Extra-intestinal spread of bacterial infection
  • Younger than 6 months with shigella
  • Malnourished/immunocompromised
  • C. diff associated pseudomembranous colitis, cholera, giardiasis, etc.
277
Q

Describe coeliac disease

A
  • Immune-mediated systemic disorder, elicited by gluten (and related products found in wheat, barley, and rye) in genetically susceptible individuals
  • Can present with profound malabsorption at age 8-24 months, but more commonly in later childhood with variable symptoms
  • Sometimes identified at screening of those at risk (T1DM, autoimmune thyroid disease, Downs syndrome)
278
Q

What are the clinical features of coeliac disease?

A
  • Diarrhoea (intermittent or chronic)
  • Other GI symptoms (nausea, vomiting, pain, distention, constipation)
  • Faltering growth or weight loss
  • Delayed puberty
  • Short stature
  • Unexplained and resistant iron-deficiency
  • Unexplained liver disease
  • Arthritis/arthralgia
  • Neuropathy/weakness
  • Osteoporosis/pathological fractures
  • Dermatitis herpetiform
279
Q

What investigations are needed for coeliac disease?

A
  • Serology: IgA anti-tTG, IgA EMA
  • Endoscopic duodenal biopsy: shows enteropathy with short/absent villi (not required if symptomatic + serological evidence)
280
Q

What is the management of coeliac disease?

A
  • Avoidance of all products containing wheat, rye, and barley
  • Adherence to diet for life, results in resolution of symptoms
  • Non-adherence risks nutrient deficiency, osteopenia, bowel malignancy (lymphoma)
281
Q

Describe constipation

A

Extremely common problem, most often between ages 2-4 years, defined as the presence of 2 or more features…
- infrequent passage of stools (<3 per week)
- hard, large stool
- ‘rabbit dropping’ stool
- overflow soiling

Additional features:
- straining, pain, or bleeding with passage of stool
- abdominal pain
- reduced appetite
- history of dehydration or reduced fluid intake

282
Q

What are the red/amber flag features of constipation?

A

Red (urgent referral):
- failure to pass meconium within 24 hours of life (Hirschsprung disease)
- abdominal distention with vomiting (Hirschsprung disease, intestinal obstruction)
- ribbon stool pattern (anal stenosis)
- abnormal lower limb neurology (spinal cord problem)
- abnormality of lumbosacral or gluteal regions e.g. dimple, discoloured, hairy (spina bifida)
- abnormal appearance/position/patency of anus (abnormal anorectal anatomy)
- perianal fistulae, abscesses, fissures (perianal Crohn disease)

Amber (specialist referral):
- faltering growth (hypothyroidism, coeliac disease, etc.)
- tiggered by introduction of cows milk (allergy)

283
Q

What is the management of constipation?

A

Non-pharmacological:
- encourage balanced diet
- adequate oral fluids
- good toileting habits

Pharmacological:
- polyethylene glycol (Movicol)
- stimulant laxatives (senna, sodium picosulphate)
- osmotic laxative (lactulose)

284
Q

Define marasmus and kwashiorkor

A

Severe protein-calorie malnutrition:
- marasmus: wasted and wizened appearance, withdrawn and apathetic, no oedema
- kwashiorkor: intravascular protein depletion causing generalised oedema on top of severe wasting, as well as ‘flaky-paint’ skin rash, distended abdomen, sparse pigmented hair, diarrhoea, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoglycaemia, low electrolytes

285
Q

Define rickets

A
  • Failure in mineralisation of bone tissue and characteristic changes in the growth plates due to vitamin D deficiency and/or calcium/phosphorus deficiency
286
Q

What are the causes of rickets?

A

Nutritional (primary) rickets:
- living in northern latitudes
- dark skin
- decreased exposure to sunlight
- diets low in calcium/vit D (e.g. exclusively breastfed into late infancy)
- extreme prematurity (inadequate phosphate intake in breast milk)
- prolonged parenteral nutrition in infancy

Intestinal malabsorption:
- small bowel enteropathy (e.g. coeliac disease)
- pancreatic insufficiency (e.g. cystic fibrosis)
- cholestatic liver disease

Defective production/breakdown:
- low production of 25-hydroxyvitamin D (chronic liver disease)
- low production of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (chronic kidney disease, fanconi syndrome, inherited disorders)
- increased breakdown (enzyme induction by anticonvulsants)

Hypophosphatemia rickets:
- X-linked or other inherited types
- hypophosphatemia due to primary or secondary tubulopathy
- lack of dietary phosphate

287
Q

What are the clinical features of rickets?

A
  • Poor growth/short stature
  • Softening of the skull vault (craniotabes)
  • Frontal bossing of the skull
  • Palpable costochondral junctions (rachitic rosary)
  • Expansion of metaphases (especially wrist)
  • Bowing of weight-bearing bones
  • Pathological fractures
  • Delayed motor milestones
  • Harrison sulcus (indentation of softened lower ribcage at attachment of diaphragm)
  • Enamel hypoplasia
  • Hypotonia
  • Seizures
288
Q

What investigations are needed for rickets?

A
  • 25-hydroxyvitamin D (low)
  • Calcium (low or normal)
  • Phosphate (low)
  • Alkaline phosphate (high)
  • Parathyroid hormone (high)
  • X-ray of wrist or knee: shows cupping and fraying of metaphases, and widening of growth plate
289
Q

What is the management of rickets?

A
  • Ensure adequate dietary calcium
  • Vitamin D supplementation (daily maintenance dose, or single high dose oral or IM)
  • Correction of predisposing risk factors
290
Q

What are the causes and consequences of fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies (other than D)?

A

A:
- seen in fat malabsorption conditions (e.g. cystic fibrosis), children in low income countries, lacking sources (liver, fish oils, dairy, spinach, carrots)
- causes increased susceptibility to infection, dryness of conjunctiva and cornea, night blindness

E:
- seen in fat malabsorption conditions (e.g. cystic fibrosis), preterm infants, lacking sources (vegetable oils)
- causes haemolytic anaemia, retinopathy, progressive neuropathy

K:
- seen in all newborn infants, fat malabsorption conditions (e.g. cystic fibrosis), lacking sources (green leafy veg, dairy, meats, cereals, vegetable oils)
- causes coagulation abnormalities (bruising/bleeding), haemorrhagic disease of newborn

291
Q

What are the causes and consequences of water-soluble vitamin deficiencies (other than D)?

A

Thiamine (B1):
- seen in malnutrition, children from south east Asia, lack of source (yeast, brown rice, nuts, pulses)
- causes cardiomyopathy in infants, encephalopathy, drowsiness, seizures

B12:
- seen in vegan diets, resection of small intestine, pernicious anaemia, lack of source (animal products, yeast)
- causes megaloblastic anaemia, weakness, paraesthesia, fatigue

C:
- seen in scurvy (lack of fresh fruit and veg), children with restrictive diets or neuro-disability
- causes petechiae, bruising, gingivitis, poor growth, painful joints, impaired wound healing

Folic acid:
- seen in malnutrition, children taking antifolate medications (e.g. methotrexate), or with haemolytic conditions, lack of source (green leafy veg, yeast, liver, fortified breakfast cereals)
- causes macrocytic anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia

292
Q

Define osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • Also known as brittle bone disease, a rare group of inherited disorders of type 1 collagen, causing bone fragility with bowing and frequent fractures
  • Type 1 is most common (60%), autosomal dominant, with fractures during childhood, blue sclerae, cardiac effects, and sometimes hearing loss
  • Type 2 is a severe and lethal with multiple fractures present before birth, many affected infants are stillborn or born with short deformed limbs inheritance is variable but mostly autosomal dominant
293
Q

What is the management of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • Rule out non-accidental injury
  • Bisphosphonates
  • Surgery (intramedullary rods for painful deformities, recurrent fractures, and scoliosis)
  • In-utero mesenchymal stem cell transplant
294
Q

Describe the variations of normal posture, and their differential diagnoses

A
  • Bow legs (normal age 1-3 years): rickets, osteogenesis imperfecta
  • Knock-knees (normal age 2-7 years): juvenile idiopathic arthritis
  • Flat feel (normal age 1-2 years): hypermobility, congenital tarsal fusion
  • In-toeing (normal age 1-2 years): tibial torsion, femoral anteversion
  • Toe-walking (normal age 1-3 years): muscular dystrophy, spastic diplegia, juvenile idiopathic arthritis
295
Q

Describe positional talipes

A
  • Common, caused by intrauterine compression
  • Foot is normal size and position can be corrected by passive manipulation
  • If severe, parents are given passive exercises by physiotherapy
296
Q

Describe talipes equinovarus

A
  • Also known as clubfoot, and is a complex abnormality, most common in boys
  • The foot is inverted, supinated, and in planter flexion, with the heel internally rotated
  • The position cannot be completely corrected, and is often bilateral
  • Can be familial or secondary to oligohydramnios, a feature of malformation syndromes, or a neuromuscular disorder, also associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip
  • Treatment involves early plaster casting and bracing, required for months, with some requiring corrective surgery if severe
297
Q

Define scoliosis

A
  • Lateral curvature in the frontal plane of the spine, with rotation of the vertebral bodies causing a prominence in the back from rib asymmetry
  • Most cases are mild, pain-free, and primarily a cosmetic problem
  • Sever cases can lead to cardiopulmonary compromises, pain, and decreased quality of life
298
Q

What are the causes of scoliosis?

