Paediatric Flashcards

1
Q

Blue Zone in Paediatrics

A

Increased vigilance zone
- increase frequency of observation- clinically determined
Manage anxiety, pain and review oxygenation in consultation with nurse in charge
Consider if the observation, trends in observation or clinical assessment reflect deteroiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Yellow zone in paediatrics

A
  • only systolic BP

=clinical review - call the home team or designated responder within 30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Red Zone

A
3 yellow zone = red zone
Mandatory call zone
Urgent response by rapid response team
Designated responder 
The right expertise 
- know about graded response
Rapid response - notes, handover, obs etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Altered calling criteria for kids

A

In conjunction with paediatrician
Match the criteria for patient with chronic disease
Trajectory of illness (in line with response to treatment)
Eg. day 3 of bronchiolitis = worst so change for the day
Make the trigger more sensitive

ALL altered calling criteria reviewed within 36 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Na water balance in preterm babies

A

Salt water balance is modulated by ADH via osmoreceptors and baroreceptors.
There is tendency to lose sodium in urine over first weeks as the increased GFR excesses ability to reabsorb Na
High level of transepidermal loss <28/40

Respiratory related water loss can be countered with warm humidified gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Weight loss post birth

A
Normal is up to 10% of weight loss 
Failure to lose weight = fluid retention/overload 
>10% weight loss = assess feeding
Weight all babies at day 3
Check UEC if weight loss >12%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hyponatraemia in newborns

A

Causes: water overload (first weeks), maternal fluid overload, iatrogenic, sick infant (birth asphyxia, sepsis), excessive renal loss, GI loss via diarrhoea, trainable
Symptoms: irritalibity, apnea’s, seizure
Treatment: depends on underlying cause
Do not correct rapidly due to risk of neurological damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypernatremia in newborn

A
Risk of seizures if Na >150 mmol/L
Causes: water depletion, excess administration 
Two major risk groups:
1. extreme preterm infants
2. breast fed infants with poor intake

Treatment- increased fluid intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hypokalemia in newborns

A

Causes: excessive losses via diarrhoea, vomiting, NG aspirate, stoma, renal diuretics or inadequate intake
Correct with supplementation: risk of arrthymia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hyperkalemia in newborn

A

Causes: failure to excrete K+ ie. renal failure
Treatment: myocardial stabilisation, Ca gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Causes of IUGR

A

Fetal, placental or maternal
Fetal
- fetal genetic abnormalities, fetal infection, fetal structure anomaly, Down syndrome
Maternal
- multiple gestation, maternal genetic factors., obstetric condition associated with diminished flow (pre-eclapmsia), teratogens (warfarin, metotrexate), assisted pregnancy, higher altitude, maternal age, Down syndrome
Placental
- CPM, ischemic placental disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Classifications of IUGR

A

Symmetrical

  • 20-30%
  • all organs decrease proportionally
  • due to global impairment of cellular hyperplasia early in gestation
  • thought to result from a pathological process manifesting early in gestation

Asymmetrical

  • 70-80%
  • relatively greater decrease in abdo size (liver vol and subcutaneous fat)
  • asymmetrical fetal growth is capacity of fetus to adapt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Screening for IUGR

A

Fundal height - upper edge of pubic symphysis to top of fundus
- serial
If fetus <10th percentile then monitor for growth and physiology
Sonographic estimation for fetal weight <3rd, 5th and 10th percentile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Investigations for IUGR

A

Complete history and examination
Ultrasound biometry - biparietal dia, head circumference, abdo circumference and femur length
Fetal survey - omphalocele, gastroschisis, diaphragmatic hernia, skeletal dysphasia and congenital heart defects - because 10% of fetal growth restriction = congenital anomalies
Fetal echocardiogram- only if seems abnormal
Fetal genetic studies-
Infection workup
Plotting fetal weight 2-4 week interval to look at velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some respiratory diseases of neonates

A
Transient at hypnoses of newborn
Pneumothorax
Congenital pneumonia
Meconium aspiration syndrome
Respiratory distress syndrome (hyline membrane disease)
Apnoea of newborn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is transient tachypnoea of newborn

