Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What is mottled skin a sign of?

A

Poor perfusion

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2
Q

Uptill what age is brachial pulse easier to assess than radial pulse?

A

6 months

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3
Q

When is pulse rate best measured?

A

When child is calm

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4
Q

What does CRT show in children?

A

Compromised circulation due to peripheral circulation shutdown

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5
Q

What vaccinations are given at 8 weeks?

A

6 in 1
Meningococcal group B
Rotavirus

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6
Q

What vaccinations are given at 12 weeks?

A

6 in 1
Pneumococcal
Rotavirus

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7
Q

What vaccinations are given at 16 weeks?

A

6 in 1
Meningococcal group B

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8
Q

What vaccinations are in the 6 in 1 vaccine?

A

Diphtheria
Tetanus
Pertussis
Polio
Haemophilus influenzae type b
Hepatitis B

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9
Q

When is the 6 in 1 vaccine administered?

A

8, 12, 16 weeks

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10
Q

When is the rotavirus vaccine administered?

A

8 and 12 weeks

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11
Q

When is the pneumococcal vaccine administered?

A

12 weeks and 1 year

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12
Q

When is the meningococcal group B vaccine adminstered?

A

8 and 16 weeks

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13
Q

What vaccines are given at 1 year?

A

Haemophilus influenzae B
Meningococcal B and C
Pneumococcal
MMR

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14
Q

What vaccines are given at 3 years and 4 months?

A

Diphtheria
Tetanus
Polio
Pertussis
MMR

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15
Q

What vaccines are given at 14 years (year 9)?

A

Diphtheria, tetanus, polio
Meningococcal groups ACWY

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16
Q

What are the major functional areas of developmental milestones?

A

Gross motor
Fine motor and vision
Hearing, speech and language
Social, emotional and behavioural

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17
Q

What defines the limit for a child to meet a certain developmental milestone?

A

Two standard deviations from mean age of acquisition

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18
Q

What is otitis media?

A

General term to describe disorders of middle ear inflammation including acute otitis media, otitis media with effusion, chronic otitis media

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19
Q

Epidemiology of otitis media?

A

Peak incidence between 6-18 months
Common complication of viral respiratory infection
More common in boys

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20
Q

Aetiology of otitis media?

A

Respiratory virus/ bacteria

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21
Q

Pathophysiology of otitis media?

A

Colonisation of nasal passage, eustachian tube and middle ear cause inflammation
Can lead to suppuration, effusion which can increase pressure against tympanic membrane

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22
Q

Risk factors for otitis media?

A

Exposure to tobacco smoke
Lack of breastfeeding
Daycare attendance
Having siblings
Supine feeding
Low socioeconomic status
Craniofacial anomaly
Immunological deficiency

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23
Q

Classification of otitis media?

A

Acute otitis media
Otitis media with effusion
Chronic otitis media

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24
Q

What is the clinical presentation of otitis media?

A

Otalgia
Preceeding upper respiratory symptoms
Bulging tympanic membrane
Myringitis
Fever
Irritability and sleep disturbance

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25
Q

Investigations to diagnose otitis media?

A

Otoscopy
Clinical diagnosis

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26
Q

Differentials for for otitis media?

A

Otitis media with effusion
Mastoiditis
Myringitis
Cholesteatoma

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27
Q

Management of otitis media?

A

Analgesia; paracetamol, ibuprofen
Antibiotics if symptoms last longer than 72 hours and over 6 months; Amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav, Cefuroxime
Tympanocentesis

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28
Q

What could be cause of recurrent otitis media?

A

Anatomical anomaly

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29
Q

Complications of otitis media?

A

Bullous myringitis
Acutely perforated tympanic membrane
Mastoiditis
Otitis media with effusion

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30
Q

Prognosis of otitis media?

A

Patient makes recovery in 2-3 days
Long term complications are rare

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31
Q

Gold standard investigation your congenital heart disease in children?

A

Echocardiogram

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32
Q

What are the shunts present in foetal circulation?

A

Ductus venosus; connects umbilical vein to inferior vena cava to bypass liver
Foramen ovale; connects RA to LA to bypass pulmonary circulation
Ductus arteriosus; connects pulmonary artery to aorta to bypass pulmonary circulation

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33
Q

What happens during the first breath?

A

Air inflates alveoli which decreases pulmonary vascular resistance
Pressure in right atrium falls below left atrium squashing atrial septum and functions . as a functional closure of the foramen ovale

Increased oxygenation causes a fall in prostaglandins and hence closure of ductus arteriosus

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34
Q

What is needed for patency of ductus arteriosus?

A

Prostaglandin

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35
Q

Features of an innocent murmur?

A

Soft
Short
Systolic
Symptomless
Situational; quieter with standing and typically presents during illness

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36
Q

Features of a murmur prompting referral?

A

Murmur louder than 2/6
Diastolic murmur
Louder on standing
Failure to thrive, feeling difficulty, ,cyanosis, shortmen of breath

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37
Q

Investigation to diagnose congenital heart disease?

A

ECG
Chest X-ray
Echocardiogram

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38
Q

Causes of a pan-systolic murmur?

A

Mitral regurgitation
Tricuspid regurgitation
Ventricular septal defect

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39
Q

Causes of ejection systolic murmur?

A

Aortic stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

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40
Q

Murmur heard in ASD?

A

Mid-systolic
Crescendo-decresendo
Heard loudest at upper left sternal boarder
Fixed split second heart sound

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41
Q

Murmur heard in patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Continuous crescendo- decresendo machinery murmur during second heart sound

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42
Q

Murmur heard in tetralogy of fallot?

A

Arises from pulmonary stenosis
Ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the pulmonary area

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43
Q

Acyanotic heart defects?

A

VSD
ASD
PDA

However if Eisenmengers syndrome occurs can become cyanotic

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44
Q

What is eisenmenger syndrome?

A

Reversal of a left to right shunt due to pulmonary pressure exceeding systemic pressure and converting shunt to right to left resulting in cyanosis

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45
Q

When does ductus arteriosus close?

A

Functional closure achieved in first 3 days of life
Complete closure in just 2-3 weeks

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46
Q

Risk factors for PDA?

A

Genetic
Maternal rubella infection
Prematurity

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47
Q

Pathophysiology of PDA?

A

Pressure is higher in aorta and hence systemic circulation so shunt is left to right
This increases pulmonary pressure resulting in right heart strain leading to right ventricular hypertrophy
Increased bloodflow through pulmonary vessels leads to increased left heart pressure and compensatory left ventricular hypertrophy

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48
Q

Presentation of PDA?

A

Murmur; continuous crescendo-decrescendo machinery murmur during second heart sound
Shortness of breath
Difficulty feeding
Poor weight gain
Lower respiratory tract infection

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49
Q

Management of PDA?

A

Typically mointerned till 12 months of age via echocardiogram, unlikely to close after 1 year of age
Trans-catheter or surgical closure

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50
Q

What is an ASD?

A

Hole in the septum between two atria connecting right and left atria allow blood to flow between

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51
Q

Pathophysiology of ASD?

A

During normal development two walls, the septum primum and septum secondum fuse with endocardial cushion in middle of the heart
Defects in this process result in ASD

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52
Q

Types of ASD?

A

Ostium secondum
Patent foramen ovale (not technically an ASD)
Ostium primum

Presented in order of how common these defects are

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53
Q

Complication of ASD?

A

Stroke
Atrial fibrillation /atrial flutter
Pulmonary hypertension
Eisenmenger syndrome

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54
Q

Presentation of ASD?

A

Murmur; mid systolic crescendo decrescendo murmur heard best at upper left sternal border with fixed split second heart sound
Shortness of breath
Difficulty feeding
Poor weight gain
Lower respiratory tract infection

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55
Q

Management of ASD?

A

Referral to paediatric cardiologist
Correction of defect; Transvenous catheter closure, Open heart surgery
Anticoagulation can be used to reduce risk of clots and stroke

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56
Q

Associations with VSD?

A

Down’s syndrome
Turner’s syndrome

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57
Q

What is a VSD?

A

Congenital hole in the septum between the ventricles

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58
Q

Pathophysiology of VSD?

A

Left to right shunt due to higher pressure in LV than RV, can ihad to right heart overload, right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension

Can eventually lead to Eisenmengers syndrome

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59
Q

Presentation of VSD?

A

Shortness of breath
Tachypnoea
Poor feeding
Failure to thrive
Murmur; Pan systolic murmur heard at left sternal border in third and fourth intercostal space
Systolic thrill on palpation

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60
Q

Management of VSD?

A

Often close spontaneously
Transvenous catheter closure or open heart surgery

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61
Q

What congenital defects can lead to eisenmangers syndrome?

A

Atrial septal defect
Ventricular septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus

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62
Q

Pathophysiology of eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

Left to right shunt shifts blood to right side of heart increasing pressure in pulmonary vessels leading to pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular hypertrophy
Eventually pulmonary pressure exceeds systemic pressure shunt is reversed to a right to left shunt resulting in cyanosis

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63
Q

Presentation of eisenmenger syndrome?

A

Cyanosis
Clubbing
Dyspnoea
Plethoric complexion

Examination findings;
Right ventricular heave
Loud P2
Raised JVP
Peripheral oedema

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64
Q

Prognosis of eisenmanger’s syndrome?

A

Reduced life expectancy around 20 years compared to healthy individuals
Main causes of death include heart failure, infection, thromboembolism and haemorrhage
Pregnancy is higher risk

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65
Q

Management of eisenmanger’s syndrome?

A

Timely detection and correction of defect to prevent this complication
Only definitive treatment is heart and lung transplantation

Medical management;
Pulmonary hypertension; slidenafil
Treat arrhythmia
Treat polycythaemia
Prevent thrombosis
Infective endocarditis prophylaxis

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66
Q

What is coarctation of aorta?

A

Narrowing of aortic arch usually around the ductus arteriosus

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67
Q

What genetic condition is associated with coarctation of aorta?

A

Turners syndrome

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68
Q

Pathophysiology of coarctation of aorta?

A

Reduces pressure of blood distal to narrowing and increases pressure proximal to narrowing such as heart and just three branches of aorta

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69
Q

Presentation of coarctation of aorta?

A

Weak femoral pulse
Systolic murmur heard best below left clavicle or left scapula
Tachypnoea
Underdeveloped left arm and legs

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70
Q

Management of coarctation of aorta?

A

In severe cases prostaglandin E2 can be used to maintain patency of ductus
Surgical correction and ligate ductus

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71
Q

What is aortic valve stenosis ?

A

When babies are born with a narrowed aortic valve orifice which restricts blood flow from the left ventricle into the aorta

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72
Q

Symptoms of aortic valve stenosis?

A

Mild cases can remain asymptomatic
Fatigue
Shortness of breath
Dizziness and fainting
Symptoms are worse on exertion

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73
Q

Signs of aortic valve stenosis?

A

Murmur; Ejection systolic crescendo- decrescendo which radiates over carotids
Ejection click just before murmur
Palpable thrill during systole
Slow rising pulse and narrow pulse pressure

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74
Q

Management of aortic valve stenosis?

A

Percutaneous balloon aortic valvoplasty
Surgical aortic valvotomy
Valve replacement

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75
Q

Complications of aortic valve stenosis?

A

Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction
Heart failure
Ventricular arrhythmia
Bacterial endocarditis
Sudden death, Often on onexertion

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76
Q

What is pulmonary valve stenosis?

A

Narrowing in right ventricular outflow tract

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77
Q

Associations of congenital pulmonary valve stenosis?

A

Tetralogy of fallot
William syndrome
Noonan syndrome
Congenital rubella syndrome

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78
Q

Symptoms of pulmonary valve stenosis?

A

Fatigue on exertion
Shortness of breath
Dizziness and fainting

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79
Q

Signs of pulmonary stenosis?

A

Murmur; Ejection systolic murmur .heard loudest at pulmonary area
Palpable thrill in pulmonary area
Right ventricular heave due to RVH
Raised JVP with giant a waves

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80
Q

Management of pulmonary stenosis?

A

Asymptomatic; watch and wait
Balloon valvuloplasty
Open heart surgery

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81
Q

Defects that make up tetralogy of fallot?

A

Ventricular septal defect
Overriding aorta
Pulmonary valve stenosis
Right ventricular hypertrophy

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82
Q

Pathophysiology of tetralogy of fallot?

A

VSD provides left to right shunt
Overriding aorta means aorta is connected more to the right so some blood from right ventricle empties into aorta creating a right to left shunt
Pulmonary stenosis encourages passage of blood from right to left and causes RVH

All these defects produce an overall right to left shunt and a cyanotic baby

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83
Q

Risk factors for developing tetralogy of fallot?

A

Rubella infection
Maternal age over 40 years
Alcohol consumption in pregnancy
Diabetic mother

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84
Q

What is seen on chest x-ray in tetralogy of fallot?

A

Boot shaped heart

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85
Q

Signs and symptoms of tetralogy of fallot?

A

Cyanosis
Clubbing
Poor feeding and poor weight gain
Tet spells
Murmur; ejection systolic due to pulmonary stenosis

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86
Q

What is a tet spell?

A

Intermittent symptomatic periods where right to left shunt becomes temporarily worsened precipitating a cyanotic episode

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87
Q

Pathophysiology of tet spell?

A

Pulmonary vascular resistance increases or systemic resistance decreases
Such as ef child is physically exerting themself, a lot of CO2 is generated causing systemic vasodilation and hence reduces pressure
Blood is pumped through path of least resistance so blood from RV into aorta

Often precipitated by waking, physical exertion, crying

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88
Q

Treatment for tet spells?

A

Squat, or in younger children pull knees to chest in younger children to increase systemic vascular resistance
Supplementary oxygen
Beta-blockers, morphine and fluids to help increase systemic pressure
Sodium bicarbonate; buffer metabolic acidosis
Phenylephrine infusion to increase systemic vascular resistance

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89
Q

Management of tetralogy of fallot?

A

In neonates prostaglandin infusion to keep ductus open
Total surgical repair by open heart surgery -> 5% mortality from surgery

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90
Q

What is ebstein’s anomaly?

A

Tricuspid valve is set lower in the right side of the heart producing a larger RA and smaller RV resulting in Right to left shunt through an ASD
Blood bypasses lungs leading to cyanosis

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91
Q

What condition is ebstein’s anomaly associated with?

A

Wolff- Parkinson White syndrome
Torsades de pointes

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92
Q

Presentation of ebstein’s anomaly?

A

Heart failure
Gallop rhythm
Cyanosis
Shortness of breath
Tachypnoea
Poor feeding
Collapse or cardiac arrest

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93
Q

What is seen on ECG in ebstein’s anomaly?

A

Arrhythmias
Right atrial enlargement
Right bundle branch block
Left axis deviation

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94
Q

Management of ebstein’s anomaly?

A

Treat arrhythmia and heart failure
Surgical correction

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95
Q

What is transposition of the great arteries?

A

Attachments of the aorta and pulmonary trunk to the heart are swapped meaning the right ventricle pumps blood into aorta and left ventricle into pulmonary trunk

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96
Q

What other conditions are associated with transposition of the great arteries?

A

Ventricular septal defect
Coarctation of the aorta
Pulmonary stenosis

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97
Q

What is prognosis of transposition of great arteries?

A

Unless other co-existing shunt is present, baby will be born cyanosed and require immediate correction

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98
Q

Presentation of transposition of great arteries?

A

Usually diagnosed during antenatal ultrasound scan, ensure woman delivers in a hospital capable of managing the baby
VSD or PDA can initially compensate but will quickly develop respiratory distress, tachycardia, poor feeling, poor weight gain

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99
Q

Management of transposition of great arteries?

A

Prostaglandin infusion to maintain patency of ductus, Balloon septostomy to create larger ASD to allow mixing of blood

Arterial switch operation

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100
Q

What is bronchiolitis?

A

Inflammation and infection of the bronchioles usually caused by virus

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101
Q

Epidemiology of bronchiolitis?

A

Common upto the age of 2 years
Most commonly diagnosed in infants under 6 months

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102
Q

Pathophysiology of bronchiolitis?

A

Infection and inflammation of airways leads to hypersecretion of mucus which can block narrower airways
Oedematous inflammation can also cause airways to become narrowing further limiting gas exchange

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103
Q

Presentation of bronchiolitis?

A

Coryzal symptoms
Dyspnoea
Tachypnoea
Poor feeding
Mild fever
Apnoea
Wheeze and crackles on auscultation

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104
Q

Signs of respiratory distress?

A

Increased respiratory rate
Use of accessory muscles
Intercostal and subcostal recessions
Nasal flaring
Head bobbing
Tracheal tugging
Cyanosis
Abnormal airway noises

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105
Q

Epidemiology of congenital heart defects?

A

1% of live births

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106
Q

Risk factors for congenital heart disease?

A

Infection; Maternal rubella infection

Exposure to teratogenic drugs; thalidomide, isotretinoin, lithium

Maternal alcohol consumption

Poorly controlled type 1 and type 2 diabetes

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107
Q

What is a wheeze?

A

Whistling sound caused by narrowed airways, typically heard during expiration

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108
Q

What is grunting?

A

Exhalation with the glottis partially closed to increase positive end expiratory pressure

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109
Q

What is stridor?

A

High pitched inspiratory noise caused by obstruction of upper airway

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110
Q

Typical course of RSV?

A

Starts as URTI with coryzal symptoms
Chest symptoms develop in 1-2 days following coryzal symptoms
Symptoms worsen on days 3 or 4
Symptoms last 7 to 10 days and patients fully recover in 2-3 weeks

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111
Q

Prognosis of bronchiolitis?

A

Usually makes full recovery
More likely to develop viral induced wheeze

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112
Q

Indications to admit child with bronchiolitis?

A

Under three months
Pre-existing condition; prematurity, cystic fibrosis, downs syndrome
Clinical dehydration
Respiratory rate over 70
Oxygen sats under 92%
Moderate to severe respiratory distress
Apnoea
Concerns around managing child at home

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113
Q

Management of bronchiolitis?

A

Ensure adequet fluid and oral intake
Saline nasal drops and nasal suctioning
Supplementary oxygen
Ventilatory support if needed

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114
Q

Signs of poor ventilation?

A

Measured on capillary blood gas
Raising pCO2
Falling pH

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115
Q

What is palivizumab?

A

Monoclonal antibody that targets RSV and is given as a monthly injection to high risk babies to protect them against RSV bronchiolitis

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116
Q

Indications for palivizumab injection?

A

Ex premature
Congenital heart disease

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117
Q

What is viral induced wheeze?

A

Acute wheezy illness caused by viral infection usually presenting before age of 3 years with no atopic history

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118
Q

Pathophysiology of viral induced wheeze?

A

Inflammation, oedema and swelling in walls of airways in response to virus results in airway constriction which can be made worse by smooth muscle constriction
Reduced airflow through narrower airways resulting in symptoms of wheeze

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119
Q

Presentation of viral induced wheeze?

A

Shortness of breath
Signs of respiratory distress
Expiratory wheeze throughout chest

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120
Q

What is acute asthma?

A

Rapid deterioration of asthma usually triggered by allergy, infection, cold weather, exercise

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121
Q

Presentation of acute asthma?

A

Shortness of breath
Signs of respiratory distress
Tachypnoea
Expiratory wheeze

Establish severity of attack

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122
Q

Features of a moderate acute asthma attack?

A

Peak flow >50% predicted
Normal speech

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123
Q

Features of a severe acute asthma attack?

A

Peak flow <50% predicted
02 sats <92%
Unable to complete sentences in one breath
Signs of Respiratory distress
Respiratory rate >40 in age 1-5 years, >30 in age over 5 years
Heart rate >140 in 1-5 years, >125 in age over 5 years

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124
Q

Signs of a life threatening acute asthma attack?