A
  • Idiopathic: most common, onset can be early (<5 years) or usually later (mainly girls during pubertal growth spurt at age 10-14 years)
  • Congenital: from structural defect of the spine e.g. spina bifida, hemivertebra, or VACTERAL anomalies
  • Secondary: related to neuromuscular disorders (e.g. cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy), connective tissue disorders (e.g. Marfan syndrome), leg length discrepancy (e.g. arthritis in one knee)
299
Q

What is the management of scoliosis?

A
  • Mild scoliosis will resolve spontaneously, or have minimal progression
  • In more severe cases, X-rays are used to measure severity and progression, and management includes bracing, and surgery (if severe or coexisting pathology)
300
Q

What are the causes of acute abdominal pain?

A

Surgical:
- acute appendicitis
- intussusception
- malrotation and volvulus
- peritonitis
- inflamed Meckel diverticulum
- inguinal hernia
- trauma
- testicular torsion

Medical:
- non-specific abdominal pain
- constipation
- gastroenteritis
- urinary infection or stones
- DKA
- sickle cell disease
- IBD
- pancreatitis
- hepatitis
- gynaecological
- functional pain disorders

301
Q

Describe acute appendicitis (ages, features)

A
  • Most common cause of abdominal pain requiring surgery
  • May occur at any age but rare under 3 years of age
  • Symptoms: abdominal pain (initially central and colicky, then localised to RIF), vomiting, anorexia
  • Signs: fever, pain worse with movement (walking, coughing, jumping), guarding and rebound tenderness in RIF (McBurney’s point)
  • In preschool children, diagnosis is rare but serious as perforation may be rapid
302
Q

What are the investigations and management of appendicitis?

A
  • Repeated observations as condition is progressive
  • FBC: may show raised white cells
  • USS: may show thickened, non-compressible appendicitis with increased blood flow, or show complications (abscess, perforation, mass)
  • Management: appendicectomy, IV fluids and antibiotics if perforated
303
Q

Define intussusception

A
  • Invagination or telescoping of proximal bowel into a distal segment
  • Commonly involves the ileum passing into the caecum through the ileocecal valve
  • Most common cause of bowel obstruction infants
  • Peak ages of 3 months to 2 years (but can affect any age
  • No underlying cause but may be due to viral infection leading to enlargement of Peyer’s patches
304
Q

What are the clinical features of intussusception?

A
  • Paroxysmal, severe colicky pain
  • Pallor drawing up of legs during episodes of pain, with lethargy afterwards
  • Refusing feeds
  • Vomit (may becoming bile-stained)
  • Palpable sausage-shaped mass
  • Red current jelly stool with blood stained mucus (late sign)
  • Abdominal distention
  • Shock
305
Q

What are the investigations and management for intussusception?

A
  • X-ray: may show distended small bowel and absence of gas in distal colon
  • USS: confirms diagnosis, target/donut sign, also used to check response to treatment
  • Management: immediate fluid resuscitation (fluid pooling in gut leads to hypovolaemic shock), rectal air insufflation, 25% require operative reduction
306
Q

Define Meckel diverticulum

A
  • Common congenital abnormality of the small intestine, caused by remanence of the vitello-intestinal duct
  • Present in 2%, symptomatic in 2%, in ages <2 years, 2 times as common in females
  • Most often contain ectopic gastric mucosa, but may have be pancreatic, jejunal, or colonic
307
Q

What are the clinical features of Meckel diverticulum

A
  • Most are asymptomatic
  • Rectal bleeding (ranging from minimal to large shock-producing, may be bright red, darker, or melaena)
  • Intestinal obstruction (abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation)
  • Diverticulitis (diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, periumbilical tenderness, can mimic appendicitis)
  • Intussusception and volvus may also be present
308
Q

What are the investigations and management for Meckel’s diverticulum?

A
  • Technetium scan demonstrates increased radioactive uptake by ectopic gastric mucosa
  • Otherwise diagnosed by laparotomy
  • Imaging (X-ray/CT) may show diverticulum, intussusception, or volvulus
  • Management: surgical resection
309
Q

Describe malrotation and volvulus

A
  • Malrotation is a congenital abnormality of the midgut, caused by failure of the intestine to ‘rotate’ into the correct position during fetal life, and secure the mesentery in the correct position
  • The small intestine most commonly lies predominantly on the right-hand side, with the caecum in the right upper quadrant
  • A volvulus results from fibrous bands which tether the caecum to the right upper quadrant, allowing the gut to swing and twist more readily, and also causing obstruction
  • Presentation in the first few days of life with bilious vomiting, requiring urgent upper GI contrast study, or laparotomy if vascular compromise
310
Q

What are the causes of recurrent abdominal pain?

A

Functional abdominal pain:
- irritable bowel syndrome
- abdominal migraine
- functional dyspepsia

Gastrointestinal:
- constipation
- peptic ulcers/gastritis
- eosinophilic oesophagitis
- IBD
- malrotation

Hepatic/biliary/pancreatic:
- hepatitis
- gall stones
- pancreatitis

Urinary:
- UTI
- obstruction
- renal calculi

Gynaecological:
- dysmenorrhoea
- ovarian cysts
- PID

311
Q

What are the red flag features of recurrent abdominal pain suggesting organic disease?

A
  • Persistent pain away from umbilicus (e.g. right upper or lower quadrant)
  • Persistent or significant vomiting
  • Epigastric pain at night, and night time waking
  • Haematemesis or other GI bleeding
  • Features of IBD (diarrhoea, weight loss, blood in stools, family history)
  • Dysphagia
  • Dysuria or secondary enuresis
  • Peri-anal disease
  • Faltering growth, delayed puberty, weight loss
  • Unexplained fever
312
Q

What investigations are needed to identify organic causes of recurrent abdominal pain?

A
  • FBC: infection, anaemia
  • CRP/ESR: inflammation
  • Coeliac serology
  • Amylase: pancreatitis
  • U&E, LFTs, TFTs
  • Urinalysis/culture
  • Faecal calprotectin
  • Abdominal ultrasound
313
Q

Describe irritable bowel syndrome

A

Abdominal pain (improved with defecation and associated with change in bowel habits), caused by a combination of…
- visceral hypersensitivity (distention, inflammation, altered microbiome, motility disorder)
- neurological hypervigilance (altered pain processing)
- psychosocial stressors (anxiety, depression, family stress, maltreatment)

314
Q

Describe functional dyspepsia

A
  • May present with epigastric or post-prandial pain/burning, early satiety, bloating, nausea, excessive belching
  • Pain may be induced or relieved by eating, but is not relieved by defecation
315
Q

Describe abdominal migraine

A
  • Paroxysmal episodes of intense periumbilical, midline, or diffuse pain lasting at least an hour, at least twice in 12 months
  • Pain interfering with normal activities, and associated with anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headaches, photophobia, pallor
  • Long periods of normal health with no symptoms between episodes
  • Often personal or family history of migraine, with similar triggers (stress, fatigue, travel) and relieving factors (rest, sleep) to classic migraines
316
Q

What is the management of recurrent abdominal pain?

A
  • Explanation of functional diagnosis
  • Avoiding triggers and psychosocial factors
  • Dietary interventions (e.g. low FODMAP diet)
  • Drug interventions (e.g. antispasmodics for IBS, PPI for functional dyspepsia, anti-migraine medications for abdominal migraine)
  • Behavioural interventions (e.g. hypnotherapy, CBT, relaxation)
317
Q

Define inflammatory bowel disease

A
  • Diagnosis in children has markedly increased in last few decades, with Chron’s disease more common
  • Thought to be causes by a complex interplay between genetics, but microbiome, and mucosal immunity
318
Q

Describe the clinical features of Chron’s disease

A

Classical presentation:
- abdominal pain
- diarrhoea (+/- blood)
- weight loss

Other features:
- growth failure
- delayed puberty
- lethargy
- extra-intestinal (oral or anal lesions, uveitis, arthralgia, erythema nodosum)

319
Q

What are the investigations and management for Chron’s disease?

