PACOP GREEN Flashcards
1
Q
In LADMER system, L stands for liberation as the first step which determines the following aspects, except:
a. onset of action c. rate of absorption
b. type of preparation d. bioavailability
A
B
2
Q
The ultimate evaluation of dosage forms or delivery system is in:
a. disintegration time c. clinical effectiveness
b. thickness d. taste
A
C
3
Q
- Factor that contributes to patient’s difference in drug concentration in the body, except:
a. body weight c. age
b. obesity d. climate
A
D
4
Q
- A rate limiting factor in the dissolution of drugs is:
a. disintegration of the tablet c. content uniformity
b. thickness d. local effect
A
A
5
Q
- The effect of reduced particle size of a drug is:
a. increased absorption c. increased hardness
b. increased disintegration d. all of them
A
A
6
Q
- A cause of patient to patient variability of time course of the drug in the plasma is:
a. disease c. genetic in origin
b. concomitant drug therapy d. all of the above
A
D
7
Q
- Dissolution rate tests can be used to predict bioavailability if:
a. dissolved drug remains free in the GIT
b. dissolved drug is decomposed in the GIT
c. drug is hydrolyzed in the GIT
d. all of them
A
A
8
Q
- Elimination half-life of a drug is the time in hours needed to reduce drug concentration to:
a. half of the parent drug c. all or taken dose
b. one fourth of the initial dose d. a & b
A
A
9
Q
- Tmax means:
a. time of great solubility of the drug c. time of peak concentration
b. peak height concentration d. AUC values
A
C
10
Q
- To generally increase the solubility of a poorly soluble drug in an aqueous medium, the process is:
a. complexation c. prepare into a derivative
b. adsorption d. a & c
A
D
11
Q
- The ionization constant of a drug is important in bioavailability since it determines the following, except:
a. its aqueous solubility c. pH of the medium
b. dissolution rate d. extent of protein binding
A
D
12
Q
- The difference in bioavailability of a drug product of the same therapeutic agent is due to:
a. difference in formulation ingredients c. difference in methods of manufacture
b. difference in packaging d. a & c
A
D
13
Q
- Which of the crystal forms give the best dissolution rate?
a. meta-stable polymorph c. stable polymorph
b. amorphous d. a and b
A
B
14
Q
- The termination of action of a drug is determined by:
a. excretion of intact active molecule c. tissue redistribution
b. excretion of active molecule d. a & c
A
D
15
Q
- Pharmaceutical equivalents are drug products that contain:
a. identical amounts of active drugs
b. identical amounts of inactive ingredients
c. identical amounts of excipients
d. all of the above
A
D
16
Q
- The purpose of biotransformation reaction is:
a. deactivate the drug c. promote elimination of inactive drug
b. preserve the drug from destruction d. a & c
A
D
17
Q
- The advantage of sublingual/buccal administration is:
a. no occurrence of gastrointestinal degradation
b. drug directly in the circulation
c. not pass to the liver
d. a & c
A
D
18
Q
- The integral of the drug level over time from zero to infinity is:
a. biologic half-life c. bioavailability
b. area under the curve d. biopharmaceutics
A
B
19
Q
- The rate and extent at which the drug appears in the bloodstream is known as:
a. biopharmaceutics c. bioavailability
b. area under the curve d. biologic half-life
A
C
20
Q
- An inactive or much less active substance which is transformed to active drug in the body is:
a. dosage form c. asp
b. drug product d. prodrug
A
D
21
Q
- A site in the biophase to which drug molecules can be found is:
a. fluid compartment c. receptor
b. unit membrane d. none of the above
A
C
22
Q
- A branch of science which deals with physical and chemical properties of drug substance, the dosage form, and
the biological effectiveness of a drug product upon administration is:
a. pharmacology c. biopharmaceutics
b. pharmacokinetics d. pharmacy
A
C
23
Q
- The dose size required maintaining effectiveness or therapeutic concentration according to dosage regimen is:
a. priming dose c. loading dose
b. maintenance dose d. any of the above
A
B
24
Q
- The ability of the substance to exist in different crystalline forms is:
a. amphoterism c. polymorphism
b. sating in d. precipitation
A
C
25
Q
- Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs are administered by which of the ff.
routes?
a. subcutaneous c. oral
b. intravenous d. sublingual
A
C
26
Q
- A drug can exert its pharmacologic effect only when it is:
a. protein bound c. free drug
b. protein unbound d. b & c
A
D
27
Q
- Which of the following factors delays transit time?