A

Peak flow <33% predicted
Saturations < 92%
Exhaustion. and poor respiratory effort
Hypotension
Silent chest
Cyanosis
Altered conciousness/confusion

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125
Q

How is acute asthma managed?

A

Mild; regular salbutamol such as 4-6 puffs every 4 hours

Severe
1) Salbutamol, 10 puffs every 2 hours
2) Nebulised salbutamol/ ipratropium bromide
3) Oral prednisolone
4) IV hydrocortisone
5) IV magnesium sulphate
6) IV salbutamol
7) IV aminophylline

It still not controlled consider ICU admission, intubation and ventilation

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126
Q

What is a typical step down regime for inhaled salbutamol?

A

10 puffs every 2 hours then
10 puffs every 4 hours then
6 puffs every 4 hours then
4 puffs every 6 hours

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127
Q

What electrolyte should be monitored when taking large doses of salbutamol?

A

Potassium

Salbutamol causes potassium to shift from blood into cells

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128
Q

What is chronic asthma?

A

Chronic inflammatory airway disease leading to variable airway obstruction as a result of hypersensitive airways

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129
Q

Presentation of asthma?

A

Dry cough with wheeze, shortness of breath
Episodic symptoms with intermittent exacerbations
Diurnal variability; typically worse at night and early morning
History of other atopic conditions
Family history of asthma /atopy
Bilateral widespread polyphonic wheeze
Symptoms improve with bronchodilators

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130
Q

Typical triggers for asthma?

A

Dust
Animals
Cold air
Exercise
Smoke
Food allergens

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131
Q

Investigations to diagnose asthma?

A

Clinical
Spirometry and peak flow variability
Fractional exhaled nitric oxide
Direct bronchial challenge test

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132
Q

Medical management of asthma under 5 years of age?

A

1) SABA
2) Add low close corticosteroid inhaler or oral montelukast
3) Add other option from step 2
4) Refer to specialist

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133
Q

Medical management of asthma in children aged 5 to 12 years?

A

1) SABA
2) Low dose corticosteroid inhaler
3) LABA
4) Titrate up corticosteroid and consider adding either montelukast or theophylline
5) Increase dose of inhaled corticosteroid
6) Referral to specialist

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134
Q

Medical management of asthma in children over the age of 12 years?

A

1) SABA
2) Regular low dose corticosteroid inhaler
3) LABA, continue only if good response
4) Titrate up corticosteroid inhaler to medium dose, consider trial of montelukast, theophylline or LAMA (tiotropium)
5) Titrate up corticosteroid inhaler to high dose
6) Referall to specialist and consider oral steroids

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135
Q

Issues surrounding corticosteroids and growth?

A

Slows down growth in children
Dose dependant effect

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136
Q

Advice for cleaning spacer device?

A

Cleaned once a month
Avoid scrubbing
Allow to airdry to prevent static as this can prevent medication being inhaled

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137
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

Infection of lung tissue

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138
Q

Symptoms of pneumonia?

A

Wet and productive cough
High fever
Tachypnoea
Tachycardia
Increased work of breathing
Lethargy
Delerium

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139
Q

Characteristic signs of pneumonia?

A

Bronchial breath sounds; harsh breath sounds equally lond on inspiration and expiration caused by consolidation of the lung tissue around airway

Focal coarse crackles; air passing through sputum

Dullness to percussion; lung tissue collapse/ consolidation

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140
Q

Causes of pneumonia?

A

Most common; streptococcus pneumonia
Bacterial; group A strep, group B strep, staphylococcus aureus, haemophilus influenzae, mycoplasma pneumonia
Viral; RSV, parainfluenza virus, influenza virus

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141
Q

Atypical cause of pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

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142
Q

Investigations to diagnose pneumonia?

A

Sputum culture, throat swab, bacterial culture, viral PCR

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143
Q

Management of pneumonia?

A

Amoxicillin is first line antibiotic
Macrolide ( erythromycin, clarythromycin, azithromycin) can be used to cover atypical causes or when allergic to penicillin

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144
Q

What is croup?

A

Acute infective respiratory disease of upper airway causing oedema in larynx

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145
Q

What age group does croup commonly affect?

A

6 months to 2 years

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146
Q

Cause of croup?

A

Most common; parainfluenza virus
Influenza
Adenovirus
RSV

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147
Q

Presentation of croup?

A

Increased work of breathing
Barking cough
Hoarse voice
Stridor
Low grade fever

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148
Q

What causative agent of croup used to be associated with high mortality?

A

Diptheria

Leads to epiglottistis, vaccination has reduced incidence

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149
Q

Management of croup?

A

Oral dexamethasone; 150 mcg/kg, can be repeated in 12 hours if needed
Oxygen
Nebulised adrenaline, budesonide

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150
Q

What is epiglottitis?

A

Inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis which can swell and completely occlude airway resulting in life threatening complication

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151
Q

Cause of epiglottistis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

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152
Q

Presentation of epiglottitis?

A

Sore throat
Stridor
Difficulty/ Painful swallowing
Drooling
Tripod position
Scared and quiet child
High fever

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153
Q

Investigations to diagnose Acute epiglottitis?

A

Should not perform investigations as this can startle child and cause airway obstruction
A lateral view neck X-ray would show thumb sign, and useful in ruling out foreign body

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154
Q

Management of epiglottitis?

A

Not to distress child
Ensure airway is secure; may require intubation or tracheostomy
IV antibiotics; ceftriaxone and steroids

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155
Q

Prognosis of epiglottitis?

A

Most children recover not requiring intubation
Common complication is epiglottic abscess

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156
Q

What is laryngomalacia?

A

The supraglottic larynx (above the vocal cords) is structured in a way to cause partial airway obstruction

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157
Q

Pathophysiology of laryngomalacia?

A

Tissues surrounding supraglottic larynx is softer and has less tone meaning it can flop across the airway, particularly during inspiration across the airway to partially occlude it, which generates characteristic whistling sound

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158
Q

Peak age of laryngomalacia?

A

6 months

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159
Q

Presentation of laryngomalacia?

A

Inspiratory stridor; harsh whistling sound when breathing in
Usually intermittent and more prominent when feeding, upset, lying on back or during URTI

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160
Q

Management of laryngomalacia?

A

Usually resolves as larynx matures and is better adapted to support itself
In severe cases surgery can be performed to support larynx

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161
Q

What is whooping cough?

A

URTI caused by bordetella pertussis, a gram negative bacteria

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162
Q

Presentation of whooping cough?

A

Coryzal symptoms with low grade fever
More severe coughing fits develop
Large, loud inspiratory whoop
Following coughing can lead to fainting, vomiting

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163
Q

Investigations to diagnose whooping cough?

A

Nasal swabs with PCR/ bacterial culture within 2-3 weeks of the onset of symptoms
Anti-pertussis toxin immunoglobulin G if symptoms present for more than 2 weeks

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164
Q

Management of whooping cough?

A

Notify public health
Supportive care
Macrolides can be useful in first 21 days
Prophylactic antibiotics to vunerable close contacts

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165
Q

Complications of whooping cough?

A

Bronchiectasis

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166
Q

What is chronic lung disease of prematurity?

A

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Occurs in premature babies born before 28 weeks suffering with respiratory distress syndrome requiring oxygen therapy

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167
Q

Features of chronic lung disease of prematurity?

A

Low oxygen saturations
Increased work of breathing
Poor feeding and weight gain
Crackles and wheeze
Increased susceptibility to infection

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168
Q

How can chronic ling disease of prematurity be prevented?

A

Corticosteroids to mothers showing signs of pre-term labour
Use CPAP rather than intubation and ventilation
Use caffeine to stimulate respiratory effort
Not to over oxygenate with supplemental oxygen

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169
Q

Management of chronic lung disease of prematurity?

A

Sleep study to assess oxygen sats during sleep to guide treatment
Palivizumab injection for RSV protection

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170
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive condition affecting CFTR gene on chromosome 7 affecting mucus glands and secretion of thick mucus

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171
Q

What isthe most common mutation in cystic fibrosis?

A

delta- F508

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172
Q

Consequences of cystic fibrosis mutation?

A

Thick pancreatic and biliary secretions; lack of enzyme secretions in digestive tract
Low volume thick airway secretions; reduced airway secretion resulting in bacterial colonisation
Congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens

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173
Q

What is often the first sign of cystic fibrosis?

A

Meconium ileus

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174
Q

Symptoms of cystic fibrosis?

A

Chronic cough
Thick sputum production
Recurrent respiratory tract infection
Lose greasy stools
Abdominal pain and bloating
Poor weight and height gain

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175
Q

Signs of cystic fibrosis?

A

Low weight or height on growth charts
Nasal polyps
Finger clubbing
Crackles / wheeze
Abdominal distention

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176
Q

Causes of clubbing in children?

A

Hereditary clubbing
Cyanotic heart disease
Infective endocarditis
Cystic fibrosis
Tuberculosis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Liver cirrhosis

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177
Q

How is cystic fibrosis diagnosed?

A

Newborn blood spot test
Sweat test
Genetic tost

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178
Q

Gold standard test to diagnose Cystic fibrosis?

A

Sweat test; chloride concentration more than 60 mmol/ L

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179
Q

Examples of microbial colonisers in CF patients?

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Haemophilus influenzae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Escherichia coli
Burkhodheria cepacia
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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180
Q

How is colonisation with pseudomonas aeruginosa managed?

A

Nebulised antibiotic long term such as tobramycin
Oral ciprofloxacin

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181
Q

Management of cystic fibrosis ?

A

Chest physiotherapy; To clear mucus
Exercise to improve lung function
High calorie diet
CREON tablets; replace pancreatic secretions
Prophylactic flucloxacillin
Treat chest infections
Nebulised hypertonic saline and DNAase: reduce viscosity
Vaccinations

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182
Q

What vaccinations are given to CF patients?

A

pneumococcal, influenza, varicella

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183
Q

Monitoring requirements for patients with CF?

A

Every 6 weeks
Sputum cultures for colonisation
Screening for diabetes, osteoporosis, vitamin D deficiency, liver failure

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184
Q

Prognosis of CF?

A

median life expectancy 47 years
90% of patients develop pancreatic insufficiency
50% of adults develop CF related diabetes
30% of adults develop CF related liver disease

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185
Q

Why does cystic fibrosis cause male infertility?

A

Congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens

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186
Q

What is primary ciliary dyskinesia ( Kartagner syndrome ) ?

A

Autosomal recessive condition causing dysfunctional motility of the cilia, mostly affecting those in respiratory tract

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187
Q

Pathophysiology of Kartagner’s syndrome?

A

Dysfunctional motility of cilia leads to build up of mucus in the lungs creating a suitable environment for chest infections with frequent and chronic chest infections

Also affects motility of cillia in fallopian tubes and sperm tails leading to fertility issues

Similar presentation to CF

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188
Q

What is Kartagner’s traid?

A

Paranasal sinusitis
Bronchiectasis
Situs inversus

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189
Q

What is situs inversus?

A

all internal organs are located in mirrored locations inside the body

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190
Q

Association of primary ciliary dyskinesia and situs inversus?

A

25% of patients with situs inversus have PCD

50% of patients with PCD have situs inversus

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191
Q

Investigations to diagnose Kartagner’s syndrome?

A

Family history; consanguinity
Clinical presentation
Biopsy of ciliated epithelium

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192
Q

Management of Kartagner’s syndrome?

A

Similar to CF with physiotherapy, high calorie diet, antibiotics

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193
Q

Causes of abdominal pain in children?

A

Constipation
UTI
Coeliac disease
IBD
Mesenteric adenitis
Abdominal migraine
Pyelonephritis
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Tonsilitis
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Infantile colic

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194
Q

Surgical causes of abdominal pain in children?

A

Appendicitis
Intussuscepticn
Bowel obstruction
Testicular torsion
Ectopic pregnancy

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195
Q

Red flags for abdominal pain in children?

A

Persistent/ bilious vomit
Severe chronic diarrhoea
Fever
Rectal bleeding
Weightloss / faltering growth
Dysphagia
Nighttime pain
Abdominal pain

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196
Q

What is abdominal migraine?

A

Episodes of central abdominal pain lasting more than an hour
Associated symptoms; nausea, vomiting, anorexia, pallor, headache, photophobia, aura

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197
Q

What is pizotifen used for and what are the concerns?

A

Prevention of abdominal migraine
Slow stopping as abrupt discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms

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198
Q

Causes of constipation in children?

A

Idiopathic
Hirschprung’s disease
cystic fibrosis
Hypothyroidism

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199
Q

Presentation of constipation in children?

A

Less than 3 stools per week
Hard stools that are difficult to pass
Straining and painful passage of stool
Abdominal pain
Rectal bleeding

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200
Q

What is Encopresis?

A

Faecal incontinence
Considered pathological if after age of 4 years
Usually caused by overstretching of rectum

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201
Q

Causes of encopresis?

A

Spina bifida
Hirschprung
Cerebral palsy
Learning disability
Psychosocial stress
Abuse

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202
Q

Causes of desensitisation of rectum?

A

Hirschprung
Cystic fibrosis
Hypothyroidism
Spinal cord lesions
Sexual abuse
Intestinal Obstraction
Anal stenosis
Cow milk protein

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203
Q

Complications of constipation?

A

Pain
Reduced sensation
Anal fissures
Haemorrhoids
Overflow and soiling
Psychosocial issues

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204
Q

What laxative is used first line for constipation?

A

Movicol

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205
Q

Red flags for constipation?

A

Not passing meconium; cystic fibrosis, hirschsprung disease
Neurological signs especially in lower limbs; cerebral palsy, spinal cord lesion
Vomiting; intestinal obstruction, hirschsprungs disease
Ribbon stool; anal stenosis
Abnormal anus; anal stenosis, IBD, sexual abuse
Abnormal lower back/ buttocks; spina bifida, spinal cord lesion
Failure to thrive; coeliac disease, hypothyroidism, safeguarding

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206
Q

Presentation of GORD?

A

Chronic cough
Hoarse cry
Distress, crying or unsettled after feeding
Reluctance to feed
Pneumonia
Poor weight gain

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207
Q

Causes of vomiting?

A

Overfeeding
Appendicitis
GORD
UTI, tonsilitis, meningitis
Pyloric stenosis
Gastritis/ gastroenteritis
Intestinal obstruction
Bulimia

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208
Q

Management of GORD?

A

Small frequent meals
Burping
Not to over-feed
Keep baby upright

Gaviscon mixed with feeds
Thickened milk/ formula
Ranitidine or omeprazole

Surgical fundoplication can be considered in very severe cases

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209
Q

What is Sandifer’s syndrome?

A

Brief episodes of abnormal movements associated with GORD in infants
torticollis; foreceful contractions of the neck muscles causing twitching of the neck
Dystonia; abnormal muscle contractions causing twisting movements, arching of the back or unusual postures

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210
Q

What is pyloric stenosis

A

Hypertrophy of the pylorus of the stomach resulting in powerful peristalsis that ultimately pushes food up the oesophagus

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211
Q

Features of pyloric stenosis?

A

Projectile vomit
Olive shaped mass in abdomen
Failing to thrive

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212
Q

What does blood gas show in pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypochloric
Metabolic alkalosis

Due to vomiting of stomach acid

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213
Q

Management of pyloric stenosis?

A

Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy - Ramstedt’s operation

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214
Q

Red flags for vomiting?

A

Not keeping any feed down; pyloric stenosis, intestinal obstruction
Projectile vomit; pyloric stenosis, intestinal obstruction
Bile stained vomit
Haematemesis, melena
Abdominal distention
Reduced conciousness, bulding fontanelle

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215
Q

What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children?

A

Viral

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216
Q

Differentials in children with diarrhoea?

A

Infection
IBD
Lactose intolerance
Coeliac disease
Cystic fibrosis
Toddler’s diarrhoea
IBS
Medications

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217
Q

Causes of viral gastroenteritis?

A

Rotavirus
Norovirus
Adenovirus - more associated with subacute illness

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218
Q

What does E.coli 0157 produce?

A

Shiga toxin which causes abdominal cramps, bloody diarrhoea and vomiting

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219
Q

What is associated with E.coli 0157 infection?

A

Shiga toxin destroys red blood cells and can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome

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220
Q

Why should antibiotics be avoided if E. coli gastroenteritis is suspected?

A

Antibiotics increase risk of haemolytic uraemic syndrome

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221
Q

How is E.coli transmitted?

A

Infected faeces
Unwashed salads
Contaminated water

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222
Q

How is campylobacter jejuni transmitted?

A

Raw or improperly cooked poultry
Untreated water
Unpasteurised milk

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223
Q

Antibiotic of choice when treating campylobacter jejuni gastroenteritis?

A

Azithromycin
Ciprofloxacin

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224
Q

Symptoms of campylobacter jejuni gastroenteritis and incubation period?

A

Incubation; 2-5 days
Symptoms; abdominal pain, diarrhoea, vomiting, fever

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225
Q

Principles of managing gastroenteritis?

A

Barrier nursing and rigorous infection control
Faecal sample tested with microscopy, culture and sensitivities
Ensure well hydrated status and consider electrolyte replacement with dioralyte
Antidiarrhoeal and antiemetic is not generally recommended

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226
Q

What is coeliac disease?

A

Autoimmune reaction triggered by exposure to gluten resulting in inflammation in the small bowel

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227
Q

Pathophysiology of coeliac disease?

A

Exposure to gluten results in autoantibodies created against gluten
Auto antibodies target epithelial cells leading to inflammation
Inflammation leads to malabsorption of nutrients

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228
Q

Presentation of coeliac disease?

A

Failure to thrive
Diarrhoea
Fatigue
Weightloss
Mouth ulcers
Anaemia secondary to iron, B12, folate deficiency
Dermitis herpetiformis

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229
Q

Genetic associations with coeliac disease?

A

HLA - DQ2
HLA- DQ8

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230
Q

Auto- antibodies present in coeliac disease?

A

Tissue transglutaminase- anti- TTG
Endomysial antibodies - anti endomysial
Deaminated gliadin peptide antibodies

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231
Q

Investigations to diagnose coeliac disease?

A

Bloods; check antibodies when patient is eating gluten
Endoscopy and biopsy

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232
Q

What is seen on biopsy in coeliac disease?

A

Crypt hypertrophy
Villous atrophy

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233
Q

Diseases associated with coeliac disease?

A

Type I diabetes mellitus
Thyroid disease
Autoimmune hepatitis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Down’s syndrome

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234
Q

Complications of untreated coeliac disease?

A

Vitamin deficiency /anaemia
Osteoporosis
Ulcerative jejunitis
Enteropathy- associated T-cell lymphoma of the intestine
Non- Hodgkin lymphoma
Small bowel adenocarcinoma

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235
Q

Extra intestinal manifestations of IBD?

A

Finger clubbing
Erythema nodorsum
Pyoderma gangrenousum
Episcleritis/ Iritis
Inflammatory arthritis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (UC)

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236
Q

Investigations performed in IBD?

A

Bloods
Faecal calprotectin
Endoscopy+ biopsy
Imaging to look for complications

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237
Q

Management of Crohn’s disease?

A

Induce/ maintain remission;
Steroids; Monitor nutrition, growth
If inadequet response add immunosuppression; first line is azathioprine/ mercaptopurine alternatives are methotrexate, infliximab, adalimumab
When combination of steroids and immunosepressants induce remission continue maintaince therapy

Surgical resection, if disease only affects distal ileum resection can reduce disease flares

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238
Q

Management of ulcerative collitis?

A

Induce remission for mild to moderate disease;
First line; aminosalicylate
Second line; corticosteroid

Induce remission for severe disease;
First line; IV corticosteroid
Second line; IV ciclosporin

Maintaining remission;
Aminosalicylate, Azathioprine, Mercaptopurine

Surgery
Only affects colon, total pan proctocolectomy with ileostomy or J-pouch can cure disease

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239
Q

What is biliary atresia?