A
  • Blood tests: raised CRP, iron-deficiency anaemia, low serum albumin
  • Stool sample: raised faecal calprotectin
  • Endoscopy and biopsy for histology shows discontinuous, transmural inflammation containing granulomas (diagnostic)

Management:
- remission induced with nutritional therapy (normal diet replaced by whole protein modular feeds (polymeric diet)
- systemic steroids required if ineffective
- maintenance requires immunosuppressants (e.g. azathioprine, methotrexate), or anti-TNF (infliximab) if ineffective
- surgery may be required for severe localised unresponsive disease, or complications (obstruction, fistulae, abscess)

320
Q

What are the clinical features of ulcerative colitis?

A

Typical presentation:
- rectal bleeding
- diarrhoea

Others:
- lethargy
- weight loss and growth failure (less common than Chron’s)
- extraintestinal complications (arthritis, erythema nodosum etc.)

321
Q

What are the investigations and management for ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Blood tests: raised CRP, iron-deficiency anaemia, low serum albumin
  • Stool sample: raised faecal calprotectin
  • Endoscopy and biopsy for histology shows continuous mucosal inflammation with crypts, most often affecting the whole colon (pancolitis)

Management:
- aminoacylates (e.g. mesalazine)are used for induction and maintenance therapy
- topical steroids may be used if disease is confined to the rectum
- more aggressive disease requires systemic steroids and immunosuppressants (e.g. azathioprine)
- resistant or severe sudden onset disease my require surgery (colectomy with ileostomy)

322
Q

Define Hirschsprung disease

A
  • The absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells from the myenteric and sub-mucosal plexuses the large bowel, resulting in narrow and contracted segment (unable to relax)
  • The abnormal bowel extends from the rectum for a variable distance proximally, ending in a normal distal colon
  • Most are diagnosed in the neonatal period, more common in boys
323
Q

What are the clinical features of Hirschsprung’s disease?

A
  • Neonatal period: failure to pass meconium within first 48hrs, abdominal distention, repeated vomiting
  • Older infants and children: chronic constipation, overflow incontinence, abdominal dissention, early satiety, poor weight gain
  • Enterocolitis: develops at any age, abdominal pain, fever, offensive/bloody diarrhoea, vomiting, can lead to sepsis, necrosis, perforation
324
Q

What are the investigations needed for Hirschsprung’s disease

A
  • Imaging: plain X-ray may show obstruction, double-contrast barium enema may show a markedly dilated proximal colon and narrowed distal colon
  • Anorectal manometry: failure of relaxation of the internal anal sphincter in response to inflation of rectal balloon
  • Rectal biopsy: definitive diagnosis by suction biopsy, histology shows absence of ganglion cells
325
Q

What is the management of Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Acute problems…
- obstruction: IV fluids, gastric/intestinal decompression with NG tube or enemas
- enterocolitis: broad-spectrum antibiotics and IV fluids

Surgical management…
- usually involves initial colostomy, followed by anastomosis of normally innervated bowel to the anus

326
Q

What are the chromosomal anomalies in Down’s, Patau, and Edwards syndromes?

A
  • Down syndrome: trisomy 21,ocuurs in 1.5 per 1000 live births
  • Patau syndrome: trisomy 13, occurs in 1 in 14,000 live births
  • Edwards syndrome: trisomy 18, occurs in 1 in 8000 live births
327
Q

Describe the inheritance of Down syndrome

A

Meiotic nondisjunction (94%):
- chromosome 21 pair fails to separate in meiosis, so that one gamete has two chromosome 21s
- fertilisation results in trisomy 21
- associated with increased maternal age

Translocation (5%):
- when the extra chromosome 21 fuses with another (usually 14, but occasionally 15, 21, or 22), known as Robertsonian translocation
- parents may carry this translocation in a balanced form (25%of cases), which gives a higher risk of recurrence

Mosaicism (1%):
- some cells are normal and some have trisomy 21, sometimes giving a a milder phenotype
- usually occurs by nondisjunction at mitosis after formation of a normal zygote

328
Q

What are the clinical features of Down syndrome?

A
  • Characteristic facial features (round face, flat nasal bridge, short neck, protruding tongue, upslanted eyes
  • Single palmer creases
  • Wide ‘sandal gap’ between first and second toes
  • Hypotonia
  • Congenital heart defects
  • Duodenal atresia
  • Delayed motor milestones
  • Learning difficulties
  • Short stature
  • Hearing and/or visual impairment
  • Increased risk of infection, hypothyroidism, coeliac disease, leukaemia
  • Obstructive sleep apnoea
  • Early-onset Alzheimer disease
329
Q

Describe the antenatal testing for Down syndrome

A

Combined test:
- between 11-13+6 weeks
- nuchal translucency (thickened), serum B-HCG (raised), PAPP-A (low)
- results are ‘higher/lower chance’

Quadruple test:
- between 15-20 weeks
- alpha-fetoprotein (low), unconjugated oestriol (low), HCG (raised), inhibin A (raised)
- results are ‘higher/lower chance’

Non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT):
- if a woman has a ‘higher chance’ they are offered a second screening with NIPT
- analyses cell free fetal DNA (cffDNA) that circulate the mothers blood
- gives high sensitivity and specificity for trisomy 21

Diagnostic testing:
- amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
- chromosomal analysis

330
Q

What are the clinical features of Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)?

A
  • Structural defect of the brain
  • Scalp defects
  • Small eyes and other eye defects
  • Cleft lip and palate
  • Polydactyly
  • Cardiac and renal malformations
331
Q

What are the clinical features of Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)?

A
  • Low birthweight
  • Prominent occiput
  • Small mouth and chin
  • Short sternum
  • Flexed, overlapping fingers
  • ‘Rocker-bottom’ feet
  • Cardiac and renal malformations
332
Q

How are Patau and Edwards syndromes diagnosed?

A
  • Combined test (thickened nuchal translucency, low PAPP-A, low HCG)
  • Quadruple test (Edwards = low alpha-fetoprotein, low unconjugated oestriol, low HCG, low/high inhibin A
  • NIPT
333
Q

Describe the chromosomal abnormality of Turner syndrome

A
  • 50% of girls have 45 chromosomes, with only one X chromosome
  • The other cases have a deletion of the short arm of one X chromosome
  • Occurs in 1 in 2500 live births
  • Incidence does not increase with maternal age, recurrence risk is very low
334
Q

What are the clinical feature of Turner syndrome?

A
  • usually results in early miscarriage (95%)
  • Lymphoedema or hands and feet in neonate (may persist)
  • Short stature
  • Neck webbing or thick neck
  • Widely spaced nipples
  • Congenital heart defects (particularly coarctation of the aorta)
  • Delayed puberty
  • Ovarian dysgenesis (resulting in infertility)
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Renal anomalies
  • Recurrent otitis media
  • Normal intellect in most cases
335
Q

What is the management of Turner syndrome?

A
  • Growth hormone therapy
  • Oestrogen replacement for development of secondary sexual characteristics
  • IVF using egg donor
336
Q

What is the chromosomal anomaly in Klinefelter syndrome?

A
  • 47, XXY
  • Males with extra X chromosome
  • Occurs in 1-2 per 1000 live births
337
Q

What are the different forms of disorders of chromosome structures?