a. increasing viscosity c. water
b. liquid diet d. b & c
A
A
28
Q
- The principal site of drug metabolism is:
a. kidney c. gut wall
b. muscle tissue d. liver
A
D
29
Q
- The mechanism for drug excretion via the kidney is:
a. facilitated diffusion c. pinocystosis
b. glomerular filtration d. ion transport
A
B
30
Q
- The major plasma protein involved in the distribution of weak acids is:
a. albumin c. glycine
b. glycoprotein d. gelatin
A
A
31
Q
- For faster absorption, what type of diluent or filler is needed if the drug is hydrophobic?
a. hydrophilic c. amphilic
b. water repellant d. b & c
A
C
32
Q
- The route of administration which will be by-pass the GIT degradation and hepatic metabolism is:
a. intravenous injection c. buccal
b. sublingual d. b & c
A
D
33
Q
- A branch of science which deals with the changes of drug concentration and its metabolites in the human or
animal body after administration is:
a. bioavailability c. biopharmaceutics
b. pharmacokinetics d. a & b
A
B
34
Q
- The first step which determines the onset of action, rate of absorption, availability is:
a. liberation c. excretion
b. distribution d. absorption
A
A
35
Q
Liberation is a process controlled by:
a. age of the patient c. both a & b
b. characteristic of the drug d. none of the above
A
B
36
Q
- Which is the following factors affect the dissolution in the lipid membrane of the lipid soluble unionized fluid
compartment:
a. pH c. lipid/water partition coefficient
b. pKa d. all of the above
A
D
37
Q
- Which is the following factors affect the dissolution in the lipid membrane of the lipid soluble unionized fluid
compartment:
a. pH c. lipid/water partition coefficient
b. pKa d. all of the above
A
A
38
Q
- When considering drug transport, ‘a passive transport process’ implies that:
a. all of the drug will pass from one compartment to another
b. the process requires energy
c. The net transfer of drug is from an area of high concentration to an area low concentration
d. the net transfer of drug is from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
A
C
39
Q
- The prerequisites of the binding of a drug to a receptor are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. chemical reactivity c. absence of functional group
b. electronic distribution d. none if the above
A
C
40
Q
- The following compounds are absorbed via convective transport EXCEPT:
a. ions of opposite charge of pore lining
b. ionized sulfonamides
c. weak organic acids
d. none of the above
A
C
41
Q
- The following mechanism of absorption required the presence of drug in aqueous solution, EXCEPT:
a. passive diffusion c. facilitated transport
b. convective transport d. pinocyctosis
A
D
42
Q
- Reabsorption of the drugs and its metabolite occurs in the
a. kidney c. both a & b
b. intestines d. none of the above
A
C
43
Q
- A type of transport whereby drug molecules dissolved in aqueous medium at the absorption site moves along
with the solvent through the pore:
a. active transport c. convective transpor
b. ion-pair transport d. facilitated transport
A
B
44
Q
- When a substance is half-ionized and half-nonionized at a certain pH, its pKa is:
a. greater than pH c. equal to pH
b. less than the pH d. negligible as compared to pH
A
C
45
Q
- The Noyes-Whitney equation determines:
a. particle size measurement c. dissolution constant
b. actual drug solubility d. dissolution rate
A
D
46
Q
- Studies of bioavailability are generally not required when:
a. drug is intended solely for IV use
b. the drug is for local therapeutic use
c. the drug is an oral product not required to be absorbed
d. all of the above
A
D
47
Q
- Gastric emptying is slowed down by the following except:
a. a vigorous exercise c. hot meals
b. fatty foods d. hunger
A
D
48
Q
- The ratio of the concentration of a drug in two immiscible phases is known as the:
a. concentration ratio c. partial miscibility
b. miscibility ratio d. lipid/water partition co-efficient
A
D
49
Q
- The metabolism of drugs generally results in:
a. less acidic cpds.
b. more acidic cpds
c. more polar cpds
d. cpds. Having a higher oil/water partition coefficient
A
C
50
Q
- Drugs that poorly lipid soluble or extensively ionized at the pH of the blood generally
a. penetrate the CNS very slowly and may essentially be eliminated from the body before a significant
concentration in the CNS is reached
b. achieve adequate CNS concentration only if given IV
c. must be metabolized to a more polar form before they can gain
d. access to the CNS
A
A
51
Q
- Which of the following events modify drug absorption?