A

Congenital narrowing of the bile duct resulting in cholestasis

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240
Q

What is the key finding in biliary atresia?

A

High conjugated bilirubin’

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241
Q

Management of biliary atresia?

A

Surgery; Kasai portoenterostomy
Sometimes patients require a full liver transplant

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242
Q

Causes of intestinal obstruction?

A

Meconium ileus
Hirschsprung’s disease
Oesophageal atresia
Duodenal atresia
Intussusception
Malrotation with volvulus
Strangulated hernia

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243
Q

Presentation of intestinal obstruction?

A

Persistent vomiting, may be bilious
Abdominal pain with distention
Failure to pass stool or wind
Abnormal bowel sounds; high pitched tinkling sounds, may also be absent

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244
Q

Investigations to diagnose intestinal obstruction?

A

Abdominal Xray

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245
Q

Management of bowel obstruction?

A

Refferal to surgery
Nil by mouth
Insert NG tube
IV fluids

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246
Q

What is hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Congenital absence of the nerves of the myenteric plexus in the distal bowel and rectum which affects bowel peristalsis

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247
Q

Pathophysiology of hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells due to incomplete migration from proximal bowel during embryonic development
Aganglionic section does not under go peristalsis leading to obstruction

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248
Q

Genetic associations of hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Down’s syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
Waardenburg syndrome
MEN II

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249
Q

Presentation of hirschsprung disease?

A

Delay in passing meconium
Chronic constipation since birth
Abdominal pain and distention
Vomiting
Poor weight gain and failure to thrive

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250
Q

What is Hirschsprung associated enterocollitis?

A

Inflammation and obstruction of intesting occuring around 20% of neonates affected with hirschsprung

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251
Q

Presentation of Hirschsprung associated enterocollitis?

A

2-4 weeks after birth
Fever
Abdominal distention
Diarrhoea often bloody
Can lead to toxic mogacolon

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252
Q

Management of Hirschsprung?

A

surgical removal of aganglionic bowel

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253
Q

Investigations to diagnose hirschspring’s?

A

Abdominal x-ray
Rectal biopsy

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254
Q

Associations of Intussusception?

A

Concurrent viral Illness
Henoch- Schoniein purpura.
cystic fibrosis
Intestinal polyps
Meckel’s diverticulum

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255
Q

Presentation of Intussusception?

A

Severe colicy abdominal.pain
Pale, lethargic, unwell child
Redcurrent jelly stool
RUQ mass ; Sausage shaped
Vomit

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256
Q

Complications of bowel obstruction?

A

Obstruction
Gangrenous bowel
Perforation
Death

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257
Q

How is insulin administered in type 1 diabetes?

A

combination of long acting, given once a day and short acting injected 30 minutes before intake of carbohydrates

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258
Q

What is the name of the Insulin regime?

A

Basal bolus regime
Basal- long acting, usually taken at night
Bolus - short acting taken around times of meals

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259
Q

Types of insulin pumps?

A

Tethered pump
Patch pump

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260
Q

What is an insulin pump?

A

Device that continuously infuses insulin at different rates

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261
Q

Inclusion criteria for use of insulin pump?

A

Over 12 years
Difficulty controlling HbA1c

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262
Q

What is a tethered insulin pump?

A

device with replaceable infusion sets and insulin

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263
Q

What is a patch pump?

A

Sits directly on skin and needs full replacement when pump runs out of insulin

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264
Q

Symptoms of a hypoglycaemic event?

A

Hunger
Tremor
Sweating
Irritability
Dizziness
Pallor
Reduced conciousness

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265
Q

Management of hypoglycaemia?

A

Rapid acting glucose such as lucozade and slower acting
Severe cuses can be given IV 10% dextrose or IM glucagon

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266
Q

How is Type I diabetes monitored in children?

A

HbAlc every 3-6 months in a red top EDTA bottle
Capillary blood glucose or flash glucose monitoring

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267
Q

What is diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Life threatening emergency experienced by type 1 diabetics due to absolute lack of insulin

Is a common way for undiagnosed T1DM to present in children

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268
Q

When does ketogenesis occur?

A

Glucose stores have been exhausted so fatty acids are converted to ketones to be used as fuel

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269
Q

Pathophysiology of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Lack of insulin leads to ketogenesis making blood more acidic, leading to dehydration and potassium imbalance

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270
Q

What happens to the potassium balance in DKA?

A

Insulin normally drives potassium into cells so in DKA potassium is high

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271
Q

Why are children with DKA at risk of cerebral oedema?

A

In DKA hyperglycaemia and hyperkalaemia lead to water leaving cells and entering extracellular space, rapid correction of dehydration can cause cerebral oedema

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272
Q

Presentation of DKA?

A

Polyuria
Polydipsia
Nausea and vomiting
Weight loss
Acetone smell in breath
Dehydration
Altered consciousness
Symptoms of an underlying trigger

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273
Q

What is required for diagnosis of DKA?

A

Hyperglycaemia; 11mmol/l
Ketosis; >3mmol/l
Acidosis; ph <7.3

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274
Q

Management of DKA in children?

A

Correct dehydration over 48 hours
Give fixed rate insulin infusion

Avoid fluid bolus, correct potassium, monitor for signs of cerebral oedema

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275
Q

What is adrenal insufficiency?

A

Lack of steroid hormones produced by the adrenal glands, particularly cortisol and aldosterone

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276
Q

Types of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Addisons disease; specific type of primary insufficiency as a result of autoimmune attack

Secondary insufficiency; inadequate ACTH secretion from pituitary gland due to hypoplasia of pitutiary, surgery, infection, radiotherapy

Tertiary insufficiency; inadequate CRH release from hypothalamus

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277
Q

Features of adrenal insufficiency in babies?

A

Lethargy
Vomiting
Poor feeding
Hypoglycaemia
Jaundice
Failure to thrive

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278
Q

Features of adrenal insufficiency in children?

A

Nausea and vomiting
Poor weight gain/ weight loss
Reduced appetite
Abdominal pain
Muscle weakness/ cramps
Developmental delay/ poor academic performance
Bronze hyperpigmentation

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279
Q

Investigations performed to diagnose adrenal insufficiency?

A

U+E; hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia

Synacthen test

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280
Q

Management of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Replace cortisol; hydrocortisol
Replace mineralocorticoid; Fludrocortisone
Patient is given steroid card and emergency ID tag

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281
Q

Monitoring requirement for children diagnosed with adrenal insufficiency?

A

Regular review by paediatric specialist to monitor for;
Growth and development
Blood pressure
U+E
Glucose
Bone profile
Vitamin D

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282
Q

How should steroids be adjusted during a time of acute illness?

A

Increase steroid dose
Has risk of hypoglycaemia so ensure high carbohydrate diet

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283
Q

Presentation of addisonian crisis?

A

Reduced conciousness
Hypotension
Hypoglycaemia

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284
Q

Management of addisonian crisis?

A

Parenteral steroids
IV fluids
Correct hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia

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285
Q

What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Congenital deficiency of 21-hydroxylase enzyme causing an underproduction of cortisol and aldosterone and overproduction of androgens

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286
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Autosomal recessive

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287
Q

Pathophysiology of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

21-hydroxylase enzyme is responsible for converting progesterone to aldosterone and cortisol. Hence progesterone is converted into excess amounts of testosterone resulting in low aldosterone and cortisol with high testosterone

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288
Q

Presentation of CAH?

A

Poor feeding, vomiting, dehydration, arrhythmia, skin hyperpigmentation

Female patients; tall for their age, facial hair, absent periods, deep voice, early periods

Male patients; Tall for age, deep voice, large penis, small testicles, early puberty

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289
Q

Management of CAH?

A

Hydrocortisone, Fludrocortisone replacement
Females with virilised genitals may require corrective surgery

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290
Q

What is growth hormone deficiency?

A

Disruption of growth hormone axis

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291
Q

Causes of growth hormone deficiency?

A

Congenital; GH1 mutation, GHRHR mutation
Empty sella syndrome
Acquired deficiency; infection, trauma, iatrogenic

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291
Q

Presentation of growth hormone deficiency in neonates?

A

Micropenis
Hypoglycaemia
Severenjaundice

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292
Q

Presentation of growth hormone deficiency in children?

A

Poor growth, severely slowing from age 2-3
Short stature
Slow development of movement and strength
Delayed puberty

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293
Q

Investigations to diagnose growth hormone deficiency?

A

Growth hormone stimulation test
MRI
Xray
Genetic test

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294
Q

Management of growth hormone deficiency?

A

Daily SC growth hormone (somatropin)
Close monitoring of height and development

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295
Q

Symptoms of a UTI in babies?

A

Fever
Lethargy
Irritability
Vomiting
Poor feeding
Urinary frequency

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296
Q

Symptoms of UTI in children?

A

Fever
Abdominal pain/ suprapubic pain
Vomiting
Dysuria
Urinary frequency
Incontinence

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297
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosing acute pyelonephritis?

A

Temperature greater than 38
Loin pain/ tenderness

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298
Q

Investigations to diagnose UTI?

A

Urine dip; nitrates, leukocytes
Mid stream sample for cultures and sensitivity

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299
Q

Management of UTI in children?

A

Children under 3 months; IV antibiotics; ceftriaxone

Children over 3 months; oral antibiotics; Trimethoprim, Nitrofurantoin, Cefalexin, Amoxicillin

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300
Q

Investigations for recurrent UTI?

A

Children under 6 months with first UTI should have USS within 6 weeks
If infected with atypical antibiotics should have USS during time of illness

DMSA scan; 4-6 months from illness to assess damage from recurrent/ atypical UTI

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301
Q

What is vesico-ureteric reflux?

A

Tendency of urine to flow back from bladder into ureter which increases risk of upper urinary tract infection and subsequent renal scarring

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302
Q

How is vesico-ureteric reflux diagnosed?

A

Micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG)

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303
Q

Management of vesico-ureteric reflux?

A

Avoid constipation
Avoid an excessively full bladder
Prophylactic antibiotics
Surgical input from paediatric urology

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304
Q

What is an MCUG?

A

Used to investigate atypical/ recurrent UTI in children under 6 months

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305
Q

What is vulvovaginitis?

A

Inflammation and irritation of the vulva and vagina affecting girls between ages of 3 and 10 years

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306
Q

Risk factors for vulvovaginitis?

A

Wet nappies
Use of chemicals or soaps in cleaning the area
Tight clothing that traps moisture or sweat in the area
Constipation
Threadworm
Pressure on the area, e.g horse riding
Heavy chlorinated pools

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307
Q

How does puberty affect incidence of vulvovaginitis?

A

Oestrogen keeps vaginal mucosa healthy and restraint to infection

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308
Q

Presentation of vulvovaginitis?

A

Soreness
Itching
Erythema around the labia
Vaginal discharge
Dysuria
Constipation

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309
Q

How to differentiate UTI and vulvovaginitis?

A

Urine dipstick will show leukocytes but no nitrates

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310
Q

Management of vulvovaginitis?

A

No medical management just conservative measures to improve symptoms

Avoid washing with soap and chemicals
Avoid perfumed or antiseptic products
Good toilet hygiene
Keep the area dry
Emollients
Loose cotton clothing
Treat constipation and worms
Avoid activities that worsen problem

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311
Q

What is the most common age for nephrotic syndrome?

A

2-5 years old

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312
Q

Classic triad for nephrotic syndrome? and other signs and symptoms

A

Hypoalbuminaemia
Proteinuria
Oedema

De-ranged lipid profile
Hypertension
Hyper-coaguability

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313
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

Minimal change disease

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314
Q

Causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Intrinsic kidney disease; Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

Secondary causes; Henoch- Schonlein purpura, diabetes, Infections

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315
Q

Pathophysiology of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Increased permeability of the glomerular basement membrane allowing proteins to leave blood and enter urine

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316
Q

Management of minimal change disease?

A

High dose steroids (In steroid resistant cases ACE-i and immunosuppressants are used)
Low salt diets
Diuretics
Albumin infusions
Antibiotic prophylaxis in severe cases

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317
Q

What is the regimen of steroids in nephrotic syndromes?

A

High dose steroids given for 4 weeks and slowly weened over the next 8 weeks

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318
Q

Complications of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Hypovolaemia
Thrombosis
Infection
Acute/ chronic renal failure
Relapse

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319
Q

What is nephritis?

A

Inflammation of the nephrons of the kidney

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320
Q

Triad of nephritic syndrome?

A

Haematuria
Hypertension
Protienuria

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321
Q

Common cause of nephritic syndrome in children?

A

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

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322
Q

Pathophysiology of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

1-3 weeks following infection with beta haemolytic streptococcus

Streptococcal antigen immune complexes, antibodies and complement proteins attach to kidney glomeruli and cause inflammation leading to acute kidney injury

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323
Q

What is IgA nephropathy?

A

AKA Berger’s disease where IgA deposits in nephrons of the kidney leading to inflammation

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324
Q

What is seen on biopsy in IgA nephropathy?

A

IgA deposits
Glomerular mesangial proliferation

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325
Q

Management of nephritic syndrome?

A

Supportive treatment
Antihypertensive
Immunosuppression; steroids and immunosuppresants

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326
Q

What is haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Thrombosis within small vessels throughout the body triggered by the shiga toxin

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327
Q

Triad of Haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Haemolytic anaemia
AKI
Thrombocytopenia

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328
Q

Aetiology of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Shiga toxin

Most commonly produced by E.coli 0157, shigella

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329
Q

Signs and symptoms of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Reduced urine output
Haematuria
Abdominal pain
Lethargy and irritability
Confusion
Oedema
Hypertension
Bruising

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330
Q

Prognosis of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Medical emergency and 10% mortality

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331
Q

Management of HUS?

A

Antihypertensives
Maintain fluid balance
Blood transfusion and dialysis if required

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332
Q

By what age do children have control over urination?

A

Daytime; 2 years
Night time; 3-4 years

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333
Q

What is primary nocturnal enuresis?

A

When a child has never managed to be consistently dry at night

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334
Q

Causes of primary nocturnal enuresis?

A

Variation on normal development
Overactive bladder
Fluid intake prior to bedtime
Failure to wake due to deep sleep or underdeveloped bladder signals
Psychological distress
Secondary causes

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335
Q

Investigations to manage enuresis?

A

2 week diary of toileting, fluid intake, bedwetting episodes

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336
Q

Management of primary nocturnal enuresis?

A

Reassurance in children under 5 years
Lifestyle changes; reduce fluid intake before bed, go to toilet before sleeping
Encouragement and positive re-inforcement
Treat underlying cause and exacerbating factors
Enuresis alarms
Pharmacological treatment

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337
Q

What is secondary nocturnal enuresis?

A

A child who has previously been dry at night for atleast 6 months begins bed wetting

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338
Q

Causes of secondary nocturnal enuresis?

A

UTI
Constipation
T1DM
New psychosocial problems
Maltreatment

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339
Q

What is diurnal enuresis?

A

Daytime incontinence

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340
Q

Causes of diurnal enuresis?

A

Urge incontinence
Stress incontinence
Recurrent UTI
Psychosocial problems
Constipation

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341
Q

Medical management of enuresis?

A

Desmopressin
Oxybutynin
Imipramine

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342
Q

Which type of polycystic kidney disease presents in children?

A

Autosomal recessive

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343
Q

Cause of ARPKD?

A

Mutation in polycystic kidney and hepatic disease 1 (PKHD 1) gene on chromosome 6 which codes for fibrocystin/ polyductin protein complex which creates tubules and maintains healthy epithelium in kidney, liver and pancreas

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344
Q

Features of ARPKD?

A

Cystic enlargement of renal collecting duct
Oligohydramnios
Pulmonary hypoplasia
Potter syndrome
Congenital liver fibrosis
Usually can can polycystic kidneys on antenatal scans

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345
Q

What causes potter syndrome?

A

Oligohydramnios

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346
Q

Characteristics of Potter syndrome?

A

Underdeveloped ear cartilage
Low set ears
Flat nasal bridge
Skeletal abnormalities

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347
Q

Prognosis of ARPKD?

A

Poor; around 1/3 will die as a neonate and 1/3 will not make it to adulthood

Oligohydramnios leads to poor development of lungs

Large cystic kidneys take up too much space and make breathing difficult

Many require dialysis in first few days of life and then are in end stage renal failure before reaching adulthood

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348
Q

Co-morbidities associated with ARPKD?

A

Liver failure
Portal hypertension
Progressive renal failure
Hypertension
Chronic lung disease

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349
Q

What is Wilms tumour?

A

Tumour of kidneys affecting children usually under the age of 5

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350
Q

Presentation of Wilms tumour?

A

Abdominal pain
Haematuria
Lethargy
Fever
Hypertension
Weight loss

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351
Q

Investigations for Wilms tumour?

A

Ultrasound scan
CT/ MRI; staging
Biopsy; histology and make definitive diagnosis

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352
Q

Management of Wilms tumour?

A

Surgical excision and adjuvant therapy

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353
Q

What is a posterior urethral valve?

A

Tissue at the proximal end of the urethra causes obstruction to urine output creating back pressure into the bladder, ureters and up to kidney causing hydronephrosis

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354
Q

Presentation of posterior urethral valve?

A

Difficulty urinating
Weak urinary stream
Chronic urinary retention
Palpable bladder
Recurrent UTI
Impaired kidney function

In severe cases can cause bilateral hydronephrosis in-utero and is seen on USS

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355
Q

Investigations to diagnose posterior urethral valve?

A

Abdominal USS; enlarged thickened bladder, bilateral hydronephrosis
MCUG; shows location of extra-urethral tissue
Cystoscopy

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356
Q

Management of posterior urethral valve?

A

Ablation/ removal of excess tissue

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357
Q

Risk factors for undescended testes?

A

Family history
Low birth weight, SGA, Premature
Maternal smoking during pregnancy

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358
Q

At what age is referral needed for undescended testes?

A

6 months

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359
Q

Management of undescended testes?

A

Orchidopexy

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360
Q

What is hypospadias?

A

Urethral meatus is abnormally displaced posteriorly on the penis

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361
Q

Management of hypospadias?

A

Do not circumsise infant until urologist has seen
Surgical correction

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362
Q

Complications of hypospadias?

A

Difficulty directing urination
Cosmetic/ psychological concerns
Sexual dysfunction

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363
Q

Differentials for scrotal swelling?

A

Hydrocele
Partially descended testes
Inguinal hernia
Testicular torsion
Haematoma
Tumour

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364
Q

What is a hydrocele?

A

Collection of fluid in tunica vaginalis

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365
Q

Types of hydrocele?

A

Simple hydrocele fluid collection is reabsorbed over time

Communicating hydrocele; connection between peritoneum and scrotum called processus vaginalis allows fluid to collect in testes

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366
Q

Management of hydrocele?

A

Most resolve spontaneously
For large; surgical ablation of processus vaginalis

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367
Q

Issues surrounding neonatal resuscitation?

A

Large surface area to weight ratio so get cold quickly
Babies are born wet so lose heat rapidly
Babies born through meconium may have it in their mouth/ airway

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368
Q

Principles of neonatal resuscitation?

A

Warm the baby
Calculate APGAR score
Stimulate breathing
Inflation breaths

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369
Q

How can the baby be kept as warm as possible after delivery?

A

Dry baby as quickly as possible, vigorous drying can help stimulate
Place under heat lamps
Babies under 28 weeks are placed in plastic bag

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370
Q

How can breathing be stimulated in the neonate?

A

Keep head in neutral position to keep airway open
Place towel under shoulders

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371
Q

How are inflation breaths provided to neonate?

A

When neonate is gasping or not breathing despite stimulation
Two cycles of 5 inflation breaths lasting 5 seconds, if no response then 30 seconds of ventilation breaths, if still no response then start chest compressions coordinated with ventilation breaths

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372
Q

What is the APGAR score?

