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ICND2 > P4S - ICND2 - SIM 1 > Flashcards

P4S - ICND2 - SIM 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.

B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.

C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.

D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

A

D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

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2
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

A. Switch1

B. Switch2

C. Switch3

D. Switch4

A

C. Switch3

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3
Q

Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

A. Switch3, port fa0/1

B. Switch3, port fa0/12

C. Switch4, port fa0/11

D. Switch4, port fa0/2

E. Switch3, port Gi0/1

F. Switch3, port Gi0/2

A

C. Switch4, port fa0/11

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4
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.

B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.

C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.

D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

A

C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.

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5
Q

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.

B. RSTP defines new port roles.

C. RSTP defines no new port states.

D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.

E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

A

B. RSTP defines new port roles.

E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

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6
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated

B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root

C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root

D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated

E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root

F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

A

A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated

B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root

F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

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7
Q

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A. learning

B. listening

C. discarding

D. forwarding

A

C. discarding

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8
Q

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A. discarding

B. listening

C. learning

D. forwarding

E. disabled

A

A. discarding

D. forwarding

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9
Q

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.

B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.

C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.

D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.

E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.

F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

A

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.

B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.

D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.

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10
Q

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A. physical

B. data link

C. network

D. transport

A

B. data link

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11
Q

What is one benefit of PVST+?

A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.

B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.

D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

A

C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.

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12
Q

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.

D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

A

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

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13
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.

B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.

C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.

D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.

E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.

F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

A

A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.

C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.

E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.

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14
Q

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding state?

A. converged

B. redundant

C. provisioned

D. spanned

A

A. converged

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15
Q

Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?

A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.

B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.

C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.

D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.

A

D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.

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16
Q

Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)

A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0

Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

Router(config-if)# no shut down

B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0

Router(config-if)# no shut down

Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1

Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10

Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0

Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2

Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20

Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100

Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0

Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0

D. Switch1(config)# vlan database

Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ

Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server

E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1

Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

A

B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0

Router(config-if)# no shut down

Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1

Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10

Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0

Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2

Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20

Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100

Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0

Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0

E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

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17
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.

C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.

D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.

E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.

F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

A

D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.

F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

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18
Q

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.

B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.

C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.

D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.

E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

A

A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.

C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.

E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

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19
Q

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# router ospf 1

A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.

B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.

C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes

D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.

E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

A

C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes

D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.

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20
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output from the show ip eigrp topology command, which router is the feasible successor?

A.

B.

C.

[![clip_image016](http://www.ccnadump.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/07/clip_image016_thumb12.jpg "clip\_image016")](http://www.ccnadump.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/07/clip_image01612.jpg)

D.

A

B.

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21
Q

Refer to the exhibit. RTA is configured with a basic configuration. The link between the two routers is operational and no routing protocols are configured on either router. The line shown in the exhibit is then added to router RTA. Should interface Fa0/0 on router RTB shut down, what effect will the shutdown have on router RTA?

A. A route to 172.16.14.0/24 will remain in the RTA routing table.

B. A packet to host 172.16.14.225 will be dropped by router RTA.

C. Router RTA will send an ICMP packet to attempt to verify the route.

D. Because router RTB will send a poison reverse packet to router RTA, RTA will remove the route.

A

A. A route to 172.16.14.0/24 will remain in the RTA routing table.

22
Q

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

A. Administratively shut down the interface.

B. Physically secure the interface.

C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.

D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.

E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

A

D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.

E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

23
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.

B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.

C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.

D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

A

C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.

24
Q

Refer to the exhibit. What information about the interfaces on the Main_Campus router is true?

A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.

B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.

C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.

D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.

E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.

A

B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.

25
Q

Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?

A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router eigrp 123

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router ospf 1

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0

C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router rip

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

D. No further routing configuration is required.

A

D. No further routing configuration is required.

26
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?

A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.

B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.

C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.

D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.

E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.

A

E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.

27
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?

A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.

B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.

C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.

D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.

A

A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.

28
Q

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

A. Corp-1

B. Corp-2

C. Corp-3

D. Corp-4

E. Branch-1

F. Branch-2

A

D. Corp-4

F. Branch-2

29
Q

What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A. It converges quickly.

B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.

C. It uses cost to determine the best route.

D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.

E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.

F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.

A

A. It converges quickly.

C. It uses cost to determine the best route.

F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.

30
Q

Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?

A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.

B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.

C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.

D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.

A

C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.

31
Q

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A. Bandwidth

B. Bandwidth and Delay

C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU

D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

A

A. Bandwidth

32
Q

Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)

A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.

B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.

C. Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.

D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.

E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

A

A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.

D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.

33
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?

A. Core(config-router)# default-information originate

Core(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0

Core(config-router)# exit

Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14

B. Core(config-router)# default-information originate

Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.13 0.0.0.242 area 0

Core(config-router)# exit

Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14

C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate

Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0

Core(config-router)# exit

Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14

D. Core(config-router)# default-information originate

Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0

Core(config-router)# exit

Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14

A

C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate

Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0

Core(config-router)# exit

Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14

34
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.

C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.

D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.

E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

A

B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.

C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.

35
Q

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 16

D. unlimited

A

B. 4

36
Q

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

A. hop count

B. administrative distance

C. link bandwidth

D. link delay

E. link cost

A

B. administrative distance

37
Q

What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets

B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality

C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network

D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm

E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

A

B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality

D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm

38
Q

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.

B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.

C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.

D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.

E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.

F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.

G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

A

B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.

G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

39
Q

A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?

A. the route learned through EIGRP

B. the route learned through OSPF

C. the route learned through RIP

D. the route with the lowest metric

E. all three routes with the router load balancing

A

A. the route learned through EIGRP

40
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

A. 10.1.1.2

B. 10.154.154.1

C. 172.16.5.1

D. 192.168.5.3

A

C. 172.16.5.1

41
Q

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

A. Corp-1

B. Corp-2

C. Corp-3

D. Corp-4

E. Branch-1

F. Branch-2

A

D. Corp-4

F. Branch-2

42
Q

What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?

A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.

B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.

C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.

D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

A

C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.

43
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0

O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0

B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0

O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0

C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0

O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0

O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0

D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0

O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0

A

A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0

O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0

44
Q

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

A. show ip ospf link-state

B. show ip ospf lsa database

C. show ip ospf neighbors

D. show ip ospf database

A

D. show ip ospf database

45
Q

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 120

A

C. 110

46
Q

Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers.

B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected.

C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C.

D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network.

A

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers.

47
Q

Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?

A. The router will drop the packet.

B. The router will return the packet to its source.

C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.

D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.

A

C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.

48
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?

A. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

B. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

C. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

D. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

E. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

F. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

A

D. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

49
Q

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)

A. hello packets

B. SAP messages sent by other routers

C. LSAs from other routers

D. beacons received on point-to-point links

E. routing tables received from other link-state routers

F. TTL packets from designated routers

A

A. hello packets

C. LSAs from other routers

50
Q

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)

A. Router(config)# router ospf 0

B. Router(config)# router ospf 1

C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0

D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0

E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

A

B. Router(config)# router ospf 1

E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

ICND2 (4 decks)

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