A
  • Deletions: usually results n physical abnormalities and cognitive impairment
  • Duplications: also lead to congenital malformations and intellectual impairment but often better tolerated than deletions
  • Translocations: can be balanced (common with no phenotypical effect) or unbalanced (loss/gain of overall amount of chromosomal material, impairment of physical and cognitive development)
338
Q

Describe some microdeletion syndromes

A

Cri du Chat syndrome:
- 5q microdeletion
- high pitched cry/voice, hypotonia, microcephaly, intellectual disability

DiGeorge syndrome:
- 22q11.2 microdeletion
- abnormal facies, cleft palate, cardiac anomalies, immune dysfunction, intellectual disability

Williams syndrome:
- 7q11 microdeletion
- characteristic facies, transient neonatal hypercalcaemia, supraclavicular aortic stenosis, short stature, learning difficulties

339
Q

List some examples of autosomal dominant disorders

A
  • Achondroplasia
  • Familial hypercholesterolaemia
  • Huntington’s disease
  • Marfan syndrome
  • Myotonic dystrophy
  • Neurofibromatosis
  • Noonan syndrome
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta (most forms)
  • Tuberous sclerosis
340
Q

List some examples of autosomal recessive disorders

A
  • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Friedreich ataxia
  • Glycogen storage diseases
  • Sickle cell disease
  • Tay-Sachs disease
  • Thalassaemia
341
Q

List some examples of X-linked recessive disorders

A
  • Colour blindness
  • Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophies
  • Fragile X syndrome
  • G6PD deficiency
  • Haemophilia A and B
342
Q

Describe trinucleotide repeat expansion mutations

A
  • A class of unstable mutations consisting of expansions of a trinucleotide sequences
  • Examples include fragile X syndrome, myotonic dystrophy, Huntington’s disease, Friedrich ataxia
  • The disorders exhibit anticipation, which is where the mutation can expands with subsequent generations, resulting in more severe disease
  • Mutations can be within the coding sequence of the gene so gives a gain of proteins/function (e.g. Huntington’s), or in other regions leading to loss of protein/function
343
Q

Describe fragile X syndrome

A
  • X linked inheritance of trinucleotide repeat in the long arm of the X chromosome
  • Males can be unaffected but transmit the condition to their grandsons (due to anticipation)
  • Female carriers may also have learning difficulties (usually mild-moderate)
344
Q

What are the clinical features of fragile X syndrome?

A
  • Moderate-severe learning difficulties
  • Macrocephaly
  • Macroorchidism (post-pubertal)
  • Characteristic facies (long face, large everted ears, prominent mandible, broad forehead)
  • Other features: mitral valve prolapse, joint laxity, scoliosis, neurodivergence
345
Q

Describe imprinting and the inheritance of Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes

A
  • When the expression of a gene is influenced by the sex of the parent who transmitted it
  • Failure to inherit a functioning paternal copy of the chromosomal region 15q11-13 results in Prader-Willi syndrome
  • Failure to inherit a functioning maternal copy of the chromosomal region 15q11-13 results in Angelman syndrome
  • This condition may occur due to de novo deletions, uniparental disomy (inheriting 2 copies from one parent), or from specific point mutations which cause Angelman syndrome
346
Q

What are the clinical features of Prader-Willi syndrome?

A
  • Characteristic facies (narrow face, almond eyes)
  • Hypotonia
  • Hypogonadism
  • Neonatal feeding difficulties
  • Faltering growth
  • Hyperphagia and obesity in later life
  • Developmental delays
  • Learning difficulties
347
Q

What are the clinical features of Angelman syndrome?

A
  • Severe developmental delay
  • Microcephaly
  • Frequent seizures
  • Sleep disorders
  • Speech impairment
  • Behavioural changes (frequent laughter and smiling, hyper-motor activities)
  • Motor disturbances (ataxia, tremor, strabismus)
  • Prominent mandible with wide mouth
348
Q

Describe cow’s milk protein allergy (cause, features, investigations, management)

A
  • Most common allergic disorder, usually in first year of life
  • Can be IgE mediated or non-IgE mediated, or both
  • More likely in children who have other atopic conditions, and the allergy is often more severe if these started earlier or are poorly controlled
349
Q

What are the clinical features of cow’s milk protein allergy?

A

Skin reactions:
- itching
- erythema
- urticaria
- angio-oedema

Abdominal symptoms:
- colicky pain
- nausea
- vomiting
- diarrhoea or constipation
- reflux

Respiratory symptoms:
- nasal itching
- sneezing
- rhinorrhoea
- cough
- wheeze

350
Q

What is the investigation needed for cow’s milk allergy?

A
  • IgE mediated allergies are diagnosed with a skin prick or blood test (measuring specific IgE antibodies)
  • There is no test for non-IgE mediated allergies
351
Q

What is the management of cow’s milk protein allergy?

A

Avoidance of allergen:
- formula fed babies can be given hydrolysed milk or amino acid formula
- breast feeding mothers must eliminate milk products from her diet
- children being weaned with persistent allergy need to follow a cow’s milk-free diet
- alternative milks (almond, oat, coconut) may be used after the age of 1 (soya id also a common allergen)

Other treatments:
- antihistamines can be used to treat the symptoms of IgE mediated allergy
- challenge tests (gradual exposure to milk-containing foods)
- immunotherapy (for persisting severe allergy)

352
Q

Describe jaundice in a newborn

A
  • Physiological jaundice in newborns is common, and 90% resolve in 2 weeks (or 3 weeks if preterm)
  • Prolonged/persistent jaundice requires investigation to distinguish unconjugated (caused by breastmilk, infection, haemolytic anaemia, hypothyroid, upper GI obstruction) or conjugated (caused by biliary obstruction, neonatal hepatitis syndrome, intrahepatic biliary hypoplasia)
353
Q

Describe biliary atresia (cause, features, investigations, management)

A
  • Progressive fibrosis and obstruction of the extrahepatic and intrahepatic biliary tract
  • Chronic liver failure and death within 2 years develops without intervention
  • Clinical features: mild jaundice, pale stools, faltering growth, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly (later)
  • Investigations: raised conjugated bilirubin, raised GGT, abnormal LFTs, contracted or absent gall bladder on USS, diagnosed by cholangiogram
  • Management: surgery to bypass fibrotic ducts and allow bile drainage, or liver transplant
354
Q

Describe choledochal cysts

A
  • A type of biliary obstruction caused by congenital dilation of part or all of the bile duct
  • Can be detected on antenatal ultrasound, or present as neonate, or older children
  • Often asymptomatic, but clinical feature may include jaundice, abdominal pain, palpable mass, and complications of cholangitis or pancreatitis
  • Investigations: raised conjugated bilirubin, abnormal LFTs, diagnosed by USS or MRCP
  • Management: surgical excision of cysts with anastomoses to bile duct due to risk of malignancy
355
Q

What are the causes of neonatal hepatitis syndrome?

A
  • Congenital hepatitis infection
  • Inborn errors of metabolism
  • Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
  • Galactosaemia
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Progressive familial intrahepatic cholestasis
356
Q

Describe alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

A
  • Autosomal recessive disorder, caused by abnormal folding of the protease alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • Accumulation of the protein in the liver causes liver disease, and lack of circulating protein results in emphysema in adults
  • Clinical presentation: prolonged neonatal jaundice, or bleeding due to vitamin K deficiency, hepatomegaly
  • Management: liver transplant if causing liver failure
357
Q

Define acute liver failure

A
  • Development of hepatic and necrosis with subsequent loss of liver failure, with or without hepatic encephalopathy
  • Most are caused by infection or metabolic conditions
358
Q

What are the clinical features of acute liver failure?

A

Presentation may be within hours or weeks…
- jaundice
- encephalopathy (irritability, confusion, drowsiness)
- coagulopathy
- hypoglycaemia
- electrolyte disturbances
- complications of cerebral oedema, haemorrhage (from gastritis/coagulopathy), sepsis, pancreatitis

359
Q

What is the management of acute liver failure?

A
  • Treat cause
  • Maintain blood glucose
  • Prevent sepsis with broad spectrum antibiotics
  • Prevent haemorrhage (particularly for GI tract) with vitamin K and PPI
  • Prevent cerebral oedema with fluid restriction and mannitol diuresis
  • Liver transplant
360
Q

What are the causes of daytime enuresis

A
  • Lack of attention to bladder sensation (manifestation of development or behavioural problem)
  • Detrusor instability (sudden urge to void induced by sudden bladder contractions)
  • Bladder neck weakness
  • Neuropathic bladder (enlarged and fails to empty properly, irregular thick wall, associated with neurological conditions)
  • UTI
  • Constipation
  • Ectopic ureter (causes constant dribbling)
361
Q

Define nocturnal enuresis

A
  • Involuntary passage of urine while asleep, more often than 2 nights/week
  • More common in boys
  • Infrequent bedwetting is common in children
362
Q

What is the management of primary nocturnal enuresis?

A
  • Fluid restriction at least 2 hours before bed time
  • Encouraging child to empty bladder before bed
  • Enuresis alarm (wakes child and parent if wet, to prompt going to the toilet and remaking wet bed)
  • Desmopressin (ADH analogue, used if alarm is unsuccessful, or for short term relief e.g. holidays)
363
Q

Describe secondary nocturnal enuresis

A

The loss of previously achieved urinary continence may be due to…
- emotional upset or stress
- UTI
- polyuria from osmotic diuresis in diabetes or chronic kidney disease

364
Q

What are the investigations needed for nocturnal enuresis?

A

Only indicated if secondary enuresis, symptoms during the day, accompanied by disruptive urgency and frequency, features of infection, or diabetes…
- urinalysis for signs of infection, glycosuria, proteinuria
- urinary osmolarity (testing concentration)
- ultrasound of renal tract

365
Q

Define hypospadias

A

Failure of development of ventral closure of tissues of the penis, typically with 3 features (but variable occurrence)…
- abnormal site of urethral meatus (often distal shaft or glans penis)
- ventral curvature of the shaft of the penis (more apparent with erection)
- hooded appearance of foreskin (ventral foreskin deficiency)

366
Q

What is the management of hypospadias?

A
  • Surgery (for functional or cosmetic reasons)
  • Infants with hypospadias must not be circumcised to preserve tissue for reconstruction
  • Surgical complications include breakdown of the repair, or meatal narrowing
367
Q

Define phimosis

A
  • Phimosis describes a non-retractile foreskin, which is physiological before the age of 2
  • Phimosis is not a problem unless it causes difficulties such as urinary obstruction, haematuria, recurrent UTIs, or local pain
  • Pathological phimosis can also occur, usually due to infection leading to scarring in a progressive cycle (balanoposthitis xerotica obliterans)
  • Management options for phimosis that is persistent or causing complications are circumcision or plastic surgery
368
Q

Define paraphimosis

A
  • An irreducible retracted foreskin, occurring when a tight prepuce is retracted and the unable to be replaced as the glans swells
  • This is a urological emergency and requires urgent reduction, which may require anaesthetic
369
Q

Describe undescended testes

A
  • Most undescended testes happen due to arrest of the testis along its normal pathway of decent
  • Present in up to 5% of newborns, more common in preterms, and in 1% by 3 months
  • The undescended testis my be palpable in the groin and may be coaxed along the line of the inguinal canal, or not able to be moved
  • An ectopic testis may be felt in superficial inguinal pouch, or suprapubic, perineal, femoral
  • A non-palpable undescended testis may be in the inguinal canal, intrabdominal, or absent
  • A retractile testis may sometimes be obvious in the scrotum (when warm/relaxed), but the cremaster muscle pulls the testis into the inguinal canal (can be manipulated back down)
370
Q

What is the management for undescended testes?

A
  • Undescended testis should be diagnosed on the routine NIPE
  • If there is a unilateral undescended testes still present at 3 months, referral for surgery is needed
  • Orchidopexy is the surgical placement of the testis in the scrotum, performer within the first year of life
  • Laparoscopy is needed for non-palpable testis
  • Benefits include: cosmetic appearance, reduces risk of torsion/trauma, improves fertility, allows for self-examination
  • Bilateral non-palpable testis require genetic evaluation
371
Q

Describe testicular torsion (ages, features, management)

A
  • Most common in pre-pubertal boys, but can happen at any age including newborns
  • Clinical features: pain (may be in scrotum, groin, abdomen), redness and oedema of scrotal skin
  • Management: surgical correction, with fixation of the other testis (if delayed can lead to testicular loss)
372
Q

Describe inguinal hernia (ages, cause, features, management)

A
  • Common, occurring in 5% of boys and more in preterms
  • Usually caused by a persistent patent processus vaginalis, where the bowel emerges from the deep inguinal ring through the inguinal canal (indirect hernia)
  • Clinical features: lump in the groin, may extend into the scrotum/labium, may be intermittent (visible with straining/coughing) usually asymptomatic
  • May become irreducible (incarcerated), which can cause pain, intestinal obstruction, damage of testis due to oedema/venous obstruction
  • Most can be treated with gentle compression to achieve reduction, with surgery to close the internal inguinal ring performed later
  • Incarcerated hernias require emergency due to risk of compromise to the bowel, testis, or ovary
373
Q

Define congenital hypothyroidism

A
  • Common condition (1 in 3000 births)
  • Screened for in universal neonatal blood spot test
  • Preventable cause of severe learning difficulties and growth restriction
374
Q

What are the causes of congenital hypothyroidism?

A
  • Thyroid agenesis (most common)
  • Maldescent of the thyroid
  • Inborn error of thyroid hormone synthesis (autosomal recessive)
  • Maternal iodine deficiency
  • Isolated TSH deficiency
  • Secondary causes (rare pituitary abnormalities)
375
Q

What are the clinical features of congenital hypothyroidism?

A
  • Usually symptomatic
  • Reduced feeding
  • Faltering growth
  • Prolonged jaundice
  • Constipation
  • Pale, cold, dry, mottled skin
  • Coarse facies, large tongue
  • Hoarse cry
  • Goitre (occasionally)
  • Umbilical hernia
  • Delayed development
376
Q

What is the management of congenital hypothyroidism?

A
  • Thyroxine, before 2 weeks of age
  • Replacement is life long, with dose titration to maintain normal growth, TSH, and T4 levels
377
Q

Describe acquired hypothyroidism

A
  • Usually caused by autoimmune thyroiditis
  • Increased risk with Down syndrome, Turner syndrome, or other autoimmune conditions
  • More common in females
  • Treated with thyroxine
378
Q

What are the clinical features of acquired hypothyroidism?

A
  • Cold intolerance
  • Constipation
  • Delayed puberty/amenorrhoea
  • Poor concentration
  • Learning difficulties
  • Reduced growth rate/short stature
  • Unexpected weight gain
  • Goitre
  • Thin, dry hair/skin
  • Pale, puffy eyes
  • Bradycardia
  • Slow-relaxing reflexes
379
Q

Describe growth hormone deficiency (cause, investigations, treatment)

A
  • Can be an isolated growth hormone deficiency, or have a congenital (structural, defects, pituitary hypoplasia) or acquired (brain tumour, irradiation, trauma, infection) cause
  • Investigations: low levels of insulin like growth factor (IGF1), delayed bone age, growth hormone provocation test (fails to rise after stimulation with insulin)
  • Treatment: recombinant growth hormone, given as daily s/c injections, also used in Turner syndrome, CKD, SHOX deficiency, and children born small for gestational age
380
Q

Define early puberty

A

The development of puberty before he age of 8 in girls and 9 in boys, in the following patterns
- thelarche (early breast development)
- adrenarche (early pubic hair development)
- gonadotrophin-dependent precocious puberty
- isolated premature menarche

381
Q

Describe premature thelarche

A
  • Usually affects girls between 6 months ad 2 years
  • Breast enlargement may be asymmetrical and fluctuate in size
  • Differentiated from precocious puberty due to absence of other features of puberty or significant growth spurts
  • It is non-progressive and self-limiting, and does not require investigations
  • High maternal levels of prolactin can cause newborn babies to have breast buds and even lactate (self-resolves in days)
382
Q

Describe precocious puberty in girls

A

Fairly common as the ovaries are very sensitive to gonadotrophin secretion, but pathological causes can be due to…
- gonadotrophin-dependent - premature activation of HPG axis, or change in the structure of the pituitary gland (e.g. trauma, cerebral palsy, pituitary adenoma), where the sequence of development is normal
- gonadotropin independent - excess sex steroids produced outside of the pituitary gland (e.g. androgens from CAH, adrenal/ovarian/testicular tumours, where pubic and axillary hair, body odour, and virilisation occurs before breast development

383
Q

Describe precocious puberty in boys

A
  • The testes are relatively insensitive to gonadotrophins, so gonadotrophin dependent causes are rare
  • Bilateral enlargement of the tests with volumes >4ml suggests gonadotrophin-dependent cause (due to change in structure of pituitary gland e.g. tumour)
  • Prepubertal testes suggests a gonadotrophin-independent causes e.g. adrenal pathology
384
Q

What is the management of precocious puberty?

A
  • Detection and treatment of any underlying pathology
  • Reducing rate of skeletal maturation as early growth spurt results in early cessation of growth and reduction in adult height
  • Delaying onset of menarche
  • Achieved using GnRH agonists (in gonadotrophin-dependent causes)
385
Q

Define delayed puberty

A
  • Absence of pubertal development by age 13 in girls and 14 in boys
  • More common than early puberty in boys due to relative insensitivity of the testes to gonadotrophins, normally due to constitutional delay rather than pathological condition
  • Less common in girls, and pathological causes should be excluded
386
Q

What are the causes of delayed puberty?

A

Constitutional delay of growth and puberty:
- familial associations
- most common cause in boys

Low gonadotrophin secretion: (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism)
- systemic disorders (cystic fibrosis, severe asthma, IBD, eating disorders, starvation, excessive exercise)
- pituitary dysfunction
- isolated gonadotrophin deficiency
- intracranial tumours
- Kallmann syndrome (LH-releasing deficiency associated with absent sense of smell)
- acquired hypothyroidism

Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism:
- chromosomal abnormalities (Klinefelter XXY, Tuner X0)
- acquire gonadal damage (surgery, trauma, chemo/radiotherapy, autoimmune disorder)

387
Q

What is the management of delayed puberty?

A
  • Identify and treat any underlying pathology
  • Induce puberty and accelerate growth using IM low-dose testosterone for boys, and oestradiol for girls
388
Q

What are the causes of adrenal insufficiency

A

Primary:
- congenital adrenal hyperplasia
- autoimmune (Addison disease)
- haemorrhage/infarction
- tuberculosis
- x-linked adrenoleukodystrophy

Secondary:
- long term steroid use

389
Q

What are the clinical features of adrenal insufficiency?

A
  • Hypotension (postural)
  • Hyponatraemia
  • Dehydration or hypovolaemic shock
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Hyperkalaemia
  • Vomiting
  • Lethargy
  • Pigmentation (of gums, scars, skin creases)
390
Q

What are the investigations and management of adrenal insufficiency?

A
  • Investigations: low plasma cortisol, high plasma ACTH, confirmed with ACTH (synacthen) test where cortisol remains low
  • Management of adrenal crisis: urgent IV 0.9% saline, glucose, hydrocortisone
  • Long term management: glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement, with ‘stress dose’ at times of illness, trauma, surgery etc.
391
Q

Define congenital adrenal hyperplasia (cause, diagnosis)

A
  • Most common non-iatrogenic cause of insufficient cortisol and mineralocorticoid secretion
  • Caused by a number of autosomal recessive disorders, with most having a deficiency in the enzyme 21-hydroxylase, which prevents cortisol and aldosterone biosynthesis
  • Diagnosis is made by finding raised levels of the precursor 17a-hydroxyprogesterone, and biochemical abnormalities or low sodium, high potassium, metabolic acidosis, hypoglycaemia
392
Q

What are the clinical features of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A
  • Female infants: virilisation of external genitalia (clitoral hypertrophy, variable fusion of labia)
  • Male infants: enlarged penis, pigmented scrotum
  • Salt-loosing adrenal crisis: at 1-3 weeks of age, more common in boys vomiting, weight loss, hypotonia, circulatory collapse
  • Tall stature, muscular build, body odour. pubic hair, acne, menstrual disorders (in non-salt losers)
393
Q

What is the management of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A
  • Lifelong glucocorticoids (e.g. hydrocortisone)
  • Mineralocorticoids (e.g. fludrocortisone) if there is salt loss (may need added sodium chloride)
  • Monitoring of growth, bone age, plasma androgens, and 17a-hydroxy-progesterone (insufficient hormone replacement will increase ACTH secretion and lead to androgen excess, causing rapid initial growth at the expense of final height, but excessive hormonal replacement results in skeletal delay)
  • Additional hormonal replacement to cover illness or surgery
  • Urgent treatment of salt-loosing crisis with IV sodium chloride, glucose, and hydrocortisone
  • Girls may have corrective surgery to their eternal genitalia
394
Q

Describe Cushing syndrome (cause, features, investigations, management)

A
  • Cushing syndrome is glucocorticoid excess usually due to long-term glucocorticoid treatment
  • Non-iatrogenic causes are extremely rare, but may be due to pituitary or adrenal tumours
  • Clinical features: reduced growth rate, short stature, face and trunk obesity, hypertension, osteopenia, muscle weakening, insulin resistance, striae
  • Investigations: high early-morning plasma and 24hr urinary cortisol, positive dexamethasone suppression test (failure to supress morning plasma cortisol after night time dex)
  • Management: taking systemic corticosteroids in the morning on alternate days, or treating source (surgical resection of tumour)
395
Q

What are the causes of disorder of sexual development?

A
  • Excessive androgens producing virilisation in a 46XX female (most commonly in congenital adrenal hyperplasia)
  • Gonadotrophin insufficiency (seen in Prader-Willi syndrome and congenital pituitary dysfunction, resulting in small penis and undescended testes)
  • Inadequate androgen action producing undervirilisaition in a 46XY male (due to partial or complete androgen insufficiency, abnormalities in the synthesis of androgens from cholesterol, or inability to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone
  • Ovotesticular disorder of sexual development (caused by both XX and XY cells present, leading to development of both testicular and ovarian tissues)
396
Q

Define obesity

A
  • The most common nutritional disorder affecting children and adolescence in high-income countries
  • BMI is expressed as a centile in relation to age and sex matched populations
  • Overweight = over 91st centile
  • Obese = over 98th centile
397
Q

What are the complications or childhood obesity?

A
  • Orthopaedic (slipped upper femoral epiphysis, bowed legs, abnormal foot structure and function)
  • Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (headaches, blurred optic disc margins)
  • Hypoventilation syndrome (sleep apnoea, snoring, hypercapnia, heart failure)
  • Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
  • Type 2 diabetes
  • Hypertension
  • Abnormal blood lipids
  • PCOS
  • Gall bladder disease
  • Psychological factors (low self-esteem, bullying, depression)
398
Q

What are the causes of childhood obesity?

A
  • Nutrition (energy-dense foods, sugar-sweetened drinks, high-fat fast food, processed food)
  • Behaviour (less exercise in and out of school, more time on screens, less time playing outside)
  • Endogenous (hypothyroidism, Cushing syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome
399
Q

Describe necrotising enterocolitis (cause, risk factors, presentation, investigations, treatment)

A
  • Thought to be due to ischemic injury, bacterial invasion of the bowel wall, and altered gut microbiome
  • Mostly seen in preterms in the first few weeks of life, higher risk in IUGR, antenatal reversed end diastolic flow, perinatal asphyxia
  • Presentation: feed intolerance, vomiting, abdominal distention and skin discolouration, bloody stools, shock, may progress to bowel perforation
  • Investigations: X-ray shows distended bowel loops and thickening of bowel wall with intramural gas
  • Treatment: stop oral feeding, parenteral nutrition, broad spectrum antibiotics, may need mechanical ventilation
400
Q

Describe bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A
  • Infants who still have an oxygen requirement at a post-menstrual age of 36 weeks
  • Caused by lung damage from a delay in lung maturation, or trauma from artificial ventilation/oxygen/infection
  • Chest X-ray shows widespread opacification, sometimes cystic changes
  • Treatment: prolonged artificial ventilation, or weaning onto CPAP or high-flow nasal cannula, corticosteroids (only for high risk as concerns about neurodevelopment)
401
Q

Describe meconium aspiration (cause, complications, treatment)

A
  • Some babies pass meconium before birth, occurs increasingly with greater gestational age (up to 25% at 42 weeks), may be due to fetal hypoxia
  • Meconium is a ling irritant and causes mechanical obstruction and chemical pneumonitis, and predisposes to infection
  • The lungs are overinflated, with patches of collapse and consolidation, and potential pneumothorax and pneumomediastinum
  • Treatment involves high-pressure ventilation, which may not achieve adequate oxygenation, due to persistent pulmonary hypertension
402
Q

Describe diaphragmatic hernia

A
  • Mostly diagnosed on ultrasound screening, or presents in the newborn period with failure of resuscitation or severe respiratory distress
  • In most cases, there is left-sided herniation of abdominal contents through the diaphragm, displacing the apex beat and heart sounds to the right, and giving poor air entry on the left
  • Diagnosis is confirmed on X-ray
  • Treatment: NG tube and suction used to prevent distension of the intrathoracic bowel, surgical repair
  • Complications: pulmonary hypoplasia, leading to pulmonary hypertension,
403
Q

What are TORCH infections?

A

A group of infectious diseases that can be passed from mother to baby during pregnancy, and can cause congenital disorders…
- toxoplasmosis
- others (varicella zoster virus, parvovirus B19, HIV, syphilis, hepatitis B)
- rubella
- cytomegalovirus
- herpes

404
Q

What are the clinical features of neonatal sepsis?