A

Score ranging from 0 to 10 rating 5 features of newborn

Appearance
Pulse
Grimmace
Activity
Respiration

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373
Q

What are the benefits of delayed umbilical cord clamping?

A

Placental transfusion, can help improve iron stores, improve blood pressure, reduction in intraventricular haemorrhage and reduction in necrotising enterocollitis

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374
Q

What are the negatives of delayed cord clamping?

A

Risk of neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy

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375
Q

What happens to the neonates straight after birth?

A

Skin to skin
Clamp umbilical cord
Dry the baby
Keep baby warm with hat and blanket
Vitamin K injection
Label baby
Measure height and weight

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376
Q

Why is vitamin K given to newborn?

A

Vitamin K is needed for clotting and babies are born deficient

Helps reduce haemorrhage, especially through umbilical stump

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377
Q

Benefits of skin to skin contact?

A

Keeps baby warm
Improves mother and baby interaction
Calms baby
Improves breast feeding

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378
Q

When is the NIPE completed?

A

Within 72 hours from birth

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379
Q

When is the blood spot screening test completed?

A

day 5, maximum day 8

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380
Q

What conditions are screened for in the heel prick test?

A

Sickle cell disease
Cystic fibrosis
Congenital hypothyroidism
Phenylketonuria
Medium chain acyl- CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
Maple syrup urine disease
Isovaleric acidaemis
Glutaric aciduria type 1
Homocystin

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381
Q

How long do results of heel prick test take?

A

6-8 weeks

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382
Q

When is the NIPE examination performed?

A

72 hours post birth
6-8 weeks by GP

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383
Q

What is the purpose of the NIPE examination?

A

Pick up abnormalities in the newborn

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384
Q

What is caput succedaneum?

A

Fluid collection in the scalp outside the periosteum due to pressure on a specific area on the scalp during traumatic, prolonged or instrumental delivery

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385
Q

Management of caput succedaneum?

A

Nothing, usually resolves in a few days

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386
Q

What is a cephalohaematoma?

A

Collection of blood between skull and periosteum caused by damage to blood vessels during traumatic, prolonged or instrumental delivery

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387
Q

How is caput succedaneum differentiated from cephalohaematoma?

A

In cephalohaematoma does not cross suture lines and causes discolouration of affected skin

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388
Q

Management of cephalohaematoma?

A

Usually resolves over a couple of months

Monitor for anaemia and jaundice

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389
Q

What is facial paralysis?

A

Birth injury usually associated with forceps delivery due to facial nerve injury

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390
Q

Prognosis of facial paralysis as a result of birth injury?

A

Function returns to normal in a couple of weeks

If function does not return, then referral to neurologist is needed

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391
Q

What is Erb’s palsy?

A

Injury to C5/C6 nerves of the brachial plexus during birth

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392
Q

Risk factors for Erb’s palsy?

A

Shoulder dystocia
Traumatic birth
Instrumental delivery
Large birth weight

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393
Q

Presentation of Erb’s palsy?

A

Weakness of shoulder abduction and external rotation, arm flexion and finger extension leading to waiter tip appearance

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394
Q

Prognosis of Erb’s palsy?

A

Function returns spontaneously within a few months

If not then specialist input may be required

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395
Q

Risk factors for clavicle fracture?

A

Shoulder dystocia
Traumatic delivery
Instrumental delivery
Large birth weight

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396
Q

Signs on examination indicating fractured clavicle?

A

Noticeable lack of movement/ asymmetry of movement in the affected arm
Asymmetry of the shoulders with affected shoulder lower than normal
Pain and distress on movement of the arm

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397
Q

What is neonatal sepsis?

A

Infection in neonatal period

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398
Q

Causative agents of neonatal sepsis?

A

Group B streptococcus
E.coli
Listeria
Klebsiella
Staphylococcus aureus

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399
Q

Risk factors for neonatal sepsis?

A

Vaginal GBS colonisation
GBS sepsis in previous baby
Maternal sepsis, chorioamnionitis, fever over 38
Prematurity
Premature rupture of membranes
Prolonged rupture of membranes

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400
Q

Features of neonatal sepsis?

A

Fever
Reduced tone and activity
Poor feeding
Respiratory distress
Vomiting
Tachycardia/ Bradycardia
Hypoxia
Jaundice within 24 hours
Seizures
Hypoglycaemia

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401
Q

Red flags for neonatal sepsis?

A

Confirmed/ suspected sepsis in mother
Signs of shock
Seizures
Term baby needing mechanical ventilation
Respiratory distress staring more than 4 hours after birth
Presumed sepsis in another baby in a multiple pregnancy

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402
Q

Management of neonatal sepsis?

A

one RF for sepsis; monitor for 12 hours
two or more RF or red flag start antibiotics
Take blood cultures before antibiotics
Baseline FBC and CRP

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403
Q

Antibiotic of choice for neonatal sepsis?

A

Benzylpenicillin, gentamycin
Cefotaxime can be used in lower risk

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404
Q

Monitoring requirements for neonatal sepsis?

A

CRP in 24 hours
Blood cultures in 36 hours

Repeat CRP at 5 days

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405
Q

What is hypoxic ishcaemic encephalopathy?

A

Neurological malfunction as a result of hypoxia during child birth resulting in ischaemic damage to the brain tissue which can lead to permanent neurological damage

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406
Q

When should you suspect hypoxic ishcaemic encephalopathy?

A

Events during perinatal/ intrapartum period which could lead to hypoxia
Acidosis in umbilical artery blood gas
Poor APGAR score

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407
Q

Causes of hypoxic ishcaemic encephalopathy?

A

Maternal shock
Intrapartum haemorrhage
Prolapsed cord
Nuchal cord

408
Q

What staging system is used to grade hypoxic ishcaemic encephalopathy?

A

Sarnat staging

409
Q

Grading of hypoxic ishcaemic encephalopathy?

A

Mild;
Poor feeding, generally irritable, hyper-alert, resolves within 24 hours, normal prognosis

Moderate;
Poor feeding, lethargic, hypotonic, seizures, can take weeks to resolve, up to 40% develop cerebral palsy

Severe;
Reduced consciousness, apnoea, flaccid, reduced/ absent reflexes, up to 50% mortality, upto 90% develop cerebral palsy

410
Q

Management of hypoxic ishcaemic encephalopathy?

A

Coordinated by neonatology
Supportive care with ventillation, circulatory support, nutrition, acid base balance
Therapeutic hypothermia

411
Q

What is the benefit of therapeutic hypothermia?

A

Reduce inflammation and neurone loss after acute hypoxic injury and helps reduce risk of cerebral palsy, developmental delay, learning disability, blindness, death

412
Q

Pathophysiology of jaundice?

A

Rapid foetal RBC haemolysis leads to build up of bilirubin

413
Q

Causes of neonatal jaundice?

A

Increased production of bilirubin;
Haemolytic disease of newborn, ABO incompatibility, Haemorrhage, Intraventricular haemorrhage, Cephalo-haematoma, Polycythaemia, Sepsis and DIC, G6PD deficiency

Reduced bilirubin clearnace;
Prematurity, breast milk jaundice, Neonatal cholestasis, Extrahepatic biliary atresia, Endocrine disorders, Gilbert syndrome

414
Q

At which point in the neonatal period is jaundice always pathological?

A

In the first 24 hours

415
Q

What is defined as prolonged jaundice?

A

More than 14 days in full term babies

More than 21 days in pre-term babies

416
Q

Causes of prolonged jaundice?

A

Biliary atresia
Hypothyroidism
G6PD deficiency

417
Q

Investigations performed in neonatal jaundice?

A

FBC and blood film
Conjugated bilirubin
Blood type test
Direct coombes test
TFT
Blood and urine culture
G6PD levels

418
Q

Management of neonatal jaundice?

A

Supportive management
Treat cause
Phototherapy

419
Q

What is Kernicterus?

A

Type of brain damage as a result of excessive bilirubin levels

420
Q

Pathophysiology of Kernicterus?

A

Bilirubin crosses BBB and directly damages CNS presenting with less responsive, floppy, drowsy baby

This damage is permanent

421
Q

What can Kernicterus lead to?

A

Cerebral palsy
Learning difficulty
Deafness

422
Q

Risk factors for prematurity?

A

Social deprivation
Smoking, alcohol, drugs
Overweight/ underweight mother
Maternal co-morbidities
Twins
Personal/ family history of prematurity

423
Q

How can prematurity be prevented if symptoms show before 24 weeks?

A

Prophylactic vaginal progesterone
Prophylactic cervical cerclage

424
Q

When pre-term birth is confirmed what can be done to improve outcomes?

A

Tocolysis with nifedipine
Maternal corticosteroids before 35 weeks
IV MgSO4 before 34 weeks
Delayed cord clamping

425
Q

Issues in early life of neonates with prematurity?

A

Respiratory distress syndrome
Hypothermia
Hypoglycaemia
Poor feeding
Apnoea and bradycardia
Neonatal jaundice
Intraventricular haemorrhage
Retinopathy of prematurity
Necrotising enterocolitis
Immature immune system and infection

426
Q

Long term effects of prematurity?

A

Chronic lung disease of prematurity
Learning and behavioral difficulties
Susceptible to infections
Hearing and visual impairment
Cerebral palsy

427
Q

What is apnoea?

A

Periods of spontaneous cessation of breathing for more than 20 seconds with oxygen desaturation, bradycardia

428
Q

Causes of apnoea?

A

Immaturity of autonomic nervous system and can be an indicator of developing illness;
Infection
Anaemia
Airway obstruction
CNS pathology
GORD
Neonatal abstinence syndrome

429
Q

Management of apnoea?

A

Attach neonate to apnoea monitor
Tactile stimulation
IV caffeine

430
Q

What is retinopathy of prematurity?

A

Abnormal development of blood vessels in the retina leading to scarring, retinal detachment and blindness

431
Q

Who is at risk of developing retinopathy of prematurity?

A

Those born before 32 weeks

432
Q

Pathophysiology of retinopathy of prematurity?

A

Retinal vessel formation is stimulated by hypoxia, so higher concentrations of oxygen after delivery means stimulus for vessel development is removed
When hypoxic environment returns abnormal vessel formation along with scar tissue formation
Abnormal vessels may regress and leave retina with no blood supply

433
Q

What is plus disease?

A

additional findings of retinopathy such as tortuous vessels, hazy vitreous humour

434
Q

Treatment for retinopathy of prematurity?

A

Transpupillary laser photocoagulation
Cryotherapy
Intravitreal VEGF inhibitors
Surgery

435
Q

What is seen on chest X-ray in respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Ground glass appearance

436
Q

Pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Inadequate surfactant release leads to high surface tension in alveoli leading to atelectasis making gas exchange difficult leading to respiratory distress and type 2 respiratory failure

437
Q

Management of respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Antenatal steroids for women in pre-term labour
Neonates may require intubation and ventilation, endotracheal surfactant, CPAP and supplemental oxygen

438
Q

At what gestation does respiratory distress syndrome commonly occur?

A

before 32 weeks

439
Q

What is necrotising enterocolitis?

A

necrosis of premature bowel which is a life threatening emergency leading to bowel perforation and death

440
Q

Risk factors for developing necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Very low birth weight/ very premature
Formula fed
Respiratory distress and assisted ventilation
Sepsis
PDA/ other congenital heart defect

441
Q

Presentation of necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Intolerance to feed
Vomiting, green bilious
Generally unwell
Distended tender abdomen
Absent bowel sounds
Blood in stool

If perforated presents with peritonitis, shock

442
Q

Investigations to diagnose necrotising enterocolitis?

A

FBC; thrombocytopenia, neutropenia
CRP; inflammation
Capillary blood gas
Blood culture

Abdominal X-ray; dilated loops of bowel, bowel wall oedema, pneumatosis intestinalis, pneumoperitoneum

443
Q

Management of neonatal necrotising enterocollitis?

A

Nil by mouth, IV fluids and TPN
Antibiotics
Surgery to remove necrotic bowel

444
Q

Complications of neonatal enterocollitis?

A

Perforation, peritonitis
Sepsis
Death
Strictures
Abscess formation
Recurrence
Long term stoma
Short bowel syndrome

445
Q

What is neonatal abstinence syndrome?

A

Withdrawal symptoms experienced by neonates born to mothers who used substances during pregnancy

446
Q

Substances that cause neonatal abstinence syndrome?

A

Opiates
Methadone
Benzodiazepines
Cocaine
Amphetamines
Nicotine
Cannabis
Alcohol
SSRI antidepressants

447
Q

When do withdrawal symptoms present?

A

Opiates, diazepam, SSRI, alcohol; 3-72 hours after birth

Methadone, benzodiazepines; 24 hours to 21 days

448
Q

Presentation of neonatal abstinence syndrome?

A

CNS; irritability, increased tone, high pitched cry, not settling, tremors, seizures

Vasomotor and respiratory; Yawning, sweating, unstable temperature, tachypnoea

Metabolic and gastrointestinal; poor feeding, regurgitation, vomiting, hypoglycaemia, loose stools and sore nappy area

449
Q

Management of neonatal abstinence syndrome?

A

Keep babies for at least 3 days, test urine sample

Consider weaning treatment

Medical management options; phenobarbitone

450
Q

Additional considerations for neonates with abstinence syndrome?

A

Testing for hepatitis B, C and HIV
Safeguarding and social services
Follow-up with relevant professionals
Maternal support to stop using substance
Check suitability for breastfeeding

451
Q

Alcohol in early pregnancy can lead to?

A

Miscarriage
Small for dates baby
Preterm delivery

452
Q

Features of fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Microcephaly
Thin upper lip
Smooth flat philtrum
Short palpable fissure
Learning disability
Behavioral difficulty
Hearing and vision problems
Cerebral palsy

453
Q

What is sudden infant death syndrome?

A

Sudden, unexplained death of infant

454
Q

Risk factors for SIDS?

A

Prematurity
Low birth weight
Smoking during pregnancy
Male baby

455
Q

What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Autoimmune inflammation of the joints affecting children and adolescents

456
Q

What is the key presentation of inflammatory arthritis?

A

Joint pain
Swelling
Stiffness

457
Q

Subtypes of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Systemic JIA
Polyarticular JIA
Oligoarticular JIA
Enthesitis related arthritis
Juvenile psoriatic arthritis

458
Q

Presentation of Still’s disease (Systemic JIA)?

A

Salmon pink rash
High swinging fever
Enlarged lymph nodes
Weight loss
Joint inflammation and pain
Splenomegaly
Muscle pain
Pleuritis/ pericarditis

459
Q

Blood results in systemic JIA?

A

anti-ANA, RF; negative

Raised CRP, ESR, platelets and serum ferritin

460
Q

Complication of systematic JIA?

A

Macrophage activation syndrome

severe activation of the immune system with a massive inflammatory response

461
Q

Presentation of macrophage activation syndrome?

A

Acutely unwell child
DIC
Anaemia
Thrombocytopenia
Bleeding
Non blanching rash

462
Q

What is a key finding in macrophage activation syndrome?

A

Low ESR

463
Q

What is polyarticular JIA?

A

Seronegative Idiopathic arthritis affecting 5 or more joints in the body
Tends to be symmetrical

464
Q

Presentation of polyarticular JIA?

A

Symmetrical joint involvement
Mild fever
Anaemia
Reduced growth

465
Q

What is the paediatric equivalent of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Polyarticular JIA

466
Q

What is oligoarticular JIA?

A

Inflammation of 4 or less joints

467
Q

Epidemiology of oligoarticular JIA?

A

Affects girls more than boys
Tends to affect large joints

468
Q

Associations of oligoarticular JIA?

A

Anterior uveitis

469
Q

Blood results in oligoarticular JIA?

A

anti ANA positive
RF negative

470
Q

What is enthesitis related arthritis?

A

Inflammatory joint arthritis with enthesitis

471
Q

Epidemiology of enthesitis related arthritis?

A

More common in male children over 6 years

472
Q

Genetic association of enthesitis related arthritis?

A

HLA- B27

473
Q

Associations of enthesitis related arthritis?

A

Psoriasis
IBD
Anterior uveitis?

474
Q

Presentation of enthesitis related arthritis

A

Localised tenderness of entheses;
Interphalengeal joint of hands
Wrist
Greater trochanter
Quadricep insertion on ASIS
Around patella
Base of achilles at the calcaneous
Metatarsal head

475
Q

What is juvenile psoriatic arthritis?

A

Seronegative inflammatory arthritis associated with psoriasis presenting with symmetrical small joint polyarthritis and asymmetrical arthritis affecting large joints

476
Q

Signs of juvenile psoriatic arthritis?

A

Plaques of psoriasis on skin
Nail pitting
Oncholysis
Dactylitis
Enthesitis

477
Q

Management of JIA?

A

NSAIDs; ibuprofen
Steroids
DMARD; methotrexate, sulfasalazine, leflunomide
Biological therapy; TNF-inhibitors (etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab)

478
Q

What is Ehlers- Danlos syndrome?

A

Group of genetic conditions causing defects in collagen resulting in hypermobility of joints and connective tissue defects

479
Q

Types of Ehlers- Danlos syndrome?

A

Hypermobile; joint hypermobility, soft stretchy skin
Classical ; smooth, velvety stretchy skin, severe joint hypermobility and abnormal wound healing
Vascular; most dangerous, fragile blood vessels, thin translucent skin
Kyphoscoliotic; hypotonia, as child grows kyphoscoliosis

480
Q

Mode of inheritance of Ehlers- Danlos syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant for all other types apart from hypermobile

Hypermobile has no single mode of inheritance

481
Q

Most common presentation of Ehlers- Danlos syndrome?

A

Hypermobile Ehlers- Danlos syndrome

482
Q

Presentation of Ehlers- Danlos syndrome?

A

Joint pain
Hypermobility in joints
Joint dislocation
Soft stretchy skin
Easy bruising and poor wound healing
Bleeding
Headache
Autonomic dysfunction
GORD
Abdominal pain, IBS
Menorrhagia, dysmenorrhoea
Premature rupture of membranes in pregnancy
Urinary incontinence
Pelvic organ prolapse
TMJ dysfunction
Myopia

483
Q

What is the use of the Beighton score?

A

Assess extent of hypermobility

484
Q

Components of the Beighton score?

A

Palms flat on the floor with straight legs (1 point)
Elbows hyperextended
Knees hyperextended
Thumbs can bend and touch forearm
Little finger hyperextends past 90 degres

485
Q

Management of Ehlers- Danlos syndrome?

A

No cure
Physiotherapy to strengthen and stabilise joints
Occupational therapy to maximise function
Maintain good posture in joints
Moderate intensity of exercise

486
Q

Complications of hypermobility?

A

Increased wear and tear of joints so generalised osteoarthritis at an earlier age

487
Q

Association of hypermobile Ehlers- Danlos syndrome?

A

POTS
Due to autonomic dysfunction

488
Q

What is Henoch- Schonlein Purpura?

A

IgA vasculitis presenting with purpuric rash usually triggered by URTI or gastroenteritis

489
Q

Epidemiology of HSP?

A

Often previous URTI or gastroenteritis
Commonly affects children under 10 years

490
Q

Features of HSP?

A

Purpura; purple in colour typically on legs and buttock
Joint pain; affects 3/4 of patients typically affecting knee and ankle joint
Abdominal pain; 50% of patients and can lead to haemorrhage, intussusception and infarction
Renal involvement; IgA nephritis

491
Q

Investigations to diagnose HSP?

A

FBC; thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
U+E- kidney function
Serum albumin
CRP, Blood cultures
Urine dipstick and PCR
Blood pressure

492
Q

Criteria to diagnose HSP?

A

Palpable purpura and one more of the following;
Diffuse abdominal pain
Arthritis/ arthralgia
IgA deposits on histology
Proteinuria or haematuria

493
Q

Management of HSP?

