paediatric perio Flashcards

1
Q

what were the aims of the 2012 guidelines

A
  • to outline a method of screening children and adolescents for periodontal diseases during the routine clinical examination in order to detect the presence of gingivitis or periodontitis at the earliest opportunity
  • to provide guidance on when it is appropriate to treat in practice or refer to specialist services, thus optimising periodontal outcomes for children and young people
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the different classifications for perio as of 2019

A

PERIODONTAL HEALTH

  • periodontal health
  • Intact periodontist
  • reduced periodontist
  • gingivitis - dental biofilm induced
  • Intact periodontist
  • reduced periodontium
  • gingival diseases and conditions - non-dental biofilm induced

PERIODONTITIS

  • necrotising periodontal disease
  • periodontitis
  • periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease

OTHER CONDITIONS AFFECTING PERIODONTIUM

  • systemic disease or notions affecting periodontal supporting tissue
  • periodontal abscess and eno-perio lesions
  • mucogingival deformities
  • truamatic occlusal force
  • tooth and prosthesis related factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the mnemonic to remember the classifications

A
  • Please Give Greg Nine Percy Pigs Straight Past Meal Time Tonight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 4 stages of diagnosing perio

A
  • staging
  • grading
  • assess current perio status
  • risk assessment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how is perio staged

A
  • interproximal bone loss at the worst site of bone loss

- stage I, stage II, stage III or stage IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how is perio graded

A
  • rate of progression
  • %bone loss/age
  • grade A, B or C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the different status of perio

A
  • current stable
  • currently in remission
  • currently unstable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are features of periodontal health

A
  • gingival margin several millimetres coronal to CEJ
  • gingival sulcus may be 0.5-3mm deep
  • alveolar crest 0.4-1.9mm apical to CEJ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the biological width

A
  • space between CEJ and alveolar bone crest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is periodontal health considered as

A
  • intact periodontium

- reduced periodontium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the score of BOP for clinical periodontal health

A
  • <10%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is gingivitis

A
  • inflammation of the gingiva
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the types of gingivitis

A
  • dental biofilm induced = localised or generalised

- non-dental biofilm induced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is dental biofilm induced gingivitis caused

A
  • as supra-gingival plaque accumulates to teeth, an inflammatory cell infiltrate develops in gingival connective tissue
  • junctional epithelium becomes disrupted
  • allows apical migration of plaque and an increase in gingival sulcus depth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

is gingivitis reversible

A
  • yes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

why is gingivitis still reversible

A
  • the most apical extension of the JE is still at the CEJ

- there is no periodontal loss of attachment = why it is called a false pocket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how can gingivitis present

A
  • marginal gingivitis and very puffy interproximal

- long-standing plaque causing irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why is classification really important

A
  • because it should help diagnose status which then helps inform prognosis and strategy implied to help patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the BOP score for localised gingivitis

A
  • 10-30%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the BOP score for generalised gingivitis

A
  • > 30%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the appearance of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis

A
  • blunted papilla
  • malodour
  • painful gingival
  • no attachment loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what causes necrotising ulcerative gingivitis

A
  • fusiform and spirochete bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are risk factors of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis

A
  • smoking, spree, immunosuppression, poor diet
  • HIV+
  • common in developing countries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what can necrotising ulcerative gingivitis also be called (layman’s terms)

A
  • trench mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what can cause pubertal gingivitis

A
  • increased inflammatory response to palque
  • mediated by hormonal changes
  • local and systemic factors can influence progression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are some causes of non-dental biofilm induced gingivitis

A
  • infective = viral, fungal
  • drug induced = immunosuppressants, Ca+ channel blockers, anti-convulsants
  • genetic
  • trauma
  • manifestations of systemic disease = haematology, immunological conditions, granulomatous inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is cyclosporin

A
  • immunosuppresant

- used in patients with underlying immune disorders such as Crohn’s disease, organ transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is phenytoin

A
  • anti-convulsant
  • for epileptic patients
  • can cause exuberant gingivitis with very inflamed interproximal papilla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what can be seen in patient with ooo-facial granulomatous

A
  • full thickness gingiva
30
Q

what has gingivitis been known to be an initial presentation of (rare)

A
  • leukaemia
31
Q

what is agranulocytosis

A
  • a haematological systemic disease
  • acute condition
  • low white blood cell count
  • can lead to gingivitis
32
Q

what is cyclic neutropenia

A
  • a haematological systemic disease
  • low neutrophil count
  • occurs every 3 weeks and lasts 4-6 days
  • can lead to gingivitis
33
Q

when can granulomatous inflammation occur

A
  • crohns disease
  • sarcoidosis
  • granulomatosis = autoimmune vasculitis, affects multiple systems (mainly mouth, URT, kidney)
34
Q

what is the treatment for gingivitis

A
  • rigorous oral hygiene/home care
  • frequent scaling
  • surgery may be necessary = especially with drug induced
35
Q

when is a greater incidence of gingivitis seen

A
  • in puberty
36
Q

what are the 4 mainfeatures of periodontitis

A
  • apical migration of junctional epithelium beyond CEJ
  • loss of attachment of periodontal tissues to cementum
  • transformation of junctional epithelium to pocket epithelium
  • alveolar bone loss
37
Q

how much loss of attachment is classified as perio

A
  • > 1mm
38
Q

what pathogens can cause periodontal disease in both children and adults

A
  • prophyromonas gingivalis
  • prevotella intermedia
  • aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
39
Q

what are the features of periodontitis in adolescents

A
  • rapid attachment loss and bone destruction
  • patient is otherwise healthy
  • onset around puberty
  • family history
40
Q

what is stage I periodontitis

A
  • <15% interproxima bone loss
41
Q

what is stage II periodontitis

A
  • coronal third of root bone loss
42
Q

what is stage III periodontitis

A
  • mid third of root bone loss
43
Q

what is stage IV periodontitis

A
  • apical third of root bone loss
44
Q

what is grade A periodontitis

A
  • <0.5 % bone loss/age
45
Q

what is grade B periodontitis

A
  • 0.5-1 %bone loss/age
46
Q

what is grade C periodontitis

A
  • > 1 %bone loss/age
47
Q

what must you be aware of in mixed dentition around erupting teeth

A
  • false pocketing
48
Q

what needs to be recorded about the gingival condition

A
  • gingival colour
  • contour
  • swelling
  • recession
  • suppuration
  • inflammation
49
Q

how is OH status assessed

A
  • description of plaque status
  • describe surfaces covered in plaque
  • assess if any calculus present
50
Q

what can be risk factors to assess

A
  • plaque retention factors
  • low frenal attachment
  • malocclusion
  • incompetent lip seal
51
Q

what can reduced upper lip coverage in an incompetent lip seal patient cause

A
  • labial and palatal gingivitis

- contributes to drying of oral mucosa

52
Q

what can mouth breathing cause

A
  • palatal gingivitis
53
Q

what can complete overbite cause

A
  • chronic continuous trauma to this area

- end up with recession and other issues occurring

54
Q

in what children is a simplified BPE used

A
  • 7-11
55
Q

what is a simplified BPE

A
  • rapidly guides clinicians to arrive at a provisional diagnosis of periodontal health
  • does not consider attachment loss, staging or grading
56
Q

how is a simplified BPE carried out

A
  • performed with a WHO CPITN probe

- only do teeth 16, 11, 26, 36, 31 and 46

57
Q

why is a simplified BPE used

A
  • quick
  • easy
  • well tolerated
58
Q

what kind of BPE do children aged 12-17 get

A
  • normal BPE same as adults
59
Q

what codes are used in a simplified BPE

A
  • only codes 0-2
  • 0 = healthy
  • 1 = bleeding on gently probing
  • 2= calculus or plaque retention factor
60
Q

what codes are used for children 12-17

A
  • all codes 0-4 and *
  • 3 = pocketing 4-5mm
  • 4 = pocketing ≥6mm
    • = furcation involvement
61
Q

what is a plaque score of 10/10 according to SDCEP

A
  • perfectly clean tooth
62
Q

what is a plaque score of 8/10 according to SDCEP

A
  • line of plaque around the cervical margin
63
Q

what is a plaque score of 6/10 according to SDCEP

A
  • cervical 1/3 ro crown covered
64
Q

what is a plaque score of 4/10 according to SDCEP

A
  • middle 1/3 of crown covered
65
Q

what happens if a patient has a score of 3 or 4

A
  • need to do a 6PPC
  • localised to that sextant if 3
  • whole mouth for 4
66
Q

how is the alveolar bone level checked

A
  • bitewings for posteriors

- periodicals for anteriors

67
Q

what are some generic treatment advice for patients with gingivitis and perio

A
  • good toothbrushing
  • emphasise need to systemically clean all surfaces
  • standard toothbrushing and fluoride advice should be given to all patients
  • supervised/assisted brushing = up to the age of 7 roughly
  • disclosing tablets are helpful
  • fluoride mouthwash recommended for those with fixed appliance therapy
68
Q

what treatment is done for code 0

A
  • none

- screen again at routine recall

69
Q

what treatment is done for code 1

A
  • OHI and prevention

- screen again at routine recall or after 6 month

70
Q

what treatment is done for code 2

A
  • OHI, prevention, scaling, removal of plaque retention factors
  • screen again at routine recall or after6 months
71
Q

what treatment is done for code 3 and 4

A
  • full perio assessment, radiographs
  • scaling, RSD, OHI, prevention
  • if score 4 or * consider referral
  • treat and review after 3 months