a. physiological constituent of digestion
b. drug interaction
c. certain disease state
d. all of the above
A
D
52
Q
- Which of the following events modify drug absorption?
a. physiological constituent of digestion
b. drug interaction
c. certain disease state
d. all of the above
A
D
53
Q
- The displacement of drug from protein binding site causes:
a. decrease in the intensity of pharmacological response
b. decrease in the intensity of side effects
c. toxicity
d. all of the above
A
C
54
Q
- These are addition compounds of drug and organic solvents:
a. hydrates c. polymorphous
b. solvates d. none of the above
A
B
55
Q
- The Vd of drug is related to:
a. the amount f drug in the body d. the volume of the small intestine
b. the volume of the liver e. the volume of the large intestine
c. the volume of the heart
A
A
56
Q
- The major pathway of excretion
a. via the liver c. via the circulation system
b. via the kidney d. via the large intestines
A
B
57
Q
- Which of the following propertied of surfactants tend to increase the rate of dissolution?
a. surface tension lowering effect
b. increased surface tension
c. absence of peptizing action
d. all of the above
A
A
58
Q
- The rate of diffusion of drug across biological membranes is most commonly:
a. independent on the concentration gradient
b. directly proportional to the concentration gradient
c. dependent on the availability of carrier substrate
d. dependent on the route of administration
A
B
59
Q
- In general, various oral dosage forms can be ranked in which of the following expected order of availability
(fastest to slowest)
a. aqueous capsule, tablet, powder, coated tablet, suspension
b. capsule, tablet, coated tablet, powder, suspension, aqueous, solution
c. aqueous solution, suspension, powder, capsule, tablet, coated tablet
d. suspension, aqueous solution, powder, capsule, coated tablet, tablet
A
C
60
Q
- The rectal route of administration may be preferred over the oral route for some drug because:
a. the drug does not have to be absorbed
b. absorption is predictable and complete
c. a portion of the absorbed drug does not pass through the liver before entering the systemic circulation
d. the dissolution process is involved
A
C
61
Q
- Renal clearance depends on:
a. urinary pH c. absorption
b. glomerural filtration d. distribution
A
A
62
Q
- Application of clinical pharmacokinetics as to management of the individual patient is the:
a. safety c. therapeutic
b. overdosage d. a & c
A
D
63
Q
- The time in hours necessary to reduce the drug concentration in the blood, the plasma, or serum to half its
original concentration after equilibrium is reaced:
a. biological half-life c. bioavailability
b. area under the curve d. a & b
A
A
64
Q
- The breakdown of ingested foreign compounds to simpler structures:
a. catabolism c. homeostasis
b. anabolism d. none of the above
A
A
65
Q
- If the extent and rate of absorption is similar to the standard drug, it has achieved:
a. bioequivalence of a drug c. pharmaceutical alternative product
b. pharmaceutical equivalence d. a &b
A
A
66
Q
- The magnitude of bile production depends on:
a. type of food c. the enzyme activity
b. the amount of bile emptied d. all of the above
A
A
67
Q
- Biotransformation of a drug takes place in the liver in the presence of:
a. energy from the body c. substance destroyed in the
b. enzymes which act as catalysts d. a & c
A
B
68
Q
- Due to their anatomical structure, the organ that is considered as the most important site of drug absorption is:
a. large intestine c. small intestine
b. stomach d. mucous membrane of the mouth
A
C
69
Q
- Biliary excretion principle:
a. through the bile duct into the duodenum
b. major portion of the bile is excreted
c. as metabolite
d. any of the above
A
A
70
Q
- Factor determining the biological activity of the drug:
a. formulation of the dosage form c. dose
b. individual d. all of the above
A
D
71
Q
- Factor affecting gastric emptying time of a drug:
a. age of the person c. body posture
b. time of the day d. all of them
A
D
72
Q
- The hyphotetical plasma volume in mL of the unmetabolized drug which is cleared in one minute via the kidney:
a. volume of distribution c. total clearance
b. renal clearance d. area under the curve
A
B
73
Q
- The process that determines absolute bioavailability are the first pass effect and:
a. absorption c. distribution
b. liberation d. metabolism
A
A
74
Q
- Factor affecting difference between loading and maintenance dose:
a. half-life of a drug c. adverse effect
b. effectiveness of the dose d. b & c
A
A
75
Q
- A relative bioavailability study is necessary when there is:
a. a change in gelenic of the dru
b. a change in the method of manufacture
c. a change in the means of preservation
d. all of the above
A
D
76
Q
- In organs and tissues that are well perfused:
a. distribution is lower c. distribution rate is negligible
b. distribution is faster d. none of the above
A
B
77
Q
- The following pathological state influences the volume of distribution EXCEPT:
a. renal disease c. cardiac insufficiency
b. hepatic disease d. vertigo
A
D
78
Q
- The volume of distribution of a drug is:
a. mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in body and the concentration of drug in
the blood
b. a measure of an individual’s blood volume
c. an expression of total body volume
d. a measure of the individual fluid volume
A
A
79
Q
- The biologic half-life of many drugs is often prolonged in new born infants because of:
a. a higher decrease of protein binding
b. microsomal enzyme induction
c. more complete absorption of drugs
d. incompletely developed enzyme system
A
D
80
Q
- Drugs are usually released much more slowly from fat because:
a. fat has relatively limited blood supply
b. drugs are fat bound that plasma bound
c. fat-bound-drugs bind to itself more
d. all of the above
A
A
81
Q
- Which of the following factos increase the rate if gastric emptying:
a. fats c.anticholinergic
b. increasing viscosity d. none of the above
A
D
82
Q
- Possible approaches to measure bioavailability:
a. blood level data c. clinical data
b. urinary excretion data d. all of the above
A
D
83
Q
- The force of attraction which binds drugs to albumin:
a. Van der Waal’s c. hydrogen bond
b. hydrophobic bond d. all of the above
A
D
84
Q
- The metabolism and/or the elimination of a drug by gastrointestinal and hepatic drug metabolizing enzyme
which can occur after oral administration of a drug:
a. first pass effect c. hepatic clearance
b. biliary recycling d. BUN
A
A
85
Q
- The administration of the same dose of active ingredient in different Galenic forms:
a. always leads to the same therapeutic effect
b. does not necessarily lead to the same therapeutic effect
c. always lead to different therapeutic effect
d. none of the above
A
B
86
Q
- The theory which states that the cell membrane is made up of a bi-lipid layer and fluid protein molecules
interspersed between the 2 layers of lipid:
a. fluid-mosaic d. nicholson
b. Monsanto e. none of the above
c. Davidson
A
A
87
Q
- Cumulative urinary excretion is often used in the pharmacokinetic and clinical studies in man and animals to
learn about the disposition of the drug and to determine the following:
a. Ka c. % of drug absorbed
b. fraction of drug absorbed d. all of the above
A
D
88
Q
- Is the loss of drug from the central compartment due to transfer into other compartments and/or elimination or
metabolism:
a. dosage regimen d. creatinine clearance
b. disposition e. circadian rhythm
c. depot phase
A
B
89
Q
- An entity which can be described by a definite volume and a concentration of drug contained in that volume:
a. compartment c. receptor
b. serum level d. bloodstream
A
A
90
Q
- A cell or a cell component where the final interaction between drug and receptor takes place:
a. receptor c. unit membrane
b. biophase d. muscle
A
B
91
Q
- Drugs that are absorbed in the GIT are generally:
a. absorbed into the portal circulation and pass through the liver
before entering the general circulation
b. filtered from the bloody by the kidney, then reabsorbed into the
general circulation
c. not affected by the liver enzymes
d. stored in the liver
A
A
92
Q
- The speed of blood perfusion in an organ, usually expressed in mL/100 g organ weight/min.
a. accumulation c. blood flow rate
b. bioavailability d. absorption
A
C
93
Q
- Drugs in which the pharmacological action depends directly on the chemical structure of the drug:
a. structure specific drugs c. drug agonist
b. structure non-specific drugs d. none of the above
A
A
94
Q
- Phosporous poison reacting with cupric sulfate in the intestines (so as to prevent the absorption of the poison )
is an example of _____antagonism.