A

Supportive; analgesia
Steroids can be considered in severe cases of GI or renal involvement

Close monitoring of urine dipstick and BP

494
Q

Prognosis of HSP?

A

Abdominal pain settles in a few days and those with no renal involvement will make full recovery

1/3 of patients have recurrence in 6 months and some develop ESRF

495
Q

What is Kawasaki disease?

A

Systemic vasculitis of medium sized vessels

496
Q

Epidemiology of kawasaki disease?

A

Under 5 years
More common in Asian chidlren; Japanese and Korean
More common in boys

497
Q

Presentation of Kawasaki disease?

A

Persistent high fever for more than 5 days
Widespread erythematous maculopapular rash

Cervical lymphadenopathy
Bilateral conjunctivitis
Strawberry tongue
Cracked lips

498
Q

Investigations to diagnose Kawasaki disease?

A

FBC; anaemia, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis
LFT; hypoalbuminaemia, elevated liver enzymes
ESR; raised
Urinalysis; leukocytes
Echo; coronary artery aneurysm

499
Q

Phases of Kawasaki disease?

A

Acute; unwell, fever, rash, lymphadenopathy, lasting 1-2 weeks

Subacute; desquamation, arthralgia, risk of coronary artery aneurysm forming, 2-4 weeks

Convalescent; symptoms disappear, coronary artery aneurysm regress

500
Q

Management of Kawasaki disease?

A

High dose aspirin
IVIG- reduce risk of coronary artery aneurysm

501
Q

Complication of Kawasaki disease?

A

Coronary artery aneurysm

502
Q

What is rheumatic fever?

A

Autoimmune condition triggered by streptococcus bacteria affecting joints, heart, skin and nervous system

503
Q

Pathophysiology of rheumatic fever?

A

Infection with group A beta haemolytic streptococcus triggers production of antibodies against bacteria, Immune cross reaction results in these antibodies attacking cells of immune system

504
Q

Presentation of rheumatic fever?

A

Joint involvement; arthritis affecting large joints

Heart involvement; tachycardia, bradycardia, mitral valve disease, pericardial rub, heart failure

Skin; subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum

505
Q

Investigations to diagnose rheumatic fever

A

Throat swab
Anti streptococcal titres
Echo, ECG, CXR

506
Q

What is the criteria used to diagnose rheumatic fever?

A

Jones criteria

507
Q

What is the course of anti streptococcal antibody titres?

A

Rise over 2-4 weeks
Peaks around 3-6 weeks
Gradually fall over 3-12 months

508
Q

What are the components of the Jones criteria?

A

Requires two major or one major and 2 minor criteria

Major criteria;
Joint arthritis
Organ inflammation
Nodules
Erythema marginatum
Sydenham chorea

Minor;
Fever
ECG changes
Arthralgia without arthritis
Raised inflammatory markers

509
Q

Management of rheumatic fever?

A

NSAIDs
Aspirin and steroids
Prophylactic antibiotics
Monitor for complications

510
Q

Complications of rheumatic fever?

A

Recurrence of rheumatic fever
Mitral stenosis
Chronic heart failure

511
Q

What is eczema?

A

Chronic atopic condition caused by defects in skin barrier leading to inflammation of the skin

512
Q

Pathophysiology of eczema?

A

Defects in skin barrier provides gaps for irritants, microbes and allergens to enter and stimulate an immune response resulting in inflammation

513
Q

Presentation of eczema?

A

Dry, red, itchy, sore patches on flexor surfaces of limbs , face and neck

Periods to flares

514
Q

Management of eczema?

A

Maintenance with emollients
Topical steroids

515
Q

Steroid ladder used to treat eczema?

A

Hydrocortisone; 0.5, 1%, 2.5%
Eumovate; clobetasone butyrate 0.05%
Betnovate; betamethasone 0.1%
Dermovate; clobetasol propionate 0.05%

516
Q

What is eczema herpeticum?

A

Viral skin infection caused by HSV, VZV

517
Q

Causes of eczema herpeticum?

A

Herpes simplex virus
Varicella zoster virus

518
Q

Risk factors for eczema herpeticum?

A

Dermatitis
Eczema

519
Q

How is rash is in eczema herpeticum described?

A

Erythematous, painful, itchy rash with vesicles and pus

After they burst the leave small punched out ulcers

519
Q

Presentation of eczema herpeticum?

A

Widespread pain vesicular rash
Fever, lethargy, irritability
Reduced oral intake
Lymphadenopathy

520
Q

Management of eczema herpeticum?

A

Viral swab of vesicle
Acyclovir

521
Q

Complication of eczema herpeticum?

A

Bacterial superinfection requiring antibiotics

522
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

Chronic autoimmune condition producing psoriatic skin lesions

523
Q

Description of psoriatic plaques?

A

Dry, flaky, scaly, rough, faintly erythematous lesions that appear in raised plaques

Found on extensor surfaces

524
Q

Types of psoriasis?

A

Plaque; Thickened plaques with silver scales

Guttate; Small raised papules across trunk and limbs, spontaneously resolves within 3-4 months, triggered by streptococcal throat infection

Pustular; pustular lesions under skin, most severe form with systemic symptoms requiring hospital admission

Erythodermic; extensive erythematous inflammation covering most surface area of skin resulting in ulceration requiring admission

525
Q

Most common type of psoriasis in children?

A

Guttate

526
Q

Signs specific to psoriasis?

A

Auspitz sign; small points of bleeding when plaques are scraped off

Koebner phenomenon; development of psoriasis in areas of trauma

Residual pigmentation; after lesion resolves

527
Q

Management of psoriasis?

A

Topical steroids
Topical vitamin D
Topical dithranol
Phototherapy

If all topical treatments failed unlicensed medications can be trialed such as oral methotrexate, cyclosporine, retinoids or biologic medications

528
Q

What additional treatment options are available for psoriasis in adults?

A

Topical tarcolimus
Vit D and steroid combo; Dovobet, Enstilar

529
Q

Associations of psoriasis?

A

Nail psoriasis
Psoriatic arthritis
Psychological implications

530
Q

Pathophysiology of acne?

A

Localised inflammation in pilosebaceous unit due to blockage and stagnant sebum providing nutrients for bacterial growth

531
Q

What bacteria contributes to acne?

A

propionibacterium acnes

532
Q

Step wise treatment for acne?

A

Topical benzoyl peroxide
Topical retinoid
Topical antibiotic such as clindamycin
Oral antibiotic such as lymecycline
Oral COCP; dianette

533
Q

Side effects of isotretinoin?

A

Dry skin and lips
Photosensitivity
Depression, anxiety, aggression, suicidal ideation
Stevens Johnson syndrome/ Toxic epidermal necrolysis

534
Q

What is viral exanthem?

A

Widespread eruptive rash caused by 6 infections known as first, second, third, fourth, fifth and sixth disease

535
Q

Causes of viral exanthems?

A

First disease; Measels
Second disease; Scarlet fever
Third disease; Rubella
Fourth disease; Duke’s disease
Fifth disease; Parovirus B19
Sixth disease; Roseola infantum

536
Q

Causes of measels?

A

Measels virus

537
Q

Presentation of measels?

A

Symptoms start 10-12 days after exposure
Fever
Coryzal symptoms
Conjunctivitis
Koplik spots; greyish white sports on buccal mucosa
Rash starting on face, behind ear, and then spreads across body
Symptoms resolve in 7 to 1- days

538
Q

Isolation requirements following measels?

A

4 days after symptoms resolve

539
Q

Complications of measels?

A

Pneumonia
Diarrhoea
Dehydration
Encephalitis/ meningitis
Hearing, vision loss
Death

540
Q

Cause of scarlet fever?

A

Group A streptococcus exotoxin

541
Q

Presentation of scarlet fever?

A

Red-pink blotchy rough sandpaper like rash that starts on trunk and spreads
Fever
Lethargy
Flushes face
Sore throat
Strawberry tongue
Cervical lymphadenopathy

542
Q

Management of scarlet fever?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days

543
Q

Exclusion period for scarlet fever?

A

24 hours after starting antibiotics

544
Q

Conditions associated with group A streptococcus?

A

Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Acute rheumatic fever

545
Q

Presentation of rubella?

A

Erythematous macular rash starting on face and spreads to rest of the body lasting 3 days

Mild fever, joint pain, sore throat

Lymphadenopathy

546
Q

Exclusion period for rubella?

A

atleast 5 days after rash appears

547
Q

Complications of rubella?

A

Thrombocytopenia
Encephalitis
Congenital rubella syndrome

548
Q

What is Duke’s disease?

A

AKA fourth disease
No specific organism has been found to cause it…. may not even exist

549
Q

Presentation of Duke’s disease?

A

Non specific viral rashes

550
Q

Other names for parovirus B19 infection?

A

Fifth disease
Slapped cheek syndrome
Erythemia infectiosum

551
Q

Presentation of Parovirus B19 infection?

A

Mild fever, coryza and non specific viral symptoms
After 2-5 days rapidly occuring bright red rash appears on both cheeks
Erythematous reticular rash appears on trunk and limbs

Gradually fades over 1-2 weeks

552
Q

Exclusion period for parovirus B19?

A

None, once rash has appeared non infectious

553
Q

Complications of parovirus B19 infection?

A

Aplastic anaemia
Encephalitis/ meningitis
Pregnancy complications
Rarely hepatitis, myocarditis, nephritis

554
Q

What is the cause of roseola infantum?

A

Human Herpes Virus-6 and HHV-7

555
Q

Course of roseola infantum?

A

Presents 1-2 weeks after infection with high fever that comes on suddenly and lasts 3-5 days and disappears

Rash appears 1-2 days after fever consisting of mild erythematous macular rash across arms, legs, trunk and face which is not itchy

556
Q

Complication of roseola infantum?

A

Febrile convulsion

Immunocompramised patients; Myocarditis, thrombocytopenia, GBS

557
Q

What is erythema multiforme?

A

Erythematous rash caused by hypersensitivity reaction

558
Q

Causes of erythema multiforme?

A

Viral infection
Medication
Herpes simplex virus
Mycoplasma pneumonia

559
Q

Presentation of erythema multiforme?

A

Widespread erythematous itchy rash producing characteristic target lesions

Sore mouth

Mild fever, muscle ache, headache, general flu like symptoms

560
Q

Management of erythema multiforme?

A

Treat the cause
IV fluid, analgesia, steroids

561
Q

What is utricaria?

A

Hives

Small itchy lumps that appear on skin

Classified as acute or chronic

562
Q

Pathophysiology of utricaria?

A

Release of histamine from mast cells resulting in skin changes

563
Q

Causes of acute utricaria?

A

Allergy to food, medication, animals
Contact with chemicals, latex or stinging nettles
Medications
Viral infections
Insect bites
Dermatographism

564
Q

Causes of chronic utricaria?

A

Chronic idiopathic utricaria

Chronic inducible utricaria;
Sunlight
Temperature change
Exercise
Strong emotion
Hot/ cold weather
Pressure

Autoimmune

565
Q

Management of Utricaria?

A

Antihistamine; Fexofenadine

Anti-leukotrienes; montelukast

Omalizumab; targets IgE

Cyclosporin

566
Q

What is the cause of chickenpox?

A

Varicella zoster virus

567
Q

Presentation of chickenpox?

A

Widespread erythematous, raised vesicular blistering lesions
Rash starts on trunk and spreads outward over 2-5 days
Fever
Itchy
General fatigue and malaise

568
Q

When is chickenpox no longer contagious?

A

When all lesions have scabbed over

569
Q

Complications of chickenpox?

A

Bacterial superinfection
Dehydration
Conjunctival lesions
Pneumonia
Encephalitis
Lie dormant in sensory dorsal root ganglion cells and cranial nerve and reactivate as shingles or Ramsay Hunt syndrome

570
Q

Management of chickenpox?

A

Usually self limiting condition not requiring treatment

Calamine lotion, chlorphenamine

Aciclovir can be considered in immunocompromised or over 14 years

571
Q

School exclusion for chickenpox?

A

Until all lesions have crusted over, usually 5 days since rash appeared

572
Q

Cause of Hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Coxsackie A virus

573
Q

Incubation period for Coxsackie A virus?

A

3-5 days

574
Q

Presentation of Hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Starts as URTI with malaise, sore throat, dry cough and raised temperature

After 1-2 days small mouth ulcers appear followed by blistering red spots across the body mostly on hand, foot

Painful mouth ulcers, especially on tongue

575
Q

Management of Hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Supportive, no treatment

Monitor fluid intake, paracetamol

576
Q

Precautions with Hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Highly contagious
Avoid sharing sharing towels, bedding,
Careful handling of nappies

577
Q

Complications of Hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Dehydration
Bacterial superinfection
Encephalitis

578
Q

What is molluscum contagiosum?

A

Viral skin infection caused by molluscum contagiosum virus

579
Q

What type of virus is molluscum contagiosum?

A

Poxvirus

580
Q

Features of molluscum contagiosum?

A

Small flesh coloured papules with a central dimple
Appear in crops of multiple lesions in a local area

581
Q

Prognosis of molluscum contagiosum?

A

Resolve on their own, but can take upto 18 months

Scratching lesions can leave scars and spread infection

582
Q

Management of molluscum contagiosum in immunocompramised patients?

A

Topical potassium hydroxide, benzoyl peroxide, podophyllotoxin, imiquimod, tretinoin

Surgical removal, cryotherapy

583
Q

What is pityriasis rosea?

A

Generalised, self limiting rash which may be caused by either HHV-6, HHV-7 but no definitive cause is found

584
Q

Presentation of pityriasis rosea?

A

Prodromal symptoms; headache, tiredness, loss of appetite and flu like symptoms

Starts as herald patch; scaly pink/red oval rash >2cm usually somewhere on torso

Then widespread scaly oval lesions appear

Other symptoms; generalised itch, low grade pyrexia, headache, lethargy

585
Q

Course of disease in pityriasis rosea?

A

Rash resolves without treatment within 3 months

586
Q

Management of pityriasis rosea?

A

No treatment, patient education and reassurance

Antihistamine to help with itching

587
Q

What is seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

Inflammatory skin condition affecting sebaceous glands caused by malassezia yeast colonisation

588
Q

What is infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

Crusted flaky scalp which usually resolves by 4 months of age but can last upto 1 year

589
Q

Management of infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

Baby oil, olive oil to gently brush of flakes

White petroleum jelly

Topical antifungal; clotrimazole, miconazole

590
Q

What is seborrhoeic dermatitis of the scalp?

A

Dandruff

591
Q

Management of seborrhoeic dermatitis of the scalp?

A

Ketoconazole shampoo

592
Q

What is seborrhoeic dermatitis of the face and body?

A

Red, flaky, crusted, itchy skin commonly affecting eyelids, nasolabial folds, ears, upper chest and back

593
Q

What is ringworm?

A

Fungal infection of the skin with specific names based on which part of the body is affected

Tinea capitis; ringworm of scalp
Tinea pedis; feet, AKA athletes foot
Tinea cruris; groin
Tinea corporis; body
Onychomycosis; fungal nail infection

594
Q

Most common fungus responsible for ringworm infection?

A

Trichophyton

594
Q

Presentation of ringworm?

A

Well demarcated itchy erythematous rash

Thickened discoloured nails

595
Q

Management of ringworm?

A

Antifungal cream; cotimazole, miconazole
Antifungal shampoo
Oral antifungal; fluconazole, griseofluvin, itraconazole
Mild topical steroid; Daktacort
Fungal nail; amorolfine lacquer +/- oral terbinafine

596
Q

Composition of Daktacort?

A

2% miconazole
1% hydrocortisone cream

597
Q

What is tinea incognito?

A

Fungal skin infection as a result of steroid use to treat initial fungal infection

598
Q

Causes of nappy rash?

A

Bacterial; staphylococcus, streptococcus
Fungus; candida

599
Q

What is a nappy rash?

A

Contact dermatitis in region of nappy

600
Q

Risk factors for nappy rash?

A

Delayed changing of nappies
Irritant soap products and vigorous cleaning
Poorly absorbent nappies
Diarrhoea
Oral Abx that predispose to candida infection
Preterm infants

601
Q

Signs that would point to candida infection rather than simple nappy rash?

A

Rash extending into skin folds
Large red macules
Well demarcated scaly border
Circular pattern to rash
Satellite lesions

602
Q

Management of nappy rash?

A

Switch to highly absorbent nappy
Change nappy and clean skin as soon as possible
Use water or gentle alcohol free products
Ensure nappy area is dry
Maximise time not wearing nappy

603
Q

Complications of nappy rash?

A

Candida infection
Cellulitis
Jacquet’s erosive diaper dermatitis
Perianal psuedoverrucous papules and nodules

604
Q

What is scabies?

A

Tiny mites called sacroptes scabiei which burrow under the skin causing intense itching and infection

605
Q

Cause of scabies?

A

sacroptes scabiei

606
Q

Presentation of scabies?

A

Incredibly itchy, small, red spots
Track marks from where mites may have burrowed
Classically found in the webs of fingers

607
Q

Management of scabies?

A

Permethrin cream; apply to whole body and then wash 8-12 hours later

Repeat treatment in one week

Single dose oral ivermectin is last option for difficult to treat scabies

Treat close contacts as disease is contagious, all clothes, bedsheets and linen should be washed

608
Q

What is cluster scabies?

A

Severe scabies infestation in those who are immunocompramised

609
Q

Cause of headlice?

A

Pediculus humanus capitis parasite

610
Q

Management of head lice?

A

Dimeticone 4% solution is left overnight then washed, repeat in 1 week

611
Q

What is the cause of a non-blanching rash?

A

Bleeding under the skin resulting from burst capillaries

612
Q

Causes of a non-blanching rash?

A

Meningococcal sepsis/ other bacterial sepsis
Henoch Schonlein purpura
Idipathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Acute leukaemia
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Mechanical trauma; usually around neck and face
Trauma; non accidental injury
Viral illness

613
Q

Investigations to help identify cause of non blanching rash?

A

FBC
U+E
CRP
ESR
Coagulation screen
Blood culture
Meningococcal PCR
Lumbar puncture
Blood pressure
Urine dipstick

614
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

Red lumps appear across patients shin due to inflammation of subcutaneous fat on patient shin due to hypersensitivity reaction

615
Q

Associations of erythema nodosum?

A

Streptococcal throat infection
Gastroenteritis
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Pregnancy
Medications; oral contraceptives
IBD
Sarcoidosis
Lymphoma/ leukaemia

616
Q

Presentation of erythema nodosum?

A

Red inflamed subcutaenous nodules across both shins
Raised, painful tender nodules
Over time nodules settle and appear as bruises

Investigations may be required to diagnose cause

617
Q

Investigations to diagnose erythema nodosum?

A

Inflammatory markers
Throat swab
Chest Xray
Stool microscopy/ culture
Faecal calprotectin

618
Q

Management of erythema nodosum?

A

Investigations to find underlying cause
Analgesia and steroids

Usually resolves in 6 weeks

619
Q

What is impetigo?

A

Superficial skin infection caused by staphylococcus infection

620
Q

Classification of impetigo?

A

Bullous
Non bullous

621
Q

Presentation of non bullous impetigo?

A

Occurs around nose or mouth
Exudate forms golden crust
No systemic symptoms

622
Q

Management of non bullous impetigo?

A

Topical fusidic acid
Hydrogen peroxide 1%

Oral flucloxicillin for severe cases

623
Q

School exclusion for non bullous impetigo?

A

Until lesions have crusted
Until 48 hours since commencing antibiotics

624
Q

Presentation of bullous impetigo?

A

Fluid filled vesicles that grow and burst forming a golden crust
More common in neonates and those under 2 years
Systemic symptoms

625
Q

Management of bullous impetigo?

A

Oral/ IV flucloxicillin

626
Q

Complications of impetigo?

