P: White blood cells and Haemostasis Flashcards

1
Q

Innate responses

A

General processes against infectious agents
- Skin, phagocytosis of micro-organisms, destruction by stomach acids/enzymes, hydrolytic enzymes released by immune cells

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2
Q

Adaptive responses

A

Directed against specific infectious agents
- Improved on repeated exposure of the same infection

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3
Q

Subtypes of leukocytes

A

Nucleated cells
- Monocytes
- Eosinophils
- Neutrophils
- Lymphocytes
- Basophils

M+E+N = phagocytosis
B = release hydrolytic enzymes + histamine

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4
Q

Granulocytes

A

Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils (BEN)
- Multiple nuclei of varying shapes
- Other name = polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN/PML)

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5
Q

Where do granulocytes originate from (what cells)?

A

Myelocytes (bone marrow precursor cells)

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6
Q

Genesis of myelocytes:
- Under ___ control
- Large ___ in bone marrow
- Marrow has 10x more ___ cells than ___ cells (RBC precursors)

A
  • cytokine
  • reserve pool
  • myeloid, erythroid
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7
Q

Rank granulocytes from most to least common

A

Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils

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8
Q

Neutrophils:
- ___ in blood and tissues
- Circulate in ___ —> migrate into ___ (squeeze through capillaries pores = ____)
- Numbers increase +++ during ___
- ___ immunity

A
  • Phagocytosis
  • blood, tissues, diapedesis
  • infection
  • Innate
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9
Q

Eosinophils:
- Weakly ___: attack ___ too large to be engulfed (attach to them and secrete ___ enzymes)
- Can reverse tissue damage during ___

A
  • phagocytic, parasites, hydrolytic
  • allergic reactions
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10
Q

Basophils:
- ____, but act like eosinophils to release ___
- Contribute to ___ by release of chemicals (histamine, heparin, bradykinin, serotonin, lysosomal enzymes, slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis)

A
  • Non-phagocytic, hydrolytic enzymes
  • allergic reactions
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11
Q

Monocytes:
- Circulate in blood for hours before migrating into tissues where they ___ and develop ___
- ___ infectious agents and abnormal/dying cells (including RBCs) only in tissues

A
  • increase in size +++, tissue macrophages
  • Phagocytose
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12
Q

Which leukocytes act in innate immunity vs acquired immunity?

A

Innate: monocytes, eosinophils, neutrophils, basophils and NK cells (lymphocytes)
Acquired: lymphocytes

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13
Q

What’s the largest leukocyte

A

Monocytes

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14
Q

What is the system name of the collective monocytes?

A

Reticuloendothelial system

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15
Q

Where are macrophages especially prominent in?

A
  • Lymph nodes
  • Lung alveolar walls
  • Liver sinusoidal capillaries
  • Red pulp of spleen
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16
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

Recruitment of neutrophils + macrophages to tissue inflammation/infection

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17
Q

What’s the first line of defence?

A

Local macrophages

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18
Q

What do the secreted factors of activated macrophages promote?

A

Production of granulocytes and monocytes

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19
Q

Different stages of inflammation

A
  1. Rapid neutrophilia (large production of neutrophils by bone marrow)
  2. Increased monocyte production/recruitment and tissue macrophage buildup (hours-days)
  3. Macrophages = superior phagocytic cells (longer to regulate and transport to site of infection, but more powerful)
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20
Q

Natural Killer (NK) cells:
- Produced from ___
- Specifically target ___ and ___ infected cells
- Induce programmed cell death (___)
- Activated by ___ or macrophage-derived ___

A
  • lymphoid lineage
  • tumour, virus
  • apoptosis
  • interferons, cytokines
21
Q

Subtypes of lymphocytes

A
  1. B lymphocytes: mature into plasma cells and secrete antibodies
  2. T lymphocytes: Helper T cells secrete cytokines to activate other leukocytes. Cytotoxic T cells secrete factors that kill tumour and virus-infected cells
  3. NK cells: secrete factors that kill tumour and virus-infected cells
22
Q

Where are lymphocytes produced and stored?

A

Lymphoid tissue (lymph, glands, spleen, thymus, tonsils, bone marrow and Peyer’s patches in intestinal epithelium)

23
Q

What drives the growth and differentiation of lymphocytes?

A

Various cytokines like interleukins (ILs)

24
Q

Where are Pro-T and Pro-B cells processed before and after birth?