a. chemical c. non-equilibrium
b. competitive d. none of the above
A
A
95
Q
- The ratio of creatinine excreted in urine to the concentration of creatinine
In plasma:
a. creatinine concentration c. creatinine clearance
b. creatinine excretion d. renal clearance
A
C
96
Q
- If drug A is more lipophilic than drug B, then
a. drug A will be better distributed that drug B
b. drug B will be better distributed that drug A
c. drug agonist
d. none of the above
A
A
97
Q
- Drugs of low solubility may be brought into solution by the use of:
a. solvent c. surfactants
b. vehicle d. all of the above
A
C
98
Q
- The LADME system is employed in:
a. the development of new active compounds
b. the determination of effective dose sizes
c. the adjustment of dosage regimen
d. all of the above
A
D
99
Q
- A type of antagonism whereby the agonist and the antagonist bind to different receptor and have opposite
pharmacologic actions:
a. partial antagonism c. non-competitive antagonism
b. non-equilibrium antagonism d.competitive antagonism
A
C
100
Q
- A type of antagonism whereby the antagonist formsirreversible receptor binding:
a. partial antagonism c. non-equilibrium antagonism
b. non-competitive antagonism d. competitive antagonism
A
C
101
Q
- Is the hyphotetical volume of distribution in mL of the unmetabolized drug which is cleared per unit time by any
pathway of drug removal:
a. diffusion layer d. clinical pharmacokinetics
b. diurnal variation e. none of the above
c. clearance
A
C
102
Q
- Obtained when the drug product is administered at the site where the pharmacological response is desired and
when the drug released from the acts by adsorption to the skin or mucosa or penetrates into the skin or
mucosa, but does not enter the systemic circulation or lymphatic system.
a. systemic effect c. mean transit time
b. local effect d. micro constants
A
B
103
Q
- Tissue distribution of drugs is highly dependent on
a. organ perfusion c. both a & b
b. type of dosage form d. none of the above
A
A
104
Q
- Maintenance of a steady state which characterized the interval environment of the healthy organism:
a. steady state c. homeostasis
b. depot phase d. maintenance dose
A
C
105
Q
- An entity which can be described by a definite volume and a concentration of drug obtained in that volume
a. compartment c. receptor
b. serum level d. none of these
A
A
106
Q
- Membrane potential is due to the:
a. adsorption of protein to the outside of the lipid layer
b. different distribution of ions in the extracellular and intracellular fluid
c. both a & b
d. pH of the medium
A
B
107
Q
- The cell membrane is capable of forming vesicles which may engulf drug substances outside the cell
membrane to transport the drug (via the engulfed drug) into the compartment:
a. ion-pair d. pinocytosis
b. passive diffusion e. active transport
c. convective transport
A
D
108
Q
- In the diffusion controlled system, the initial rate of dissolution is directly proportional to the:
a. pKa c. quantity of free acid present
b. pH d. solubility of the drug in the dissolution medium
A
D
109
Q
- Refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic parameters during absorption, distribution,
metabolism, and excretion by over-loading of processes due to increased dose sizes:
a. nonlinear kinetics d. both a & c
b. linear kinetics e. both b & c
c. saturation kinetics
A
D
110
Q
- The concentration of the ionic moiety of weak acids increases with:
a. decreasing pH of aqueous solution c. increasing pOH of aqueous solution
b. increasing pH of aqueous solution d. all of the above
A
B
111
Q
- Which of the following drugs is not listed as a candidate for routine therapeutic drug monitoring programs?
a. theophylline d. digoxin
b. aminoglycosides e. penicillin
c. phenytoin
A
E
112
Q
- The ff. are the mechanism by which drugs containing sorption promoters penetrate the skin
a. decrease viscosity of the medium
b. chelation of intercellular groups
c. widening of either lipid or aqueous phase or both phases found in the intercellular matrix
d. all of the above
A
D
113
Q
- Type of antagonism which is dependent on concentration (of either agonist antagonist or both) and this
antagonism is reversible:
a. chemical d. non-equilibrium
b. competitive e. partial
c. non-competitive
A
B
114
Q
- Structural nonspecific drugs act by
a. physicochemical processes c. biochemical processes
b. physical processes d. none of the above
A
A
115
Q
- The ff. characterize transport of a drug solution across a membrane by passive diffusion except:
a. membrane thickness c. partition coefficient
b. volume of outside compartment d. membrane length
A
D
116
Q
- The physical barrier to transport in the body:
a. carrier molecule d. any of the above choices
b. inactive complex e. none of the above
c. unit membrane
A
C
117
Q
- That portion of a prolonged release dosage form which liberates the drug
From the form at a slower rate that its unrestricted absorption rate:
a. depot phase d. all of the above
b. release phase e. none of the choices
c. dissolve phase
A
A
118
Q
- The determination and recording of drug concentrations during the course of therapy in order to adjust, if
necessary, the dosage regimen:
a. monitoring c. metabolizing
b. patient charting d. all of the above
A
A