A

Cellulitis
Sepsis
Scarring
Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Staphylococcus scalded skin syndrome
Scarlet fever

627
Q

What is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

Epidermolytic toxins secreted by staph aureus are protease enzymes which damage skin

628
Q

Presentation of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

Generalised patches of erythema
Thin skin
Nikolsky sign; gentle rubbing causes skin to peel away
Systemic symptoms

629
Q

What is Nikolsky sign?

A

Nikolsky sign; gentle rubbing causes skin to peel away

630
Q

Treatment of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

IV antibiotics

631
Q

What is Stevens- Johnson syndrome?

A

Immune response causes epidermal necrolysis resulting in blistering and shedding of top layer of skin

632
Q

Difference between Stevens- Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis?

A

Stevens- Johnson syndrome affects < 10% of BSA

Toxic epidermal necrolysis affects >10%

633
Q

Causes of Stevens- Johnson syndrome?

A

Genetics; HLA

Medications; anti-epileptics, antibiotics, allopurinol, NSAIDs

Infection; Herpes simplex, mycoplasma pneumoniae, CMV, HIV

634
Q

Presentation of Stevens- Johnson syndrome?

A

Systemic illness symptoms
Skin blistering
Skin breaks leaving raw tissue exposed
Eyes become inflammed and ulcerated

635
Q

Management of Stevens- Johnson syndrome?

A

Supportive care
Steroids
Immunoglobulins
Immunosuppressant

636
Q

Complications of Stevens- Johnson syndrome?

A

Secondary infection
Permanent skin damage
Visual complications

637
Q

Most common cause of anaemia in infancy?

A

Physiological anaemia of infancy

638
Q

Causes of anaemia in infancy?

A

Physiological
Anaemia of prematurity
Blood loss
Haemolysis; haemolytic disease of newborn, hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency
Twin-twin transfusion

639
Q

Pathophysiology of physiological anaemia of infancy?

A

Normal dip in Hb at 6-9 weeks

Negative feedback in response to high oxygen delivery suppressing erythropoietin

640
Q

Why are premature infant prone to anaemia compared to term infants?

A

Less time in-utero receiving iron from mother
RBC production cannot keep up with rapid growth in first few weeks
Blood tests remove significant volumes of blood

641
Q

Causes of anaemia in older children?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia
Blood loss
Sickle cell anaemia
Thalassaemia
Leukaemia
Hereditary spherocytosis/ eliptocytosis
Sideroblastic anaemia

642
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

Thalassaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease
IDA
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anaemia

643
Q

Causes of normocytic anaemia?

A

Acute blood loss
Anaemia of chronic disease
Aplastic anaemia
Haemolytic anaemia
Hypothyroidism

644
Q

Causes of macrocytic anaemia?

A

Megaloblastic; B12, folate deficiency

Normoblastic;
Alcohol
Reticulocytosis
Hypothyroidism
Liver disease
Drugs such as azathioprine

645
Q

Symptoms of anaemia?

A

Tiredness
Shortness of breath
Headache
Dizziness
Palpitations
Worsening of other conditions

Pica and hairloss indicate IDA

646
Q

Signs of anaemia?

A

Pale skin
Conjunctival pallor
Tachycardia
Raised respiratory rate

Koilonychia, angular cheilitis, atrophic glossitis, brittle hair and nails, indicate IDA

Jaundice; haemolytic anaemia

Bone deformities; Thalassaemia

647
Q

Investigations performed for suspected anaemia?

A

FBC; Hb and MCV
Blood film
Reticulocyte count
Ferritin
B12 and folate
Bilirubin
Direct coombes test
Hb electrophoresis

648
Q

Causes of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Menorrhagia
Low dietary intake
Poor absorption; coeliac, IBD, IBS
Helminth infection
Medication; PPI

649
Q

Iron studies results on iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Low iron
Low ferritin, can be raised if patient has infection
Transferrin saturation; low

650
Q

Management of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Treat underlying cause
Ferrous sulphate/ ferrous fumarate

651
Q

Types of leukaemia which affect children?

A

ALL
AML
CML; rare

652
Q

Epidemiology of leukaemia?

A

ALL; peaks around age 2-3 years
AML; peaks under age 2

653
Q

Risk factors for leukaemia?

A

Genetic; Down’s syndrome, Kleinfelter, Noonan, Fanconi’s anaemia

Radiation exposure,

654
Q

Symptoms of leukaemia?

A

Persistent fatigue
Unexplained fever
Failure to thrive
Weight loss
Pallor
Petechiae
Unexplained bleeding
Abdominal pain
Generalised lymphadenopthy
Unexplained persistent bone/ joint pain
Hepatosplenomegaly

655
Q

Investigations to diagnose leukaemia?

A

FBC; pancytopenia, but high WCC of proliferating cell line
Blood film; blast cells
Bone marrow/ lymph node biopsy

656
Q

Management of paediatric leukaemia?

A

Chemotherapy is primary treatment
Radiotherapy, bone marrow transplant or surgery can be considered

657
Q

Complications of chemotherapy in children?

A

Failure to treat leukaemia
Stunted growth and development
Immunodeficiency/ infections
Neurotoxicity
Infertility
Secondary malignancy
Cardiotoxicity

658
Q

Which paediatic leukaemia has a better prognosis ?

A

ALL

659
Q

What is idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Spontaneous low platelet count with a purpuric non blanching rash

660
Q

Pathophysiology of ITP?

A

Type II hypersensitivity reaction due to antibodies that target platelets

661
Q

Causes of ITP?

A

Viral infection trigger
Idiopathic

662
Q

Presentation of ITP?

A

Bleeding
Bruising
Petechial rash - around 1mm

Symptom onset 24-48 hours

663
Q

Epidemiology of ITP?

A

Children under 10 years
History of recent viral illness

664
Q

Differentials for ITP?

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
Leukaemia

665
Q

Management of ITP?

A

Usually monitor until platelet count returns to normal

Treatment if actively bleeding or severe thrombocytopenia <10;
Prednisolone
IVIG
Blood transfusion

Caution with activities which may cause bleeding, avoid NSAIDs, seek attention if injury

666
Q

Why are platelet infusions avoided in ITP?

A

Antibodies will destroy platelets

667
Q

Complications of ITP?

A

Chronic ITP
Anaemia
Intracranial and subarachnoid haemorrhage
Gastrointestinal bleeding

668
Q

What is sickle cell anaemia?

A

Genetic condition producing crescent shaped red blood cells, making them more fragile leading to haemolytic anaemia

669
Q

Pathophysiology of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Abnormal Hb variant (HbS) affect beta globin chain causing Hb to polymerise and make red cells less stable

670
Q

Genetic change in sickle cell anaemia?

A

Single base mutation changing 6th amino acid to valine instead of glutamic acid

671
Q

Inheritance of sickle cell anameia?

A

Autosomal recessive

672
Q

Advantage of being a sickle cell carrier?

A

Reduced severity of malaria infection

673
Q

How is sickle cell anameia diagnosed?

A

Those women at higher risk are offered antenatal screening

All newborns are screened during 5 day heel prick test

674
Q

Complications of sickle cell anaemia?

A

Anaemia
Increased risk of infection
Stroke
Avascular necrosis of large joints
Pulmonary hypertension
Priaprsm
CKD
Sickle cell crises
Acute chest syndrome

675
Q

Management of those with sickle cell?

A

Avoid dehydration and triggers for crisis
Ensure vaccines are upto date
Blood transfusion
Bone marrow transplant can be curative

676
Q

Triggers for sickle cell crisis?

A

Infection
Dehydration
Cold
Significant life events

677
Q

Management of sickle cell crisis?

A

Treat infection
Keep warm
Hydration
Simple analgesia

678
Q

What is a vaso-occlusive crisis?

A

Painful crisis caused by blockage of capillaries typically caused by deydration

Commonly results in priapism

679
Q

What is splenic sequestration crisis?

A

RBC block flow to spleen causing acute painful splenomegaly resulting in severe anaemia and hypovolaemic shock

680
Q

Management of splenic sequestration crisis?

A

Splenectomy

681
Q

What can recurrent splenic crisis lead to?

A

Splenic infarction

682
Q

What is an aplastic crisis?

A

Loss of RBC production most commonly triggered by parovirus B19 leading to severe anaemia

683
Q

Management of aplastic crisis?

A

Blood transfusion and supportive care

684
Q

Criteria to diagnose acute chest syndrome?

A

Fever/ respiratory symptoms
New infiltrates seen on CXR

685
Q

Cause of acute chest syndrome?

A

Infection; pneumonia, bronchiolitis
Pulmonary vaso occlusion

686
Q

Management of acute chest syndrome?

A

Supportive
Antibiotics, antivirals
Incentive spirometry
Artificial ventilation

687
Q

Inheritance mode for thalassaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive

688
Q

Why do patients with thalassaemia have pronounced forehead and malar eminence?

A

Bone marrow expands to compensate for chronic anaemia

689
Q

Features of thalassaemia?

A

Microcytic anaemia
Fatigue
Pallor
Jaundice
Gallstone
Splenomegaly
Poor growth and development
Pronounced forehead and malar eminence

690
Q

Investigations to diagnose thalassaemia?

A

FBC; microcytic anaemia
Hb electrophoresis
DNA testing

691
Q

Features of iron overload?

A

Fatigue
Liver cirrhosis
Infertility
Impotence
Heart failure
Arthritis
Diabetes
Osteoporosis/ joint pain

692
Q

Cause of alpha thalassaemia?

A

Defect in alpha globin chain on chromosome 16

693
Q

Cause of beta thalassaemia?

A

Defect in beta globin chain on chromosome 11

694
Q

Types of beta thalassaemia?

A

Minor
Intermedia
Major

695
Q

Features of beta thalassaemia minor?

A

Carries one abnormal and one normal functioning gene

Microcytic anaemia, typically only need monitoring

696
Q

Features of beta thalassaemia intermedia?

A

2 defective copies

Causes more significant microcytic anaemia

Require monitoring and occasional blood transfusions

697
Q

Features of beta thalassaemia major?

A

Homozygous for deletion, no functioning beta globin gene

Results in severe microcytic anaemia, splenomegaly, bone deformities

Require regular transfusion, iron chelation, splenectomy and bone marrow transfusion

698
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Sphere shaped red blood cells which are more fragile and easily destroyed as they pass through spleen

699
Q

Epidemiology of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Most common form of haemolytic anaemia in northern europeans

700
Q

Presentation of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Jaundice
Anaemia
Gallstones
Splenomegaly

Haemolytic crisis

701
Q

Presentation of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Significant haemolysis, anaemia, jaundice

Usually triggered by infection

702
Q

How is hereditary spherocytosis diagnosed?

A

Family history and clinical features
Blood film; spherocytes
MCHC raised
Raised reticulocytes

703
Q

Management of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Folate supplementation
Splenectomy
Cholecystectomy
Transfusions in acute crisis

704
Q

Inheritance patterns of hereditary spherocytosis/ elliptocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

705
Q

Inheritance for G6DP deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive

706
Q

Epidemiology of G6PD deficiency?

A

More common in males

Triggered by infection, medication and fava beans

707
Q

Pathophysiology of G6PD deficiency?

A

G6PD enzyme protects from damage by ROS, deficiency of enzyme leads to damage to RBC and increased haemolysis

708
Q

Presentation of G6PD deficiency?

A

Neonatal jaundice
Anaemia
Intermittent jaundice
Gallstones
Splenomegaly

709
Q

Investigations to diagnose G6PD deficiency?

A

Blood film; Heinz body
G6PD enzyme assay

710
Q

Management of G6PD deficiency?

A

Avoid triggers
Splenectomy

711
Q

Medications that trigger G6PD deficiency?

A

Primaquine
Ciprofloxacin
Nitrofurantoin
Trimethoprim
Sulphonylurea
Sulfasalazine

712
Q

What HPV strains does the HPV vaccine protect against?

A

6, 11, 16, 18

713
Q

Signs of sepsis?

A

Deranged physical observations
Prolonged CRT
Fever
Deranged behavior
Poor feeding
Inconsolable cry
Weak cry
Reduced conciousness
Reduced body tone
Skin colour changes

714
Q

Investigations for paediatric sepsis?

A

Blood tests; FBC, U+E, CRP, Clotting, lactate
Blood gas
Blood cultures
Urine dipstick, cultures and microscopy

715
Q

Management of paediatric sepsis?

A

IV access
IV fluids; 20ml/kg when lactate is above 2 or signs of shock
Antibiotics
Supplemental oxygen; below 94% or signs of shock

716
Q

Signs of meningococcal septicaemia?

A

Non blanching rash
DIC

717
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in neonate?

A

Group B streptococcus

718
Q

When is a lumbar puncture indicated in a child?

A

Under 1 month presenting with fever
1-3 months with fever and unwell
Under 1 year with unexplained fever, and other features of serious illness

719
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in children?

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae

720
Q

Presentation of meningitis in children?

A

Fever
Neck stiffness
Vomiting
Headache
Photophobia
Altered conciousness
Bulging fontanelle

721
Q

Tests to assess meningeal irritation?

A

Kernig’s tests
Brudzinski’s tests

722
Q

Management of bacterial meningitis?

A

Community; suspected meningitis, non blanching rash give IM benzylpenicillin

Hospital;
Under 3 months give cefotaxime and amoxicillin
Over 3 months give ceftriaxone

Steroids 4 times a day for 4 days in infants over 3 months

Single dose of ciprofloxacin to close contacts within 24 hours

723
Q

What is given to close contacts of a confirmed meningitis case?

A

Single dose ciprofloxacin

724
Q

Causes of viral meningitis?

A

HSV
VZV

725
Q

Complications of meningitis?

A

Hearing loss
Seizures and epilepsy
Cognitive impairment
Learning disability
Memory loss
Cerebral palsy

726
Q

Why are steroids given to children over 3 months with meningitis?

A

Reduce neurological complications, hearing loss

727
Q

Cause of encephalitis in children?

A

HSV-1, HSV-2
VZV
Chickenpox
CMV
EBV

728
Q

Presentation of encephalitis?

A

Altered consciousness, cognition
Unusual behavior
Acute onset/ focal neurological symptoms
Acute onset of focal seizures
Fever

729
Q

Investigations to diagnose encephalitis?

A

Lumbar puncture
CT/ MRI scan
EEG recording
Swabs
HIV testing

730
Q

Contraindications to LP in children?

A

GCS under 9
Hemodynamically unstable
Active seizure
Post ictal

731
Q

Management of encephalitis?

A

Aciclovir; HSV, VZV
Ganciclovir; CMV

732
Q

Complications of encephalitis?

A

Lasting fatigue
Prolonged recovery
Changes in personality, mood, cognition, memory and behaviour
Learning disability
Headache
Chronic pain
Movement disorders
Sensory disturbance
Seizure
Hormonal balance

733
Q

Causes of infectious mononucleosis?

A

EBV

734
Q

Where is EBV found?

A

Saliva of infected person

735
Q

Presentation of infectious mononucleosis?

A

Fever
Sore throat
Fatigue
Lymphadenopathy
Tonsillar enlargement
Splenomegaly
Itchy maculopapular rash upon receiving amoxicillin

736
Q

Investigations to diagnose infectious mononucleosis?

A

Heterophile antibody test; monospot test, paul-bunnell test

Specific antibody test for IgM and IgG

737
Q

Management of infectious mononucleosis?

A

Self limiting acute illness that lasts 2-3 weeks

738
Q

Complications of infectious mononucleosis?

A

Splenic rupture
Glomerulonephritis
Haemolytic anaemia
Thrombocytopenia
chronic fatigue
Burkitt’s lymphoa

739
Q

What is mumps?

A

Viral infection spread by respiratory droplets with an incubation period of 14-25 days

740
Q

Presentation of mumps?

A

Prodrome; flu like symptoms of fever, muscle ache, lethargy, reduced appetite, headache and dry mouth

Followed by parotid swelling with pain

741
Q

How is mumps diagnosed?

A

History
PCR testing of saliva

742
Q

Management of mumps?

A

Supportive
Notify public health

743
Q

Complications of mumps?

A

Pancreatitis
Orchitis
Meningitis
Sensorineural hearing loss

744
Q

How is HIV transmission during birth limited?

A

Depends on maternal viral load

if < 50; vaginal delivery
If >50 consider C-section
if >400 C-section
if >10000 give IV zidovudine

745
Q

If breastfeeding recommended in HIV positive mothers?

A

No- even if viral load is undetectable

746
Q

Indication to test children for HIV?

A

Parents are HIV positive
When immunodeficiency is suspected
Young people who are sexually active
Needle stick injury
Sexual abuse
IVDU

747
Q

When are babies born to HIV positive parents tested?

A

Viral load test at 3 months- if negative have not contracted HIV

HIV antibody test at 24 months; checks for exposure after 3 months test, should be negative unless breastfed

748
Q

Management of paediatric HIV?

A

Antiretroviral therapy
Continue with normal childhood vaccination- avoid live vaccines if severely immunocompramised
Prophylactic co-trimoxazole; prevent pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
Treat opportunistic infections

749
Q

What does paediatric HIV MDT involve?

A

Regular follow up to monitor growth and development
Dietician input for nutrition
Parental education
Disclosing diagnosis is often delayed to the child
Psychological support
Specific sex education when appropriate

750
Q

Risk of developing chronic hepatitis B infection?

A

90% in neonates
30% in children under 5
Less than 10% for adolescents

751
Q

Breastfeeding advice in hepatitis B postivie mother?

A

Safe to breastfeed in appropriately vaccinated children

752
Q

When to test children for hepatitis B?

A

After 12 months of age in positive mothers
After close contact

753
Q

Management of hepatitis B in children?

A

Regular monitoring of ALT, HbeAg, HBV DNA, physical

Consider antiviral medication if signs of hepatitis

754
Q

When are children born to hepatitis C positive mothers tested?

A

18 months

755
Q

Medical treatment of hepatitis C in children?

A

pegylated interferon, ribavirin

756
Q

Management of depression in children?

A

First line is psychological therapy with CBT, non directive supportive therapy, interpersonal therapy, family therapy

Medications; fluoxetine
second line; sertraline, citalopram….continue for 6 months after remission

Mood and feelings questionnaire can be used to assess progress

Consider admission in severe cases

757
Q

When should children be refferred to CAMHS for depression?

A

Moderate to severe depression

758
Q

How is GAD assessed in children?

A

GAD-7 anxiety questionnaire

759
Q

Management of GAD in children?

A

Mild; watch and wait, self help strategies

Moderate to severe; counselling, CBT, SSRI

760
Q

Associations of OCD?

A

Anxiety
Depression
Eating disorder
ASD
Phobia

761
Q

Management of OCD?

A

Education and self help
Referral to CAMHS
Patient and carer education
CBT
SSRI medication

762
Q

What is autism spectrum disorder?

A

Full range of people affected by a deficit in social interaction, communication and flexible behaviour

763
Q

Features of ASD?

A

Social interaction;
Lack of eye contact
Delay smiling
Avoid physical contact
Unable to read non verbal cues
Difficulty establishing friendships
Not displaying desire to share attention

Communication;
Delay, absence or regression in language development
Lack of appropriate non verbal communication
Difficulty with imaginative behaviour
Repetitive use of words/ phrases

Behaviour;
Greater interest in objects, numbers or patterns than people
Stereotypical repetitive movement
Intensive and deep interests that are persistent and rigid
Repetitive behaviour and fixed routine
Anxiety and distress working outside normal routine
Extremely restricted food preference

764
Q

Management of ASD?

A

MDT
Child psychology and CAMHS
SALT
Dietician
Peadiatrician
Social worker
Specially trained educators

765
Q

What is required for a diagnosis of ADHD?

A

Display of behavioral disturbance across all settings

766
Q

What is tourettes?

A

Development of tics which are persistent for 1 year

tics are involuntary movements or sounds performed repetitively throughout the day

767
Q

Associations of tourettes?