A
  • Respiratory distress
  • Fever or temperature instability or hypothermia
  • Poor feeding
  • Vomiting
  • Apnoea
  • Bradycardia
  • Abdominal distention
  • Jaundice
  • Neutropenia
  • Hypoglycaemia/hyperglycaemia
  • Shock
  • Seizures
  • Lethargy/drowsiness
  • Irritability
405
Q

Describe the causes of hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy

A

Brain damage caused by decreased perfusion to the brain, because of compromised cardiac output due to perinatal asphyxia, due to…
- failure of gas exchange across placenta (excessive/prolonged contraction, placental abruption)
- interruption of umbilical cord flow (cord compression, shoulder dystocia, cord prolapse)
- inadequate maternal placental perfusion (maternal hypotension or hypertension)
- compromised foetus (IUGR, anaemia)
- failure of cardiorespiratory adaption at birth (failure to breathe)

406
Q

Describe the clinical features of hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy

A
  • Mild: irritability, hyperventilation, excessive response to stimulation
  • Moderate: abnormal movements, hypotonia, cannot suck, brief apnoea, seizures
  • Severe: no spontaneous movement or response to pain, hypotonia, prolonged seizures, multi-organ failure
407
Q

What is the management of hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy?

A
  • Respiratory support
  • Anticonvulsants for seizures
  • Monitoring and treatment for hypoglycaemia and electrolyte imbalances
  • Therapeutic hypothermia (33-35 degrees for 72 hours, within 6 hours of birth, to lower risk of neurodevelopmental problems)
408
Q

Describe the causes and presentation of neonatal hypoglycaemia

A
  • No exact definition, but most use (<2.6 mmol/L)
  • Likely in the first 24 hours of life in babies with IUGR, preterm, maternal diabetes, large-for-dates, hypothermic, or ill for any reason
  • Caused by poor glycogen stores (growth-restricted or preterms), or increased insulin from hyperplasia of islet cells (maternal diabetes)
  • Presentation: jitteriness, irritability, apnoea, lethargy, drowsiness, seizures
409
Q

What is the management for neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A
  • <2.6 mmol/L: encourage normal feeding and recheck levels
  • <2 mmol/L: dextrose gel to the mouth, recheck levels after 30 mins
  • <1 mmol/L or <2 with symptoms: IV infusion of 10% dextrose
410
Q

Describe oesophageal atresia (definition, associations, presentation, treatment)

A
  • Congenital malformation characterised by discontinuity of the oesophagus with a tracheal fistula in most cases
  • Associated with chromosomal abnormalities (trisomy 13, 18, 21), VACTERAL syndrome, and other GI defects
  • May present antenatally with polyhydramnios and absent stomach bubble, or postnatally with inability to feed, respiratory distress, persistent salivations, aspiration of acid secretions, saliva, or milk into the lungs
  • Treatment: continuous suction of the oesophageal pouch to reduce aspiration, pending surgical correction
411
Q

Describe neonatal small bowel obstruction (causes, presentation, treatment)

A
  • May be identified with antenatal ultrasound screening
  • Postnatal presentation includes persistent vomiting (usually bile stained), delayed or absent passage of meconium (after initially normal), abdominal distention (more prominent with more distal obstruction)
  • Caused by atresia or stenosis of the duodenum, jejunum, or ileum, malrotation with volvulus, meconium ileus
  • Diagnosis is made using X-ray (e.g. double bubble sign in duodenal atresia)
  • Treatment: correction of fluid and electrolyte depletions, surgery
412
Q

What are the causes of neonatal large bowel obstruction?

A
  • Meconium plug (usually passes spontaneously)
  • Hirschsprung disease (due to absence of myenteric nerve plexus)
  • Anorectal malformations (due to imperforate anus)
413
Q

Define exomphalos and gastroschisis

A
  • Gastrointestinal abnormalities, often diagnosed on antenatally ultrasound screening
  • Exomphalos: abdominal contents protrudes through the umbilical ring covered with a transparent sac formed by the amniotic membrane and peritoneum, often associated with other major congenital abnormalities
  • Gastroschisis: bowel protrudes through through a defect in the anterior wall adjacent to the umbilicus, with no covering sac, not associated with other abnormalities
414
Q

What is the management of exomphalos and gastroschisis?

A
  • Both: NG tube passed and aspirated frequently, IV fluids
  • Exomphalos: C-section delivery to protect sac, surgical repair may be staged (allows sac to granulate and epithelialise, and for the abdominal cavity to grow)
  • Gastroschisis: vaginal delivery may be attempted, abdomen covered in clear occlusive wrap to minimise dehydration and heat loss, surgery within 4 hours
415
Q

What are the VACTERL associations?

A
  • V = vertebral defects (single or multiple hemivertebrae, scoliosis, rib deformities
  • A = anorectal malformations (imperforate anus, cloacal deformities)
  • C = cardiovascular defect (VSD, tetralogy of Fallot, PDA, ASD, aortic coarctation)
  • TE = tracheo-oesophageal defects (atresia, stenosis)
  • R = renal abnormalities (agenesis, horseshoe kidneys, polycystic kidneys, urethral malformations)
  • L = limb deformities (radial dysplasia, absent radius, polydactyly, tibial deformities)
416
Q

Describe cleft lip and palate

A
  • Cleft lip may be unilateral or bilateral, resulting from failure of fusion of the frontonasal and maxillary processes
  • Cleft palate results from failure of fusion of the palatine processes and nasal septum
  • Most are inherited polygenically, but may be part of a syndrome of multiple abnormalities (30% of cases)
  • May be associated with maternal use of anticonvulsants, benzodiazepines, and steroids during pregnancy
  • Surgical repair of the lip takes place at about 3 months, and the palate at 6-12 months
  • Complications include problems with feeding and speech
417
Q

Why is jaundice common in the neonatal period?

A
  • Marked physiological release of haemoglobin from breakdown of red blood cells because of high haemoglobin concentrations at birth
  • The red cell lifespan of a newborn is 70 days, compared to 120 days in adults
  • Hepatic bilirubin metabolism is less efficient in the first few days of life
418
Q

Describe kernicterus (cause, pathophysiology, presentation, complications)

A
  • Encephalopathy resulting from the deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in the basal ganglia and brainstem nuclei
  • Occurs when the level of unconjugated bilirubin exceeds the albumin-binding capacity of bilirubin of the blood, so passes the blood brain barrier and causes toxic effects
  • Acute presentations include lethargy, poor feeding, and severe cases have seizures and increased muscle tone causing the baby to lie with an arched back (opisthotonos)
  • Complications: cerebral palsy, learning difficulties, sensorineural deafness
419
Q

What is the management of neonatal jaundice?

A
  • Phototherapy (certain wavelengths of light convert unconjugated bilirubin into a harmless pigment excreted in the urine)
  • Exchange transfusion (needed if bilirubin levels rise to dangerous levels, babies blood is replaced with donors
  • Rule out other causes (e.g. biliary atresia, infection, hypothyroidism)
420
Q

What are the causes of acute kidney injury?

A

Prerenal:
- hypovolaemia (haemorrhage, sepsis, burns, diarrhoea/vomiting)
- circulatory failure
- heart failure

Renal:
- vascular (vasculitis, embolus, haemolytic uraemic syndrome)
- tubular (acute tubular necrosis, ischaemia, toxic damage, obstructive)
- glomerular (glomerulonephritis)
- interstitial (interstitial nephritis, pyelonephritis)

Post renal:
- congenital obstruction (e.g. posterior urethral valves)
- acquired obstruction (e.g. renal/ureteric stones, blocked catheter)

421
Q

What is the management of acute kidney failure?

A

Prerenal:
- correction of hypovolaemia with fluid replacement and circulatory support

Renal:
- fluid restriction and diuretic if fluid overloaded
- reversal of metabolic acidosis (with sodium bicarbonate), hyperkalaemia (with calcium gluconate, salbutamol, glucose and insulin), and hyperphosphataemia (with calcium carbonate)
- renal biopsy may identify cause (glomerulonephritis which may need immunosuppression)

Postrenal:
- assessment of site of obstruction
- nephrostomy or bladder catheterisation
- fluid volume and electrolyte correction
- surgery

422
Q

When is renal replacement therapy indicated in acute kidney injury?