A

Pro-T cells: thymus gland
Pro-B cells: liver and bone marrow

25
What causes the very high diversity of antigen specificity?
Genetic recombination
26
What happens to "self" reacting cells in lymphocyte processing?
They're eliminated --> remaining cells migrate to and are stored in lymphoid tissues
27
What mediates the immunity of T and B cells? T: ___-mediated B: ___-mediated
T: cell-mediated B: humoral-mediated
28
Major histocompatibility complex: - ___ + ___ cells phagocytose microorganisms + present antigenic fragments on cell surface to nearby ___ - Binding of ___ to specific cell surface ____ on lymphocytes activates these specific cells only - Activated lymphocytes ___ rapidly - large numbers of a clone of lymphocytes released into circulation - Macrophages secrete ___ which promotes specific clonal growth
- Macrophage, dentritic, lymphocytes - antigens, receptors - reproduce - IL-1
29
Helper T lymphocytes: - 75% of T-cells secrete ___ (IL-2 to 6) - Promote growth of ___ - Stimulation of ___ and ___ cells - Activation of ___ - ___ of helper cells - ___ destroys helper T cells
- lymphokines - activated B cells - cytotoxic and suppressor T cells - macrophages - Feedback stimulation - HIV
30
Cytotoxic T cells
- Killer cells - Destroy micro-organisms containing activating antigen (virus infected, cancer and transplanted cells)
31
Suppressor T cells - Prevent damage of ___ by ___ - ___ tolerance - Failure = ___ diseases
- tissues, cytotoxic cells - Immune - autoimmune diseases
32
B lymphocytes: - Activated B cells differentiate into ___ (___) secreting plasma cells - Same specificity as B cell receptor is activated by the ___ = membrane-bound ___
- antibody (immunoglobulin) - antigen, immunoglobulin
33
What's a complement? - A ___ protein ___ in plasma, activated by ___ complexes - Constant portion of antibody activates ___ - ___ of sequential reactions with ____ at each stage - Activated products ___ next component and stimulate ___ - ___: tagging of pathogen for pathogenesis - Cell ___
- ~20, cascade, antibody-antigen - C1 - cascade, amplification - activate, innate immunity - Opsonisation - lysis
34
Primary response
- Small number of activated B and T cells become memory cells - Circulate in blood and lymphoid tissue as dormant cells
35
Secondary response
- B cells become plasma cells - T cells become helper, cytotoxic and suppressor T cells
36
Steps of haemostasis
1. Vascular spasm: constriction damaged blood vessels 2. Platelet plug formation: platelets adhere to damaged endothelium to form platelet plug 3. Blood coagulation: formation of solid blood clot at site of platelet plug
37
Vascular constriction
Trauma to blood vessels causes contraction of vascular smooth muscle: - Local myogenic contraction - Local axon reflexion initiated by pain/sensory receptors at/near damaged vessels - Local platelets in blood release thromboxane A (vasoconstrictor substance)
38
Platelets - ~4000 platelets produced from each ___ in bone marrow - No ___ - Synthesize various factors that act on ___ + local blood vessels and tissue
- megakaryocyte - nucleus - plasma proteins
39
What eliminates platelets from circulation?
Macrophages mainly in spleen
40
Formation of platelet plug - Platelets adhere to exposed ___ fibre of damaged ___ and form a platelet plug - Plasma protein (___ factor) triggers ___ and ___ of platelets to one another and to sites of vascular damage - Platelets are structurally changed and release ___ + ___ --> trigger further ___/___ - Formation of a ___ platelet plug
- collagen, vessel walls - von Willebrand, adherence, aggregation - ADP, thromboxane A2, adherence/aggregation - loose
41
Formation of blood clot: - Inactive ___ factors are activated in a cascade reaction - ___ pathways: activated by ___/___ trauma - ___ pathway: initiated by ___ - End stage = production of a stable ___ meshwork (blood clot) --> stabilizes temporary platelet plug
- coagulation - extrinsic, vessel/tissue - intrinsic, blood factors - fibrin
42
Coagulation cascade: - Last step in clot formation = ___ conversion of ___ to ___ by ___ - Loose ___ stabilized by formation of covalent bonds catalysed by ____ which is activated by ___ - Thrombin has a ___ on prothrombin = ___ feedback
- proteolytic, fibrinogen, fibrin, thrombin - fibrin meshwork, coagulation factor XIIIa, thrombin - proteolytic, positive
43
Vitamin K: - Needed for hepatic synthesis of ___ e.g. ___ - Deficiencies leads to ___ - Synthesised by bacteria in ___ - Vitamin K deficiency caused by obstruction of ___ and/or ___ disease - Newborns lack ____ --> contain 50% of adult clotting factors so vitamin K is administered at birth.
- clotting factors e.g. prothrombin - serious bleeding tendencies - intestinal tract - bile ducts, liver - intestinal bacterial flora
44
Feedback inhibition by formation of fibrin: - 85-90% of ___ formed from ___ is absorbed to ___ - ___ binds + removes remaining ___ - Cessation of ____
- thrombin, prothrombin, fibrin - Antithrombin III, thrombin - clotting cascade
45
Intravascular anticoagulants: to stop contact activation of intrinsic pathway, ____
- layer of glycocalyx on endothelium - thrombomodulin binds + removes thrombin from plasma.
46
Heparin: - Activates ___ - Removes ___ + ___ - Used as ___ agent
- Antithrombin III - free thrombin + upstream factors - anti-clotting
47
Aspirin - Blocks production of ___ by inhibiting ____ - Long-term aspirin inhibits ___
- thromboxane, enzyme cyclooxygenase - platelet aggregation
48
Prostacyclin: - binds ___ on platelets - increases ___ - blocks increase in ___ caused by ___ - Blocks ___
- prostacyclin receptor - intracellular [cAMP] - intracellular [Ca2+], thromboxane receptor - platelet aggregation/adherence
49
Dipyridamole: - inhibits ___ + ___ which degrades ___ - blocks ___
- thromboxane synthase, phosphodiesterase, cAMP - platelet aggregation/adherence