A

OCD
ADHD

768
Q

Management of tourettes?

A

Habit reversal training
Exposure with response prevention
Antipsychotic medications can be trialed

769
Q

What is Down’s syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21

770
Q

Features of Down’s syndrome?

A

Hypotonia
Bradycephaly
Short neck
Short stature
Flattened face and nose
Prominent epicanthic folds
Upward sloping palpable fissures
Single palmar crease

771
Q

Complications of Down’s syndrome?

A

Learning disability
Recurrent otitis media
Deafness
Visual problems; myopia, strabismus, cataracts
Hypothyroidism
Cardiac defects; ASD, VSD, PDA and tetralogy of fallot
Atlantoaxial instability
Leukaemia
Dementia

772
Q

Monitoring of Downs syndrome?

A

Regular thyroid check - every 2 years
Echocardiogram
Regular audiometry
Regular eye checks

772
Q

Management of Down’s syndrome?

A

MDT
Occupational therapy
SALT
Physiotherapy
Dietician
Paediatrician
GP
Health advisor
Cardiologist
ENT, audiology
Optician, ophthalmology
Social service
Educational support

773
Q

Prognosis of Down’s syndrome?

A

Varies based on severity of complications
Average life expectancy is 60 years

774
Q

Management of Kleinfelter syndrome?

A

Testosterone injections
Advanced IVF
Breast reduction surgery
SALT
Occupational therapy
Physiotherapy
Educational support

774
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Male has an additional X chromosome so phenotype is 47XXY

775
Q

Features of Kleinfelter syndrome?

A

Tall height
Wide hips
Gynaecomastia
Weak muscles
Small testicles
Reduced libido
Shyness
Infertility
Subtle learning difficulties

776
Q

What is turner’s syndrome?

A

Single X chromosome 45XO

776
Q

Prognosis of Kleinfelter syndrome?

A

Normal life expectancy

Increased risk of;
Breast cancer, osteoporosis, diabetes, depression

777
Q

Features of Turner’s syndrome?

A

Short stature
Webbed neck
High arched palate
Downward sloping eyes with ptosis
Broad chest with widely spaced nipples
Cubitus valgus
Underdeveloped ovaries and reduced function
Late or incomplete puberty
Infertile

778
Q

Associations of Turner syndrome?

A

Recurrent otitis media
Recurrent UTI
Coarctation of aorta
Hypothyroidism
Hypertension
Obesity
Diabetes
Osteoporosis
Various specific learning disabilities

779
Q

Management of Turners syndrome?

A

Growth hormone therapy
Oestrogen and progesterone
Fertility treatment

780
Q

Inheritance pattern for Noonan syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant

781
Q

Features of Noonan syndrome?

A

Short stature
Broad forehead
Downward sloping eyes with ptosis
Hypertelorism
Prominent nasolabial folds
Low set ears
Webbed neck
Widely spaced nipples

782
Q

Associations of noonan syndrome?

A

Congenital heart disease; pulmonary valve stenosis, HOCM, ASD
Cryptorchidism
Learning disability
Bleeding disorder
Increased risk of leukaemia or neuroblastoma

783
Q

Management of Noonan syndrome?

A

No treatment, manage symptoms, and mainly cardiac screening

784
Q

What is Marfans syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant connective tissue disease affecting fibrillin

785
Q

Features of marfans syndrome?

A

Tall stature
Long neck
Long limbs
Long fingers
High arch palate
Hypermobility
Pectus carinatum, pectus excavatum
Downward sloping palpable fissures

786
Q

Associations of marfans?

A

Lens dislocation in eye
Joint dislocation and pain due to hypermobility
Scoliosis
Pneumothorax
GORD
Mitral valve prolapse
Aortic valve prolapse
Aortic aneurysm

787
Q

Management of marfans?

A

Monitor for cardiac complications
Keep blood pressure and heart rate low

Annual echocardiogram and ophthalmology

788
Q

What is fragile X-syndrome?

A

Mutation of FMR1 gene on X chromosome which plays role in cognitive development

Fragile X Mental Retardation protein 1

789
Q

Inheritance mechanism of Fragile X?

A

X-linked

Hence always affects men but not alway women

790
Q

Features of fragile X?

A

Intellectual disability
Long narrow face
Large ears
Large testicles after puberty
Hypermobile joints
ADHD
Autism
Seizures

791
Q

What is Prada- Willi syndrome?

A

Deletion of functional gene on chromosome 15

792
Q

Features of Prada- Willi syndrome?

A

Constant insatiable hunger
Hypotonia
Mid- moderate learning disability
Hypogonadism
Fair, soft skin prone to bruising
Mental health, especially anxiety
Narrowed forehead
Almond shaped eyes
Strabismus
Thin upper lip
Downturned mouth

793
Q

Management of Prada- Willi syndrome?

A

Growth hormone
Dieticians
Educational support
Social worker
Psychologist
Physiotherapist
Occupational therapy

794
Q

Purpose of growth hormone in Prada- Willi syndrome?

A

Improve muscle development and body composition

795
Q

What is angelman syndrome?

A

Chromosome 15 deletion resulting in loss of function of UBE3A gene

796
Q

Features of angelman syndrome?

A

Delayed development and learning disability
Severe delay or absence of speech development
Ataxia
Fascination with water
Happy demeanour
Inappropriate laughter
Hand flapping
Abnormal sleep pattern
Epilepsy
ADHD
Dysmorphic feature
Microcephaly
Fair, skin, light hair, blue eyes
Wide mouth, widely spaced teeth

797
Q

Management of angelman syndrome?

A

Parental education
Social services/ support
Educational support
Physiotherapy
Occupational therapy
Psychology, CAMHS

798
Q

What is williams syndrome?

A

Chromosome 7 deletion

799
Q

Features of Williams syndrome?

A

Broad forehead
Starburst eye
Flattened nasal bridge
Long philtum
Wide mouth with widely spaced teeth
Small chin
Very sociable
Mild learning disability

800
Q

Till what age is exclusive breastfeeding recommended?

A

6 months

801
Q

When is weightloss in infants normal?

A

Upto 10% by 5 day which is regained by day 10

802
Q

How are babies fed in the first week of life?

A

Gradual increase in milk volume per day until day 5 where roughly daily intake should be 150mls/ kg

803
Q

Phases of growth in children?

A

Birth- 2 years; rapid growth driven by nutrition
2 years- puberty; steady slow growth
During puberty; rapid growth driven by sex hormones

804
Q

What is the definition of overweight and obesity in children?

A

BMI over 85th centile is overweight

BMI over the 95th centile is obese

805
Q

Definition of faltering growth?

A

Fall in weight across one centile space if birthweight is below ninth centile

Fall in weight across two centile spaces if birthweight is between 9th and 91st centile

Fall in weight across three centiles if birthweight is above 91st centile

806
Q

Causes of failure to thrive?

A

Inadequate nutritional intake; maternal malabsorption, IDA, family/ parental problems, neglect, lack of availability of food

Difficulty feeding; poor suck, cleft lip, genetic condition with abnormal facial structure, pyloric stenosis

Causes of malabsorption; cystic fibrosis, coeliac disease, cow’s milk protein intolerance, chronic diarrhoea, IBD

Increased energy requirements; hyperthyroidism, chronic disease, malignancy, chronic infection

Metabolic conditions

807
Q

Management of faltering growth?

A

Manage underlying cause
Lactation support
Dietician input
Supplements

808
Q

What is defined as short stature?

A

Height more than 2 standard deviations below average for their age and sex

809
Q

Causes of short stature?

A

Familial
Constitutional delay in development
Malnutrition
Chronic disease; coeliac, IBD, IBS, congenital heart disease
Endocrine; hypothyroidism
Genetic; Downs
Achondroplasia

810
Q

Domains of developmental milestones?

A

Gross motor
Fine motor
Language
Personal and social

811
Q

Gross motor development milestones?

A

Newborn
Limbs flexed, symmetrical pattern
Marker head lag on pulling up

6-8 weeks
Raises head to 45 degrees in prone (tummy time)

6-8 months
Sits without support (initially with round back then eventually with a straight back by 8 months)
Limit; 9 months

8-9 months
Crawling

10 months
Stands independently
Cruises around furniture

12 months
Walks unsteadily; broad gait with hands apart
Limit; 18 months

15 months
Walks steadily

2.5 years
Runs and jump

812
Q

Vision and fine motor developmental milestones?

A

6 weeks
Follows moving object or face by turning the head (fixing and following)
Limit; 3 months

4 months
Reaches out for toys
Limit; 6 months

4-6 months
Palmar grasp

7 months
Transfers toys from one hand to another
Limit; 9 months

10 months
Mature pincer grip
Limit; 12 months
16-18 months
Makes marks with crayons

Brick building
Tower of 3; 18 months
Tower of 6; 2 years
Tower of 8 or a train with 4 bricks; 2.5 years
Bridge; 3 years
Steps; 4 years

Pencil skills
Line; 2 years
Circle; 3 years
Cross; 3.5 years
Square; 4 years
Triangle; 5 years

813
Q

Hearing, speech and language developmental milestones?

A

Newborn
Startles to loud noises

3-4 months
Vocalises alone or when spoken to, coos and laughs
7 months
Turns to soft sounds out of sight
Polysylabic babble
7-10 months
Sounds used indiscriminately
Sounds used discrimately to parents at 10 months
12 months
Two/ three words together other than Mama, Dada
18 months
6-10 words
Able to show two parts of the body
20-24 months
Joins words to make simple phrases
2.5-3 years
Talks constantly in 3/4 word sentences

814
Q

Social and personal developmental milestones?

A

6 weeks
Smiles responsively
Limit; 8 weeks

6-8 months
Puts food in their mouth

10-12 months
Waves bye-bye
Plays peek-a-boo

12 months
Drinks from a cup with two hands

18 months
Holds spoon and gets food safely to mouth

18-24 months
Symbolic play
Limit; 2-2.5 years

2 years
Toilet training; dry by day
Pulls off some clothing

2.5- 3 years
Parallel play
Interactive play evolving
Takes turns

815
Q

Red flags in development?

A

Loss of developmental milestones
Not able to hold object at 5 months
Not sitting unsupported at 12 months
Not standing independently at 18 months
Not walking independently at 2 years
Not running at 2.5 years
No words at 18 months
No interest in others by 18 months

816
Q

Causes for global developmental delay?

A

Downs syndrome
Fragile X
Foetal alcohol syndrome
Rett syndrome
Metabolic disorders

817
Q

Causes of gross motor developmental delay?

A

Cerebral palsy
Ataxia
Myopathy
Spina bifida
Visual problems

818
Q

Causes of fine motor developmental delay?

A

Dyspdaxia
Cerebral palsy
Muscular dystrophy
Visual impairement
Congenital ataxia

819
Q

Causes of language developmental delay?

A

Specific social circumstances
Hearing impairement
Learning disability
Neglect
Autism
Cerebral palsy

820
Q

Causes of personal and social developmental delay?

A

Emotional and social neglect
Parenting issues
Autism

821
Q

Typesnof learning difficulties?

A

Dyslexia; specific difficulty in reading, writing and spelling
Dysgraphia; specific difficulty in writing
Dyspraxia; difficulty in physical coordination
Non verbal learning difficulty; difficulty in processing non verbal information

822
Q

Classification of learning difficulty?

A

Based on IQ;
55-70; mild
40-55; moderate
25-40; Severe
Under 25; Profound

823
Q

Causes of learning difficulties?

A

Family history
Genetic disorders such as Downs
Antenatal problems; FAS, Maternal chickenpox
Birth problems; premature, hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy
Meningitis in early childhood
Autism
Epilepsy

824
Q

Management of learning disability?

A

MDT approach
Health visitors
Social worker
School
Educational psychologist
Paediatrician , GP, nurses
Occupational therapy
Speech and language therapy

825
Q

What is tanner staging?

A

Scale used to determine pubertal stage based on examination findings of sex characteristics

826
Q

Investigations to diagnose delayed puberty?

A

FBC, U&E, coeliac screen
FSH, LH
thyroid function test
Growth hormone
Serum prolactin
Genetic microarray for kleinfelter or turner’s syndrome

X-ray of wrist, pelvic ultrasound, MRI of brain

827
Q

What are frazer guidelines?

A

Guidelines for providing contraception to patients under 16 years without parental input or consent established by House of Lords in 1985 and the child must meet following criteria;
Mature and intelligent enough to understand treatment
Can’t be persuaded to discuss with parent or let health card professional discuss with them
Likely to have inet ourselves regardless of treatment
Physical or mental health is likely to suffer without treatment
Treatment is in their best interest

828
Q

Examples of hypersensitivity reactions in children?

A

Asthma
Atopic eczema
Allergic rhinitis
Hay-fever
Food allergies
Animal allergies

829
Q

Coombes ane Gell Classification of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Type 1; IgE antibodies trigger mast cell and basophils to release histamines and other cytokines causing an immediate reaction

Type 2; IgG and IgM antibodies react to allergen and activate complement system leading to direct damage to local cells

Type 3; immune complexes accumulate and damage local tissues resulting in autoimmune disease

Type 4; cell mediated hypersensitivity reactions caused by T-cells such as organ rejection

830
Q

Investigations for diagnosing allergy?

A

Skin prick test, patch test
RAST test for specific IgE
Food challenge testing- Gold standard

831
Q

Management of allergy?

A

Establish correct allergen
Avoid allergen
Avoid foods that trigger reactions
Regular hoovering and changing bedsheets for those allergic to house dust mites
Prophylactic Antihistamines
Patients at risk of anaphylaxis should have epipen

832
Q

Presentation of anaphylaxis?

A

Rapid onset of allergic symptoms; urticaria, itching, angio-oedema with swelling around the eyes and lips and abdominal pain

Shortness of breath
Wheeze
Swelling of larynx, causing stridor, tachycardia, lightheadedness, collapse

833
Q

Management of anaphylaxis in paediatrics?

A

ABCDE
IM adrenaline
Antihistamine; chlorphenamine and cetrizine
Steroids; Hydrocortisone

Monitor for biphasic reaction

834
Q

How can anaphylaxis be confirmed?

A

Mast cell tryptase within 6 hours of event

835
Q

What is a biphasic reaction?

A

Second anaphylaxis reaction after successful treatment of the initial reaction

836
Q

Risk factors for anaphylaxis?

A

Asthma requiring inhalers
Poor access to medical treatment
Adolescents
Nut/ insect sting allergies
Significant comorbidities

837
Q

What is allergic rhinitis?

A

IgE mediated type 1 hypersensitivity reaction to environmental allergens in the nasal mucosa

838
Q

Presentation of allergic rhinitis?

A

Runny, itchy, blocked nose
Sneezing
Itchy, red, swollen eyes

839
Q

Triggers for allergic rhinitis?

A

Tree pollen/ grass
House dust mites
Pets
Other allergens

840
Q

Management of allergic rhinitis?

A

Avoid triggers
Antihistamines
Nasal corticosteroids, Antihistamines

841
Q

What is cows milk protein allergy?

A

IgE mediated hypersensitivity to Cow’s milk protein within 2 hours of ingestion

842
Q

Epidemiology of cows milk protein allergy?

A

Children under 3 years

843
Q

Presentation of cows milk protein allergy?

A

Bloating and wind
Abdominal pain
Diarrhoea
Vomiting
Urticarial rash
Angio-oedema
Cough/ wheeze
Sneezing
Watery eyes
Eczema

844
Q

Management of cows milk protein allergy?

A

Breast feeding mothers should avoid dairy
Replace formulas with hydrolysed formulas

845
Q

What is SCID?

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency where infants are born with absent or dysfunctioning B and T cells

Most severe condition to cause immunodeficiency

846
Q

Presentation of SCID?

A

Persistent severe diarrhoea
Failure to thrive
Opportunistic infections
Unwell after live vaccination
Omenn syndrome

847
Q

Causes of SCID?

A

Mutation in common gamma chain on X chromosome coding for IL receptors on T and B cells

JAC3 mutation

Adenosine deaminase deficiency

Omenn syndrome

848
Q

What is omenn syndrome?

A

Mutation in RAG-1 or RAG-2 that codes for proteins on T and B cells resulting in abnormally functioning T cells

849
Q

Inheritance of Omenn syndrome?

A

Autosomal recessive

850
Q

Inheritance of SCID?

A

X-linked recessive

851
Q

Presentation of omenn syndrome?

A

Red, scaly, dry rash
Alopecia
Diarrhoea
Failure to thrive
Lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly

852
Q

Management of SCID?

A

Immunoglobulin therapy
Minimise risk of infection
Avoid live vaccines
Haematopoetic stem cell transplant

853
Q

What is burton’s agammaglobulinaemia?

A

X-linked agammaglobulinaemia resulting in deficiency in all classes of immunoglobulins

854
Q

What is DiGeorge syndrome?

A

22q 11.2 microdeletion of chromosome 22 leading to defect in development of third pharyngeal pouch and third brachial cleft affecting thymus gland development and creates malfunctioning T cells

855
Q

Features of DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Congenital heart disease
Abnormal facies
Thymus gland incompletely developed
Cleft palate
Hypothyroidism and hypocalcaemia

856
Q

Causes of tonsilitis?

A

Group A strep; strep pyogenes
Haemophillus influenzea
Moraxella catarrhalis
Staph aureus
VIRAL

857
Q

Structure affected in tonsillitis?

A

Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring contains 6 areas of lymphoid tissue containing the adenoid, tubal tonsils, palatine tonsils, lingual tonisil

Palatine tonsils typically become inflammed in tonsilitis

858
Q

Presentation of tonsillitis?

A

Fever
Sore throat
Painful swallowing
Tympanic swelling
Cervical lymphadenopathy

859
Q

What is the centor criteria?

A

estimates probability of tonsilitis being caused by bacterial infection

A score of 3 (40-60% probability) more indicates treatment with antibiotics, a point is given for each of the following;
Fever over 38
Tonsillar exudates
Absence of cough
Tender anterior cervical lymph nodes

860
Q

What is the FeverPAIN score?

A

Alternative to centor criteria, score of 2-3 (34-40%) and 4-5 (62-65%)

Fever for 24 hours
Purulence
Attended within 3 days of onset of symptoms
Inflammed tonsils
No cough or coryza

861
Q

Management of tonsillitis?

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days if centor score over 3 or FeverPAIN over 4

Clarythromycin if allergic

862
Q

Complications of tonsillitis?

A

Chronic tonsillitis
Quinsy
Otitis media
Scarlet fever
Rheumatic fever
Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Post streptococcal reactive arthritis

863
Q

What is quinsy?

A

Peritonsillar abscess in region of tonsils as a result of bacterial infection

864
Q

Presentation of quinsy?

A

Sore throat
Painful swallowing
Fever
Neck pain
Reffered ear pain
Swollen tender lymph nodes
Trismus
Change in voice
Swelling and erythema

865
Q

Causative organism of quinsy?

A

Group A strep
Staphylococcus aureus
Haemophillus influenzae

866
Q

Management of quinsy?

A

ENT referal for incision and drainage
Co-amoxiclav
Dexamethasone

867
Q

Indications for tonsillectomy?

A

Recurrent tonsilitis;
7 or more in a year
5 per year for 2 years
3 per year for 3 years

recurrent tonsillar abscess

Enlarged tonsils causing difficulty breathing, swallowing, snoring

868
Q

Causes of hearing loss in children?

A

Congenital;
Maternal rubella, CMV
Genetic deafness
Down’s syndrome

Perinatal;
Prematurity, hypoxia during birth

After birth;
Jaundice
Meningitis, encephalitis
Otitis media with glue ear
Chemotherapy

869
Q

Management of hearing loss?

A

SALT
Educational psychology
ENT specialist
Hearing aids
Sign language

870
Q

Where do nosebleeds originate from?