A
  • Failure of conservative management
  • Hyperkalaemia
  • Serve hypo/hypernatraemia
  • Pulmonary oedema or severe hypertension due to volume overload
  • Severe metabolic acidosis
  • Multisystem failure
423
Q

Describe the stages of chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Stage 1: eGFR >90 (normal renal function but structural abnormality, or persistent haematuria/proteinuria)
  • Stage 2: eGFR of 60-89 (mildly reduced function, usually asymptomatic)
  • Stage 3: eGFR 30-59 (moderately reduced renal function)
  • Stage 4: eGFR 15-29 (severely reduced renal function with metabolic derangements, consider RRT)
  • Stage 5: eGFR <15 (end stage renal failure, RRT required)
424
Q

What are the causes of chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Congenital anomalies of kidney and urinary tract (most common)
  • Glomerular disease
  • Familial/hereditary
  • Systemic disease affecting the kidneys
  • Tubulointerstitial diseases
  • Others (PKD, metabolic, etc.)
425
Q

What are the clinical features of chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Polydipsia and polyuria
  • Anorexia
  • Lethargy
  • Faltering growth
  • Bony deformities from osteodystrophy (renal rickets)
  • Hypertension
  • Acute-on-chronic renal failure (from infection, dehydration, etc.)
  • Unexplained normocytic anaemia
426
Q

What is the management of chronic kidney disease?

A

Nutrition:
- calorie supplements with NG/gastrostomy feeding if needed, to optimise growth
- adequate protein intake for growth and maintaining albumin
- restriction of potassium and phosphate

Prevention of renal osteodystrophy:
- phosphate restriction
- calcium carbonate
- vitamin D supplements

Control of salt and water balance:
- if due to congenital structural malformations/renal dysplasia, need salt supplementation and plenty of fluid
- other causes require fluid and salt restriction

Anaemia:
- due to reduced production of erythropoietin and circulation of metabolites that are toxic to the bone marrow
- responds well to recombinant erythropoietin (s/c)

Transplantation and dialysis:
- transplantation from a living related donor is the optimal management for severe chronic kidney disease
- if transplantation is not available before dialysis is needed, the options include peritoneal (less disruptive) or haemodialysis

427
Q

Describe haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A
  • A triad of acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytosis
  • Usually secondary to GI infection with E.coli or shigella, as toxins enter the mucosa then localise to the endothelial cells of the kidneys, causing intravascular thrombogenesis
  • Good response to supportive therapy including dialysis, but mat persist with proteinuria, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease
  • Atypical forms require monoclonal antibody treatment
428
Q

Describe the common congenital anomalies of the kidneys and urinary tract

A
  • Renal agenesis: absence of one/both kidneys, resulting in severe oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, fetal death if bilateral
  • Multicystic dysplastic kidney: failure of the kidneys to differentiate normally, resulting in primitive tubules, large renal cysts, and no functioning tissue
  • Polycystic kidney disease: autosomal dominant or recessive
  • Horseshoe kidney: most often fused at the lower pole, predisposing to infection or obstruction
  • Duplex kidney: where a kidney drains from two ureters either from a double renal pelvis or complete division, which may have abnormal drainage involving reflux, ectopic drainage into the urethra/vagina, or ureterocoele
429
Q

Describe urinary tract obstructions

A
  • May occur at the pelvo-ureteric junction, vesicoureteral junction, bladder neck, or posterior urethra in boys
  • The consequences of obstructed urinary flow involve hydroureter, hydronephrosis, thickened bladder wall, dilated urethra
  • In severe cases, renal dysplasia can occur in isolation, or as part of a VACTERL syndrome
430
Q

Describe vesicoureteric reflux

A
  • Developmental anomaly of the vesicoureteric junctions, where the ureters are displaced laterally and enter directly into the bladder with a shortened/absent intramural course
  • Causes include familial, temporarily with UTI, or secondary to bladder pathology (e.g. neuropathic bladder)
  • Mild cases often resolve with age, but severe cases may have long term impacts including infection, incomplete emptying, and damage from high pressures
  • Infection and damage to renal tissue results in scarring, which may progress to chronic kidney disease and require surgical intervention
431
Q

What are the clinical features of shaken baby syndrome?

A
  • Retinal haemorrhages
  • Subdural haematoma
  • Encephalopathy
432
Q

What are the risk factors of sudden infant death syndrome?

A
  • Baby sleeping prone
  • Parental smoking and drug use
  • Prematurity
  • Bed sharing
  • Hyperthermia
  • Male sex
  • Multiple births
  • Lower social class
  • Winter (incidence increases)
433
Q

Describe atopic eczema (definition, ages, features, complications)

A
  • Genetic deficiency of skin barrier function, often with a family history of eczema, asthma, and allergic rhinitis
  • Uncommon in the first 2 months, likely to be troublesome in the first year, and resolving in 50% by age 12, and 75% by 16
  • Clinical features: itching, dry skin, excoriated areas becoming erythematous, weeping, crusting
  • Distribution in infants is predominantly on the face, trunk, shins/forearms, and in children is in flexor surfaces and areas of friction
  • Complications: exacerbations (triggered by irritants, environment, stress, medication, ingestion of allergen) and infection (usually staph or strep, or rarely herpes virus)
434
Q

What is the management of eczema?

A
  • Avoiding irritants (soaps and detergents, certain fabrics, long sharp nails, cow’s milk if allergic)
  • Emollients
  • Topical steroids
  • Immunomodulators (if not controlled by topical steroids)
  • Occlusive bandages (helpful to prevent scratching and lichenification
  • Antibiotics/antivirals
  • Antihistamines (for itch suppression)
435
Q

Describe urticaria and angioedema

A
  • Urticaria presents as red itchy hives, resulting from local vasodilation and increased permeability of capillaries and venules, dependent on activation of skin mast cells that release histamines
  • Angioedema occurs when urticaria involves deeper tissues and produces swelling, particularly of the lips and soft tissue around the eyes
  • Treatment includes antihistamines to reduce itch, and steroids for angioedema
436
Q

Describe allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis

A
  • Atopic (associated with IgE antibodies to common inhaled allergens) or non-atopic
  • May be intermittent (often seasonal) or persistent, and ranges in severity
  • Associated with eczema, asthma, as well as sinusitis and adenoidal hypertrophy
  • Clinical features: coryza, conjunctivitis, cough (post-nasal drip), blocked nose, sleep disturbance, impaired concentration
  • Treatment: avoid allergens, nasal saline irrigation, antihistamines, eye drops, LTRA, allergen immunotherapy
436
Q

Describe Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A
  • A rare and serious skin condition caused by a reaction to medications (commonly cotrimoxazole, penicillins, anti-convulsants, allopurinol, NSAIDs)
  • Onset between a few days - 1 month, prodromal flu-like illness, then abrupt onset of tender/painful red rash, with blisters than merge to form sheets of skin detachment to expose oozing dermis
  • Fatal complications include dehydration, infection, gastrointestinal ulceration, shock, multiorgan failure, DIC
  • Treatment: stop causative drug, fluid replacement, temperature maintenance, pain relief, topical antiseptics, dressings
437
Q

What are the clinical features of anaphylaxis?

A
  • Skin changes: urticaria, swollen lips, tongue, uvula
  • Airway: swelling, hoarseness, stridor
  • Breathing: tachypnoea, wheeze, fatigue, cyanosis, O2 <92%
  • Circulation: pale, clod extremities, weak pulses, hypotension
438
Q

What is the management of anaphylaxis?

A
  • Early administration of IM adrenaline (followed by 3 cycles of IV adrenaline if unsuccessful)
  • Establish airway
  • High flow oxygen
  • IV fluids
  • Monitor pulse oximetry, ECG, blood pressure
439
Q

Describe Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A
  • An inherited disorder of progressive muscle degeneration, with X-linked recessive disorder (although 1/3 of boys have de novo mutations)
  • Results from deletion of the gene for dystrophin (which connects the cytoskeleton of muscle fibres to surrounding extracellular matrix), leading to progressive myofibre necrosis
  • Some countries screen at birth, detected by raised plasma creatine kinase
  • Presentation: waddling gait, language delay, slower/clumsier than peers, pseudohypertrophy of calves (muscle replaced by fat/fibrous tissue), Gowers’ sign (needing to turn prone to rise, over age 3)
  • Complications: scoliosis, reduced life expectancy due to respiratory failure or cardiomyopathy
  • Management: physiotherapy, splinting, achilles tendon lengthening, scoliosis surgery, breathing support overnight (CPAP), glucocorticoid, trials for molecular genetic therapies
440
Q

Describe myotonic dystrophy

A
  • A disorder involving myotonia, described as delayed relaxation after sustained muscle contraction, with dominant inheritance due to nucleotide triplet repeat expansion
  • Newborns present with hypotonia, feeding and respiratory difficulties due to muscle weakness, talipes, thin ribs, and oligohydramnios and reduced fetal movements
  • Older children may present with myopathic facial appearance, learning difficulties, myotonia
  • Complications: cardiac dysrhythmia and conduction defects, cataracts, testicular atrophy, type 2 diabetes