A

Pulmonary odema caused by excess lung fluid/delayed resorption
4 hours within birth
Tachypnea >60RR, cyanosis, increased WOB “mucous” breath sounds clear
CXR- streaking with fluid in fissure, increased lung vol (flat diaphragm)
Resolves in 24 hr - supplemental oxygen, consider CPAP and ABX
RF- elective LSCS, gestational diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Spontaneous in 2% of births
Alveoli = hyperinflated and rupture, air then tracks into the visceral
Decreased air entry + trachea deviated
CXR- collapsed lung, lack of peripheral lung marking, ipsilateral translucency
None if asymptomatic, O2 as required, chest drain if severe
RF- lung disease, positive pressure breath (resuscitation),
Generally good prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Congenital pneumonia

A

Caused by aspiration of infected amniotic fluid - GBS, E.coli, listeria, chlamydia other gram negatives
Within the first 24 hours
Investigation: septic screen (before starting abx), CXR
Treatment: chest physio, ABX (benzyl, ampicillin and gentamicin)
RF: prolonged rupture of membrane, chorioamniotits, foetal hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pelvic organ prolapse

A
Anterior: cystocele
- urethrocele 
Posterior: rectocele
- enterocele
Uterine prolapse
Vaginal vault prolapse
Uterine providential- all walls of vagina and cervix 

Dx using POP-Q (The 9 measurement)
Stage 0= nil
Stage 1= >1cm above hymen
Stage II= <1cm distal to hymen
Stage III= 1-2 cm distal to hymenal plane
Stage IV = complete evertion to uterine procidentia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

De Lancy vaginal support

A

Level 1:

  1. Cardinal (Mackenrodt’s)
  2. Pubocervical = anterior
  3. Uterosacral = posterior

Level 2

  1. Pelvic fascia and paracolpops
  2. Arcus trendiness fasciae pelvis (ATFP)
  3. Vesicovaginal fascia and rectovaginal septum - denoviller’s fascia

Level 3

  1. Peritoneal body (post)
  2. Perineal transverse muscle
  3. Bulbocarvenous muscle
  4. Anterior pubouretheral ligament
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Colposcopy

  • indications
  • anatomy
  • abnormalities
A

Colposcopy - is a procedure using colposcope for illuminating magnified view of the cervix, vagina and anus
Used to identify precancerous and cancerous cells

Indications

  1. FU to abnormal cervical screen
  2. FU to abnormal finding on gross exam
  3. Evaluation of visually abnormal cervix, vagina and vulva
  4. Evaluation post Rx of cervical neoplasia

No absolute contraindications

Anatomy ectocervix = squamous cell
SCJ = junction between squamous and glandular cells
Squamous = smooth pink-grey Ectocervix, glandular pink red Endocervix
Transformation = original SCJ and remaining squamous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Jaundice in the first 24 hours of birth

A

Jaundice in the first 24 hrs is always pathological

Causes of jaundice in the first 24 hrs
rhesus haemolytic disease
ABO haemolytic disease
hereditary spherocytosis
glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase

Jaundice in the neonate from the c. 2-14 days is common (up to 40%) and usually physiological. It is more commonly seen in breast fed babies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Jaundice after 14 days of birth

A

If there are still signs of jaundice after 14 days a prolonged jaundice screen is performed, including:
conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin: the most important test as a raised conjugated bilirubin could indicate biliary atresia which requires urgent surgical intervention
direct antiglobulin test (Coombs’ test)
TFTs
FBC and blood film
urine for MC&S and reducing sugars
U&Es and LFTs

Causes of prolonged jaundice
biliary atresia
hypothyroidism
galactosaemia
urinary tract infection
breast milk jaundice
congenital infections e.g. CMV, toxoplasmosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Infantile spasms

A

Infantile spasms, or West syndrome, is a type of childhood epilepsy which typically presents in the first 4 to 8 months of life and is more common in male infants. They are often associated with a serious underlying condition and carry a poor prognosis

Features
characteristic ‘salaam’ attacks: flexion of the head, trunk and arms followed by extension of the arms
this lasts only 1-2 seconds but may be repeated up to 50 times
progressive mental handicap

Investigation
the EEG shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants
CT demonstrates diffuse or localised brain disease in 70% (e.g. tuberous sclerosis)

Management
poor prognosis
vigabatrin is now considered first-line therapy
ACTH is also used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fragile X syndrome

A

Fragile X syndrome is a trinucleotide repeat disorder.

Features in males
learning difficulties
large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate
macroorchidism
hypotonia
autism is more common
mitral valve prolapse

Features in females (who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome) range from normal to mild

Diagnosis
can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis
analysis of the number of CGG repeats using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A 2 day old baby who was born by a ventouse delivery is noted to have a swelling on the left side of his head in the parietal region. His head appeared normal immediately after delivery. On examination, the baby is well and the swelling does not cross suture lines. The fontanelles and sutures appear normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Cephalohematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cephalohematoma

A

Between periosteum and skull - remember SCALP.
Most commonly in parietal region and is associated with instrumental deliveries.
Swelling appears 2-3 days following delivery and does not cross suture lines
Gradually resolves
Jaundice may develop as complication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Caput succadeneum

A

Caput succadeneum is commonly seen in newborns immediately after birth. It occurs due to generalised superficial scalp oedema, which crosses suture lines. It is associated with prolonged labour and will rapidly resolve over a couple of days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Subaponeurotic haematoma

A

Subaponeurotic haematoma is a rare condition where bleeding occurs that is not bound by the periosteum. It can be life threatening and presents as a fluctuant scalp swelling, which is not limited by suture lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Craniosynostosis

A

Craniosynostosis is uncommon and is where there is premature closure of cranial sutures, causing deformity of the skull. It can be evident at birth and may be associated with genetic syndromes. The shape of the skull will depend upon which sutures are involved. Other clinical features include early closure of the anterior fontanelle and raised ridge along the fused suture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A baby born at 35 weeks gestations via normal vaginal delivery is found to be irritable 48 hours after birth and suffers a convulsion. There is no obvious head trauma or swellings. Which one of the following cranial injuries is most likely to have occurred?

A

Intravascular Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A boy is noted to have a webbed neck and pectus excavatum

A

Noonan Syndrome

Webbed neck
Pectus excavatum
Short stature
Pulmonary stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

An infant is found to have small eyes and polydactyly

A

Patau Syndrome

Microcephalic, small eyes
Cleft lip/palate
Polydactyly
Scalp lesions

34
Q

A 7-year-old boy with learning difficulties and macrocephaly

A

Fragile X

Learning difficulties
Macrocephaly
Long face
Large ears
Macro-orchidism
35
Q

Fragile X features

A
Learning difficulties
Macrocephaly
Long face
Large ears
Macro-orchidism
36
Q

Patau syndrome (trisomy 13) features

A

Microcephalic, small eyes
Cleft lip/palate
Polydactyly
Scalp lesions

37
Q

Edward’s syndrome

A

Micrognathia (undersized jaw)
Low set ears
Rocker bottom feet
Overlapping of fingers

38
Q

Noonan syndrom

A

Webbed neck
Pectus excavatum
Short stature
Pulmonary stenosis

39
Q

Pierre-robin syndrome

A

Micrognathia
Posterior displacement of tongue
Cleft palate

40
Q

Prader-Willi syndrom

A

Hypotonia
Hypogonadism
Obesity

41
Q

William’s syndrom

A
Short stature
Learning difficulties
Friendly, extroverted personality
Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia
Supravalvular arotic stenosis
42
Q

Cri du chat syndrome (chromosome 5p deletion syndrome)

A

Characteristic cry
Due to larynx and neurological problems
Feeling difficulties and poor weight gain
Learning difficulties
Microcephaly and micrognathism
Hypertelorism (increased distance between 2 organs like eyes)

43
Q

Avascular necrosis of femoral head in 4-8 year old. Hip pain and limp

A

Perthes disease
Dx on X-ray
If less than 6 = observation
>6 = surgical mx

44
Q

Characteristics of innocent murmur in children

A
soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or short buzzing murmur in the aortic area
may vary with posture
localised with no radiation
no diastolic component
no thrill
no added sounds (e.g. clicks)
asymptomatic child
no other abnormality
45
Q

An 8-year-old boy presents to the emergency department severely short of breath and wheezy. He is extremely short of breath and cannot complete sentences fully. His peak expiratory flow rate is 300 l/min (40% of normal). His oxygen saturations are 93%. His pCO2 is 4.9 kPa.

Which of the above is most concerning?

Wheeziness
pCO2 (kPa)
Peak expiratory flow rate
Oxygen saturations
Cannot complete sentences
A

PCO2 - because normal PCO2 in acute asthma attack indicates its life threatening

46
Q

Indications for immediate CT in head injury in paediatrics

A
  • LOC > 5 minutes (witnessed)
  • Amnesia (antegrade or retrograde) lasting more than 5 minutes
  • Abnormal drowsiness
  • 3+ discrete episodes of vomiting
  • Clinical suspicion of non-accidental injury
  • Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
  • GCS less than 14, or for a baby under 1 year GCS (paediatric) less than 15, on assessment in the emergency department
  • Suspicion of open or depressed skull injury or tense fontanelle
  • Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
  • Focal neurological deficit
  • If under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head
  • Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident either as pedestrian, cyclist or vehicle occupant, fall from a height of greater than 3 m, high-speed injury from a projectile or an object)
47
Q

Causes of stridor in children

A

Croup
Acute epiglottis
Inhaled foreign body
Laryngomalacia

48
Q

Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS) is primarily a disease of pre-term neonates due to surfactant deficiency. Deficiency of surfactant results in an increased alveolar surface tension, thereby resulting in decreased compliance and increased work of breathing. Natural maternal glucocorticosteroids are very important for surfactant production in the foetus, and therefore synthetic steroids are the first line agents for preventing NRDS in pregnancies at risk of pre-term birth. Tocolytics are agents that can be used to suppress pre-term labour, however they are not routinely used. Since administration of maternal steroids takes one to two days to increase surfactant levels, tocolytics can be considered in certain situations to buy time.

49
Q

Cyanotic heart disease in first few days of life

A

TGA : transposition of great arteries

50
Q

Cyanotic congenital heart disease at 1-2 months

A

TOF- tetralogy of fallout

51
Q

TOF features

A

VSD
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Right ventricular outflow obstruction (pulmonary stenosis) – responsible for the ESM heard
Overriding aorta

52
Q

X-ray TOF

A

Boot-shaped heart

53
Q

Management of TOF

A

surgical repair is often undertaken in two parts (at 6 months)
cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm

54
Q

A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother as she has had a very loud, harsh cough for the last 2 weeks, and has been more lethargic than usual. She appears systemically well, but you witness 2 coughing fits during your consultation, in which the child appears distressed and struggles to take breaths in, making a loud harsh inspiratory noise between coughing fits. The patient has no known allergies or past medical history, but her vaccination record is unclear, having moved to the UK from abroad two years ago. Her observations reveal a fever at 37.5ºC.

A

Whooping cough- pertussis (Bordetella pertussis gram neg)
Mx = azithromycin

Dx criteria:
14 days or more of cough 
Paroxysmal cough
Inspiration whoop
Post-tussive vomiting
Undiagnosed apnoic attacks 

Vaccination at 6 weeks, 4 months, 6 months, 18 months

55
Q

Palmer grasp

A

5-6 months

56
Q

Draws a circle

A

3 years

57
Q

Towers of 3-4 blocks

A

18 months

58
Q

Pincer grip

A

Starts at 9 months - good by 12 months

59
Q

Vertical lines

A

2 years

60
Q

Circles

A

3 years

61
Q

Cross

A

4 years

62
Q

Square and triangles

A

5 years

63
Q

Charlie is a 7 month old baby boy who presents to you with poor weight gain (50th to 10th centile), on examination he has an erythematous, blanching rash over his abdomen, colicky abdominal pain and vomiting after feeds. He has been breast feeding with top ups of ‘Aptamil’ formula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Cow’s milk protein intolerance

Multi system involvement

64
Q

Androgen insensitivity

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition due to end-organ resistance to testosterone causing genotypically male children (46XY) to have a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome

Features
‘primary amenorrhoea’
undescended testes causing groin swellings
breast development may occur as a result of conversion of testosterone to oestradiol

Diagnosis
buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal 46XY genotype

Management
counselling - raise child as female
bilateral orchidectomy (increased risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes)
oestrogen therapy

65
Q

Marfan’s

A

Tall stature, scoliosis, pectus deformity.
Aortic disease
Early diastolic murmur
Raised pulse pressure —> aortic regurgitation
Water hammer pulse : aortic regurgitation

66
Q

Pulse associated with patent ductus arteriosus

A

Collapsing pulse

67
Q

Contraindications to MMR

A

severe immunosuppression
allergy to neomycin
children who have received another live vaccine by injection within 4 weeks
pregnancy should be avoided for at least 1 month following vaccination
immunoglobulin therapy within the past 3 months (there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present)

68
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

Hear abdo sounds in respiratory exam : tinkling sound

69
Q

Clinical presentation of foetal alcohol syndrome

A
microcephaly (small head)
short palpebral fissures (small eye opening)
hypoplastic upper lip (thin)
absent philtrum
reduced IQ
variable cardiac abnormalities
70
Q

Undesceded testies referral

A

Review at 3 months and refer after 6 months

71
Q

Raised temp with rash on torso and face

A

Chickenpox: Topical calamine lotion

72
Q
Measles 
Causative 
Ix
Mx
complication
A

RNA paramyxovirus
prodrome: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever
Koplik spots before rash (white like grain of salt) on buccaneer mucosa
Rash behind ear and whole body

Ix: IgM antibodies

Mx: mainly supportive, admit the immunosupressed and pregnant
Notifiable disease

Complication: Oritis media: most common complication
Pneumonia : the most common cause of death
Encephalitis 1-2 week following onset

73
Q

Epstein anomaly

A

Ebstein’s anomaly results in low insertion of the tricuspid valve resulting in a large right atrium and small right ventricle causing tricuspid incompetence.

Pan systolic murmur
Linked to WPW syndrome

74
Q

Harsh vibratory noise on inspiration

A

Stridor

Croup - parainfluenza virus

75
Q

Causes of snoring in children

A
Obesity
Nasal problem: polyps, deviated septum, hypertrophic nasal tubinates
Recurrent tonsillitis
Down’s syndrome
Hypothyroidism
76
Q

The prodrome is characterised by fever, irritability and conjunctivitis

A

Measles

77
Q

May cause vesicles in the mouth and on the palms

A

Coxsackie A16 hand foot mouth

78
Q

Roseola infantum

A

Roseola infantum (also known as exanthem subitum, occasionally sixth disease) is a common disease of infancy caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). It has an incubation period of 5-15 days and typically affects children aged 6 months to 2 years.

Features
high fever: lasting a few days, followed later by a
maculopapular rash
Nagayama spots: papular enanthem on the uvula and soft palate
febrile convulsions occur in around 10-15%
diarrhoea and cough are also commonly seen

Other possible consequences of HHV6 infection
aseptic meningitis
hepatitis

School exclusion is not needed.

79
Q

Slapped check

A

Erythema infectosium - parovirus b19

80
Q

A 3-year-old girl with a two day history of fever and malaise. Developed a pink maculopapular rash initially on the face before spreading. Suboccipital lymph nodes are also noted

A

Rubella

81
Q

Croup treatment

A

Oral dexamethasone to all
Emergency
High flow o2
Neb Adr

82
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia - lower zone consolidation Mx

A

Macrolide- erythromycin