A

Kiesselbach’s plexus

871
Q

Management of recurrent nosebleeds?

A

Nasal packing
Nasal cautery
Consider naseptin (chlorhexidine, neomycin)

872
Q

What is cleft lip and palate?

A

Cleft lip is congenital condition with a split in the upper section of the lip

873
Q

Management of cleft palate??

A

Ensure child can eat and drink
Plastic, maxillofacial ENT surgeons
Dentist
SALT
Psychologist
GP

Cleft lip surgery is usually performed at 3 months, whereas cleft palate is performed at 6-12 months

874
Q

Complications of cleft lip?

A

Feeding, swallowing difficulties
Speech problems
Psycho-social implications

875
Q

What is tongue tie?

A

Poor extension of tongue due to short and tight lingual frenulum

876
Q

Management of tongue tie?

A

Frenotomy

877
Q

What is cystic hygroma?

A

malformation of the lymphatic system resulting in a cyst filed with lymphatic fluid located in the posterior triangle on the left side

878
Q

Features of cystic hygroma?

A

Can be large
Soft
Non tender
Transilluminate

879
Q

Management of cystic hygroma?

A

Surgical removal

880
Q

Complications of cystic hygroma?

A

Interfere with feeding, breathing, swallowing
Infection
Haemorrhage

881
Q

What is a thyroglossal cyst?

A

persistence of thyroglossal duct which accumulates fluid

882
Q

What is a branchial cyst?

A

failure of second brachial cleft to close properly leaving space in lateral aspect of neck

883
Q

Symptoms of syncope?

A

Hot/ clammy
Sweaty
Heavy
Dizzy/ lightheaded
Vision going blurry/ dark
Headache

884
Q

Causes of syncope?

A

Dehydration
Missed meals
Extended standing in warm environment
Vasovagal response

Hypoglycaemia
Anaemia
Infection
Anaphylaxis
Arrhythmia
Valvular heart disease
HOCM

885
Q

Management of syncope?

A

Treat causes
Avoid triggers

886
Q

Treatment of tonic-clonic seizures?

A

First line; sodium valproate
Second line; lamotrigine, carbamazepine

887
Q

Features of focal seizures?

A

Starts in temporal lobes affecting hearing, speech, memory, emotions

presents as hallucinations, memory flashback, dejavu, doing strange things on autopilot

888
Q

Management of focal seizures?

A

First line; carbamazepine, lamotrigine
Second line; sodium valproate, levetiracetam

889
Q

Management of absence seizures?

A

Sodium valproate/ ethosuximide

890
Q

Management of atonic seizures?

A

First line; sodium valproate
Second line; lamotrigine

891
Q

Management of myoclonic seizures?

A

Sudden breif muscle contractions

892
Q

Management of myoclonic seizures??

A

First line; sodium valproate
Options; lamotrigine, levetiracetam, topiramate

893
Q

What are infantile spasms?

A

West syndrome staring around 6 months of age characterised by clusters of full body spasms

Poor prognosis, 33% die by 25 years

894
Q

Management of west syndrome?

A

Prednisolone
Vigabatrin

895
Q

General advice for those with epilepsy?

A

Take showers
Cautious with swimming
Cautious with heights, traffic and near heavy, hot or electrical equipment

896
Q

Side effects of carbamazepine?

A

Agranulocytosis
Aplastic anaemia
Induces P450 enzymes

897
Q

Side effects of sodium valproate?

A

Teratogenic
Liver damage, hepatitis
Hair loss
Tremor

898
Q

Side effects of phenytoin?

A

Folate and Vit D deficiency
Megaloblastic anaemia
Osteomalacia

899
Q

Side effects of ethosuximide?

A

Night terrors
Rashes

900
Q

Side effects of lamotrigine?

A

Stevens johnson syndrome
Leukopenia

901
Q

Management of acute seizure?

A

Put patient in safe position
Recovery position if possible
Put something under head
Remove obstacles that could lead to injury
Note starting and call ambulance if more than 5 minutes

902
Q

Management of status epilepticus?

A

ABCDE
Gain IV access
If no IV then rectal lorazepam
If seizures persist then phenobarbital or phenytoin

Midazolam or diazepam in community

903
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

Seizures lasting more than 5 mins or more than 3 seizures in 1 hour

904
Q

What is a febrile convulsion?

A

Seizures occuring in children aged 6 months to 5 years caused by high fever?

905
Q

Types of febrile convulsion

A

Simple febrile; generalised tonic clonic lasting less than 15 minutes and occur only once during febrile illness

Complex; partial/ focal lasting more than 15 minutes occurring multiple times in an illness

906
Q

Differentials for febrile convulsion?

A

Epilepsy
Meningitis, encephalitis
Space occupying lesion
Syncope
Electrolyte abnormality
Trauma

907
Q

Risk of developing epilepsy?

A

1.8% in general population
2-7.5% after simple febrile convulsion
10-20% after complex febrile convulsion

908
Q

What is a breath holding spells?

A

Involuntary episodes during which a child holds their breath triggered by an upsetting stimulus or scary event between 6 and 18 months of age and usually outgrow by 4-5 years of age

909
Q

Classification of breath holding spells?

A

Cyanotic breath holding spells
Pallid breath holding spells

910
Q

Management of breath holding spells?

A

Reassurance and likely to grow out of it

911
Q

What is a reflex anoxic seizure?

A

Child startled leads to vagus nerve sending signals to heart leading to reduced contractions lasting 30 seconds

912
Q

Causes of headaches in children?

A

Tension headache
Migraine
Ear, nose, throat infection
Analgesic headache
Problems with vision
Raised ICP
Brain tumour
Meningitis
Encephalitis
CO poisoning

913
Q

Management of migraine in children?

A

Rest, fluids, low stimulus environment
Paracetamol
Ibuprofen
Sumatriptan
Anti-emetics

Prophylactic treatment;
Propanolol, pizotifen, topiramate

914
Q

What is abdominal migraine?

A

Central abdominal pain for more than 1 hour
Associated with nausea, vomiting, headache, pallor

915
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A

Permanent neurological problems as a result of damage to the brain around the time of birth

Non progressive

916
Q

Causes of cerebral palsy?

A

Antenatal; maternal infection, trauma during pregnancy

Perinatal; birth asphyxia, pre-term birth

Post natal; meningitis, severe neonatal jaundice, head injury

917
Q

Types of cerebral palsy?

A

Spastic; hypertonia affecting UMN

Dyskinetic; problems controlling muscle tone with hypertonia and hypotonia causing athetoid movement

Ataxic; problems with coordinated movement resulting from damage to cerebellum

Mixed

918
Q

Patterns of spastic cerebral palsy?

A

Monoplegia
Hemiplegia
Diplegia
Quadriplegia

919
Q

Presentation of cerebral palsy?

A

Obstetric trauma
Failure to meet milestone
Hand preference below 18 months
Problems with coordination, speech and walking
High stepping gait
Feeding and swallowing problems
Learning difficulty

920
Q

Gait examinations in cerebral palsy?

A

Hemiplegic/ diplegic; UMN lesion
Broad based gait, ataxic gait; cerebellar lesion
High stepping gait; foot drop/ LMN lesion
Waddling gait; pelvic muscle weakness due to myopathy

921
Q

Complications of cerebral palsy?

A

Learning disability
Epilepsy
Kyphoscoliosis
Muscle contractures
Hearing and visual impairment
GORD

922
Q

Management of cerebral palsy?

A

Physiotherapy
Occupational therapy
Speech and language therapy
Dietician
Orthopaedic surgeons
Muscle relaxant; baclofen
Anti-epileptic
Glycopyrronium bromide; drooling
Social worker

923
Q

Causes of squint?

A

Idiopathic
Hydrocephalus
Cerebral palsy
Space occupying lesion
Trauma

924
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Build up of CSF either due to overproduction or reduced drainage

925
Q

Causes of hydrocephalus?

A

Aqueduct stenosis
Arachnoid cysts
Arnold chiari malformation
Chromosomal abnormalities

926
Q

Presentation of hydrocephalus?

A

Bulging anterior fontanelle
Poor feeding and vomiting
Poor tone
Sleepiness

927
Q

Management of hydrocephalus?

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

928
Q

Complications of ventriculoperitoneal shunt?

A

Infection
Blockage
Excessive draining
Interventricular haemorrhage
Outgrowing them- typically needs changing every 2 years

929
Q

What is craniosynostosis?

A

Skull sutures close prematurely resulting in abnormal head shapes

930
Q

Presentation of craniosynostosis?

A

saggistal synostosis; long and narrow from front to back

coronal synostosis; bulging on one side of the forehead

metopic synostosis; pointy triangular forehead

lambdoid synostosis; flattening on side of occiput

Anterior fontanelle closure before 1 year of age
Small head in proportion to body

931
Q

Investigations to diagnose craniosynostosis?

A

Skull X-ray
CT head

932
Q

Management of craniosynostosis?

A

Surgical reconstruction

933
Q

Most common types of abnormal head shapes?

A

Plagiocephaly
Brachycephaly

934
Q

Presentation of abnormal head shapes?

A

3-6 months aged baby
Preference to sleep on one side of head

935
Q

Management of abnormal head shape?

A

Reassurance that it should normalise
Congenital muscular torticollis, physiotherapy
Plagiocephaly helmet

936
Q

What is muscular dystrophy?

A

Group of genetic conditions that lead to gradual muscle weakening and muscle wasting

937
Q

What is Gower’s sign?

A

Use of specific technique to rise from lying position due to proximal muscle weakness

938
Q

What is duchennes muscular dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive condition providing defective gene for dystrophin, a protein that holds muscles together

939
Q

Presentation of duchennes muscular dystrophy??

A

Present around 3-5 years
Weakness in muscles around pelvis
Life expectancy of 25-35 years

940
Q

What medication can improve prognosis of duchennes muscular dystrophy by 2 years?

A

Oral steroids

Creatinine supplementation can also help with muscle strength

941
Q

What is Beckers muscular dystrophy?

A

Similar to duchenne muscular dystrophy

942
Q

What is myotonic dystrophy?

A

Presents in adulthood with;
Progressive muscle weakness
Prolonged muscle contraction
Cataract
Cardiac arrhythmia

943
Q

Presentation of facioscapulohumeral dystrophy?

A

Presents in childhood with weakness around face progressing to shoulders and arms
Initial sign is eyes slightly open and weakness in pursing lips and unable to blow out cheeks

944
Q

What is Oculopharyngeal muscular dystrophy?

A

Presents in late adulthood affecting ocular muscles and pharynx

945
Q

What is limb gridle muscular dystrophy?

A

Teenage years with progressive weakness around limb girdles

946
Q

What is emery- dreifuss muscular dystrophy?

A

Childhood contractures commonly in elbows and ankles

947
Q

What is spinal muscular atrophy?

A

Autosomal recessive progressive loss of motor neurones and progressive weakness which has no cure

948
Q

Types of fractures?

A

Buckle
Transverse
Oblique
Spiral
Segmental
Salter- Harris
Comminuted
Greenstick

949
Q

When is Salter- Harris classification of fractures used?

A

When fracture affects growth plate

950
Q

Types of salter-harris fractures?

A

Type 1; Straight across
Type 2; Above
Type 3; Below
Type 4; Through
Type 5; Crush

951
Q

Principles of fracture management in children?

A

Consider safeguarding

Mechanical alignment;
Closed reduction; manipulation of fracture
Open reduction; surgery

Provide stability to fix bone in position while healing;
External cast
K- wire
Intramedullary wires
Intramedullary nails
Screws
Plates

Pain management ladder;
Step 1; Paracetamol/ ibuprofen
Step 2; Morphine

952
Q

Presentation of hip pain in children?

A

Limp
Refusal to use affected leg
Refusal to bear weight
Inability to walk
Pain
Swollen and tender joint

953
Q

Causes of joint pain in children?

A

0-4 Yrs;
Septic arthritis
Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Transient sinovitis

5-10 Yrs;
Septic arthritis
Perthes disease
Transient sinovitis

10-16 Yrs;
Septic arthritis
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

954
Q

Red flags for hip pain ?

A

Under 3 years
Fever
Waking at night
Weight loss
Anorexia
Night sweats
Fatigue
Persistent pain
Stiffness in morning
Swollen/ red joint

955
Q

Criteria for urgent referral for investigation of hip pain?

A

Child under 3
Child older than 9 with restricted/ painful hip
Not able to bear weight
Evidence of neurovascular compramise
Severe
pain/ agitation
Red flags for serious pathology
Suspicion of abuse

956
Q

Investigations to assess painful hip?

A

Bloods; CRP, ESR,
X ray
Ultrasound; effusion
Joint aspiration
MRI

957
Q

Mortality of septic arthritis?

A

10%

958
Q

Causative agents of septic arthritis?

A

Staph aureus; most common
Group A streptococcus
Haemophilus influenza
E.coli

959
Q

Differentials of septic arthritis?

A

Transient synovitis
Perthes disease
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

960
Q

Management of septic arthritis?

A

Antibiotics for 3-6 weeks
Surgical drainage and washout

961
Q

What is transient synovitis?

A

Transient inflammation and irritation of the synovial membrane

962
Q

Presentation of transient synovitis?

A

Limp
Refusal to weight bear
Groin/ hip pain
Mild low grade fever

963
Q

Management of transient synovitis?

A

Safety net advise, attend A+E if persistent fever

964
Q

Prognosis of transient synovitis?

A

Resolves within 2 weeks
20% may have recurrence

965
Q

What is Perthes disease?

A

Disruption to blood flow in femoral head leaving to avascular necrosis affecting the growth plate

966
Q

Epidemiology of perthes disease?

A

Occurs in children 4-12, more common in 5-8 years
More common in boys

967
Q

Presentation of perthes disease?

A

Pain in hip/ groin
Limp
Restricted hip movement
Referred knee pain
No history of trauma

968
Q

Investigations to diagnose perthes disease?

A

Blood
Technetium bone scan
MRI scan

969
Q

Management of Perthes disease?

A

Bed rest, traction, crutches, analgesia
Physiotherapy
Regular xrays to assess healing
Surgery

970
Q

What is slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A

Head of femur is displaced along growth plate

971
Q

Epidemiology of slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A

More common in boys
Presents 8-15 years
More common in obese children
Average age is 12 in boys and 11 in girls

972
Q

Presentation of SUFE?

A

History of minor trauma
Hip, groin, knee or thigh pain
Restricted range of hip movement
Painful limp
May be undergoing growth stunt

Prefer external rotation and limited internal rotation of hip joint

973
Q

Investigations to diagnose SUFE?

A

Blood tests; inflammatory markers
Technetium bone scan
CT/ MRI scan

974
Q

Management of SUFE?

A

Surgery

975
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Infection of bone and bone marrow typically along metaphysis of long bones

976
Q

Risk factors for osteomyelitis?

A

Open bone fracture
Orthopaedic surgery
Immunocompromised
Sickle cell anaemia
HIV

977
Q

Presentation of osteomyelitis?

A

Refusing to use limb or weight bear
Pain
Swelling
Tenderness

978
Q

Management of osteomyelitis?

A

Antibiotic therapy
Drainage and debridement

978
Q

Investigations to diagnose osteomyelitis?

A

Xray
Bone scan
MRI scan is gold standard
Blood test and cultures

979
Q

What is osteosarcoma?

A

Type of bone cancer

980
Q

Epidemiology of osteosarcoma?

A

Typically presents in 10-20 year olds
Most common femur, other sites include tibia and humerus

981
Q

Presentation of osteosarcoma?

A

Persistent bone pain, typically worse at night
Bone swelling
Palpable mass
Restricted joint movements

982
Q

Diagnosis of osteosarcoma?

A

Urgent Xray within 48 hours- poorly defined lesion
Bloods- raised ALP
CT, MRI, Bone scan, PET
Bone biopsy

983
Q

Management of osteosarcoma?

A

Surgical resection, limb amputation
Adjuvant chemotherapy

MDT; oncology, nurse, physio, OT, psychology, dietician, prosthesis, social services

984
Q

Complications of osteosarcoma?

A

Pathological bone fracture
Metastasis

985
Q

What is talipes and its types?

A

Fixed abnormal ankle position

Talipes equinovarus; ankle in plantar flexion and supination

Talipes calcaneovalgus; ankle in dorsiflexion and pronation

986
Q

Management of talipes?

A

Ponseti method
Physiotherapy
Surgery

987
Q

What is developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Structural abnormalities in hip due to abnormal development of foetal bones during pregnancy leading to instability of hips and potential for subluxation/ dislocation

988
Q

Risk factors for DDH?

A

First degree family history
Breech presentation from 36 weeks
Breech presentation at birth
Multiple pregnancy

989
Q

Findings suggesting DDH?

A

Different leg length
Restricted hip abduction on one side
Significant bilateral restriction in abduction
Difference in knee level when hips are flexed

990
Q

Tests to assess DDH?

A

Ortolani
Barlow

991
Q

Diagnosis of DDH?

A

USS of the hips

992
Q

Management of DDH?

A

Pavlik harness; adjusted every 6-8 weeks
Surgical correction

993
Q

What is rickets?

A

Vitamin D deficiency resulting in poor bone mineralisation producing soft bones

994
Q

Presentation of rickets?

A

Lethargy
Bone pain
Swollen wrist
Bone deformity
Poor growth
Dental problem
Muscle weakness
Pathological/ abnormal fracture
Bone deformities; bowing of knee, knock knee, rachitic rosary, craniotabes
Delayed dentition

995
Q

Investigations to diagnose rickets?

A

Serum 25-hydroxyvitaminD
X-ray
Low calcium
Low phosphate
High PTH and ALP

996
Q

Management of rickets?

A

Prevention
Vit D and calcium supplementation

997
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A

Disproportionate short stature due to skeletal dysplasia

998
Q

Cause of achondroplasia?

A

Mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor gene 3 (FGFR3) on chromosome 4 causing dysfunction in epiphyseal plates restricting bone length growth

999
Q

Mechanism of inheritance in achondroplasia?

A

Autosomal dominant

1000
Q

Features of achondroplasia?

A

Disproportionate short stature with unaffected spine length
Short digits
Bow legs
Disproportionate skull; flattened mid face and nasal bridge
Foramen magnum stenosis

1001
Q

Associations of achondroplasia?

A

Recurrent otitis media
Kyphoscoliosis
Spinal stenosis
OSA
Obesity
Cervical cord compression
Hydrocephalus

1002
Q

Management of anchondroplasia?

A

MDT; paeds, nurses, physio, OT, dietician, ortho, ENT, genetics

1003
Q

What is osgood schlatter disease?

A

Inflammation at tibial tuberosity where patella ligament inserts

1004
Q

Presentation of osgood schlatter disease?

A

Visible/ palpable hard and tender lump at tibial tuberosity
Pain in anterior aspect of the knee
Pain exacerbated by physical activity

1005
Q

Management of osgood schlatter disease?

A

Reduction in physical activity, Ice, NSAIDs
Stretching and physiotherapy

1006
Q

Prognosis of osgood schlatter disease?

A

Usually left with hard bony lump on knee
Anvulsion fracture

1007
Q

What id osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Genetic condition that makes bones brittle as a result of a collagen synthesis defect

1008
Q

Features of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Recurrent and inappropriate fractures
Hypermobility
Blue/ grey sclera
Triangular face
Short stature
Deafness from early adulthood
Dental problems
Bone deformities
Joint and bone pain

1009
Q

Management of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Bisphosphonates and vitamin D supplementation
Physiotherapy, occupational therapy
Orthopaedic surgeon
Specialist nurse, social worker

1010
Q

Triad of ASD?

A

Impaired communication
Impaired social interaction
Ritualistic behaviour

1011
Q

Risk factors for DDH?

A

female sex: 6 times greater risk
breech presentation
positive family history
firstborn children
oligohydramnios
birth weight > 5 kg
congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity