P&P Flashcards

1
Q

Core Values

A

commitment
courage
integrity
innovation
teamwork
service

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2
Q

Two officers of equal rank faced with situation requiring action , command goes to

A

officer having assigned responsibility
officer having on duty status
officer having seniority

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3
Q

Display of the Flag

A

-sunrise to sunset unless illuminated during night
-flag down during inclement weather unless all weather flag
-no flag above or at same level
-when flag on wall, US flag on right side or centred and higher when with multiple flags
-Us flag always on top of others on flag pole
-US flag hoisted first and lowered last
-speaker platform- FLAT flag above and behind speaker
-flag should be on right of speaker

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4
Q

Flag display

A

When displayed with union on right, means extreme danger to life and property
-during ceremony when flag is raised or lowered, non uniform put hand on heart and uniform personnel salute.

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5
Q

Who can order flag at half staff

A

By orders of president when principal figures of government are to be remembered or die
-Governor can also order half staff with death of present or former officer of government

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6
Q

How long is flag displayed at half staff

A

30 days from death for president or former president
-10 days for vice president, chief of justice, speaker of house
-day of death until interment for all other government officer or line of duty death of FF or Police

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7
Q

how is flag displayed on memorial day

A

Half staff until noon only

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8
Q

What is the proper way for US flag to be disposed of

A

wrapped in brown paper bag, labelled and sent to warehouse for disposal

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9
Q

What is the insignia for class A sleeves

A

Fire chief=5 stripes
Dep Fire Chief=4 stripes
Division chief= 3 stripes
BC=2 stripes

*one Maltese cross for each 5 years of service above highest sleeve stripe

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10
Q

Are class C uniforms approved for staff personnel?

A

No

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11
Q

Uniform exception for fire investigator

A

Business casual is an option to class B uniform
POST certified arson investigators may dress consistent with law enforcement as needed- tac vest, gun belt, star type badge

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12
Q

what is the purpose of the standards of behaviour policy

A

describe rules regarding general conduct and set forth ethical standards based on core values and mission statement

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13
Q

when must supervisors review standards of behaviour policy with new employee

A

within first 30 days of new assignment

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14
Q

grooming standards

A

hair- not to fall in front over eyebrows and hair in back. not to fall below top of buttoned shirt collar
side burns- to bottom of ear, square, no wide than 1 and a quarter inch
moustache- must show half of upper lip and no lower than 1/2” below corner of mouth

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15
Q

Notice of privacy practice NPP

A

NPP must be posted on each ambulance and fire department apparatus
-Not required for emergencies, which is every pt contact

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16
Q

HIPPA

A

-Health insurance portability accountability act
-Notice of privacy practices must be posted for all to see including on website
-exception: An inmpte does not have right to receive notice of privacy practice

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17
Q

3 things that could make an emancipated minor

A
  1. legally married
  2. member of military
  3. possesses judicial declaration from judge
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18
Q

Minor consent in non emergency situations

A

pt less than 18 and not emancipated has right that prohibits EMS from informing pt parent

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19
Q

Medical information requested by family members

A

-verbal information only can be given to immediate family member or person with durable power of attorney
-at no time should written docs be given to family memebers without pt consent

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20
Q

situations EMS can not inform parents without minor consent

A

pregnancy
contraception
abortion
STD 12+
AIDS HIV 12+
drug or alcohol treatment 12+
rape 12+

replacement narcotic abuse TX requires parent consent

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21
Q

Pt info involving CQI that is sent to station for review must be returned with in?

A

72 hours

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22
Q

Breach of privacy protocols process. suspected HIPA violation

A
  1. begin informally by resolving issue with individual
  2. go to supervisor
  3. next level supervisor
  4. Formal to HR manager
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23
Q

How long do you have to submit HIPA violation

A

180 days from violation knowledge

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24
Q

what form to use for submitting HIPA violation

A

SB medical info privacy complaint form

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25
Q

How long is info gathered in a HIPA violation kept and maintained

A

6 years

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26
Q

Public complaints against fire personnel

A
  1. captains contact fire prevention if needed
  2. anonymous callers not investigated
  3. handle same day
  4. take caller name phone location, nature and resolution
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27
Q

Payrol code for jury summons and subpoenas

A

FJU for shift personnel
JUR for staff

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28
Q

pay for court appearances, jury duty and subpoenas

A

court pays milage but no juror fees. if off duty court pays both

civil service rules state that you are paid leave of absence for court appearances as non party witness

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29
Q

if you are a witness for a civil subpoena who pays

A

county obligated to pay salary and other compensation

applies to both trials and depositions

includes prep and travel time

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30
Q

what should you do if you are contacted by lawyer about an incident responded to on duty

A

refer lawyer to investigation section.

district attorney and sheriff are exceptions to this policy

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31
Q

how often and where do you update employee emergency contact info

A

update annually

update in target solutions

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32
Q

what is required when see a doctor or you lose time for work related injury

A

physicians authorisation

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33
Q

who provides payment for cost of personal items lost while on duty

A

Board of supervisors

submit thru chain of command

submit property damage statement form

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34
Q

Safe surrender baby

A

person can surrender baby confidentially within 72 hours of birth

no questions asked

safe surrender kit kept in apparatus glove box

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35
Q

Safe surrender procedures

A
  1. accept baby- no questions asked
  2. palce bracelet on baby and give matching bracelet to parents
  3. offer info packet and heath questionnaire
  4. assess baby
  5. contact dispatch and start inc to request ambulance
  6. accompany baby to hospital
  7. request dispatch to notify child welfare, on duty BC and PIO
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36
Q

Drivers lic requirement

A

-minimum is class C with FF endorsement
-as of 2011 class B is no longer required
-fire equipment operator and operator assistance along with supervisor possess class A with FF endorsement

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37
Q

Drivers lic health requirements

A

health questionnaire for class C with FF endorsement

medical report for class A

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38
Q

what is the DMV pull notice program

A

-safety members required to enrol in program
-generates pull notice when;
-on enrolment
-annually
-convictions
-failure to appear
-accidents
-suspensions

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39
Q

Public information program

A

IC or 1st captain on scene responsible for working with media at scene until PIO arrives

PIO must prepare short news release with in 15 minutes of code 20

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40
Q

what is the Newsline

A

used by PIO to update info on inc
or used to educate public, info on control burn, special info
no member of dep may call news conference without chief consent

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41
Q

Major incident report

A

used by chief to contact board of supervisors and chief executives

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42
Q

Who does call go to if PIO and on call PIO not available

A

BC, Duty chief, deputy chief and fire chief- in that order

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43
Q

Life hazard zone ID

A

3 strands of horizontal barrier tape with words do not enter or do not cross.
between 1” and 3”
fixed to stationary suport

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44
Q

what to do if you come across life hazard

A

notify BC with emergency traffic
type/nature
location
resources needed
exposure needs of issues

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45
Q

optimal ID for life hazard

A

3-1 inch red/white striped or chevron tape with life hazard-do not enter written
18-24’’ apart fixed
use of illumination recommend at night

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46
Q

remote life hazard or large life hazard

A

IC assigns look outs at entrance or access roads
description of hazard and distance to hazard attached
all personnel in area or division notified
life hazard or placard marked in inc map (red stop sign with three white stripes)

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47
Q

notification of life hazard prior to arrival or at scene

A

dispatch includes LH in initial dispatch and does roll call
If hazard made aware after dispatch and Inc command established, LH announcement made by IC

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48
Q

Title 8 CA code

A

if life hazard present at least 2 people with SCBA on job with communications. one standby person at location with rescue equipment and SCBA

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49
Q

workers comp claims

A

record keeping in daily log and cumulative log
claims must be filled out by employee with in 24 hours
annual summary of injury and illness posted for 30 days beginning February 1st

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50
Q

2 in 2 out policy

A

required when fire past incipient phase
2 enter 2 must out as standby
one of standby members can perform other functions but must be available
does not prevent entrance when known rescue

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51
Q

physical demands guideline

A

inside 25% of day
outside 75% of day

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52
Q

tobacco use policy

A

no employee can use tobacco hired after 1987

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53
Q

3 levels of exposure to blood born pathogens

A

level 1. presence of pt with known communicable disease( no action needed)
level 2. contaminated clothing- action is decontamination
level 3. exposure by way of cut broken skin or eyes- action is decontamination and report

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54
Q

form used for exposure to communicable disease or blood born path

A

Form 303

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55
Q

when is fire season readiness uniform not to be worn

A

public events
classroom training
fire prevention activities

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56
Q

High visibility vest policy

A

worn on roadways with traffic except;
road closed
competing hazards
fire suppression
rescue or extrication
hazmat
IDLH
incident that needs immediate action for life saving measure

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57
Q

general driving policy

A

headlights at all times
seatbelts at all times
do not loosen or take seatbelt off to dawn equipment

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58
Q

backing policy

A

use two backers when possible- one near left rear and the other near right front

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59
Q

coms while backing

A

clear hand signals
horn and buzzer signals
1 buzzer =stop
2 buzzers =forward
3 buzzers = reverse
use headset when possible

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60
Q

backing alone policy

A

walk circle of safety
back immediate cautiously and slow
if you can’t back immediately walk around again
use horn signals when backing alone.

try to back toward driver side- baking towards right side is more hazardous

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61
Q

intersection navigation code 3

A

full stop before entering red-light intersection or hazard intersection
do not enter until traffic has stopped
if necessary enter intersection installed across each lane

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62
Q

opposing traffic code 3

A

when approaching intersection in opposing traffic, make full stop before entering even if light in green

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63
Q

passing other emergency vehicles

A

don’t pass unless indicated by other emergency vehicle

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64
Q

rail road crossing

A

full stop at unguarded rail
caution exercised at guard crossing that have warning light or gates

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65
Q

what to do if crossing rail road with failed guard down

A

devices designed to fail in safe mode
if emergency vehicle encounters guard down and no train, come to full stop before crossing. may need to get out of engine and check tracks

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66
Q

stopped school bus

A

must stop, do not pass when red lights are flashing unless driver turns off light

exception; when bus with flashing lights is on apposite side of divided highway

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67
Q

pedestrian crosswalk

A

do not exceed speed limit when crossing crosswalk
is crosswalk occupies, slow down and prepare to stop if pedestrian does not yield

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68
Q

speed limitations when code 3

A

do not exceed posted speed limits
do not exceed speed that is safe for road and weather conditions

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69
Q

vacation selection

A

must be on dep for 6 months
must have enough FVL hours
chief can cancel vacation any time
can’t pre-schedule T day, Christmas, Christmas Eve, NYE or NYday

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70
Q

pre scheduled vacation

A

selection begins 1st day of 1st pay period of year. November and completed by December 15th
2 shift minimum
placement determined by seniority
each battalion is limited to 2 cap, 2 eng, 2 ff, who can select PSFVL

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71
Q

tie breaker for PSVL

A

if same length seniority tie goes to;
seniority in rank
placement on promotion list
recruit academy rank
department eligibility list

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72
Q

out of rank coverage for FVL

A

must be approved by BC and documented in staffing

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73
Q

when filling vacancies with Overtime

A

calls are made between 1700-2200
calls will not be conducted between 2230-0600
if call need to start earlier members must be notified when process will begin

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74
Q

minimum staffing for Hazmat

A

5 HMRT between stations 38, 30 and 31

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75
Q

minimum staffing for USAR and water rescue

A

6 USAR
6 water rescue
between stations 11, 12, 14, and 17

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76
Q

what are the reporting station for the constant staffing pool not assigned to a station

A

B1- station 12
B2- station 30

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77
Q

shift trades

A

time exchanges should be within 12 months
can’t owe more than 6 trades unless OKed by chief

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78
Q

sick leave accrual

A

.0463 per hour

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79
Q

limited recall

A

limited number of stations or personnel in need for inc
duty chief initiates
next day crew contacted 1st
then other members of station
then after no-one avail- goes to members clicked in for day

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80
Q

emergency recall or general recall

A

maximum number of people needed due to major inc or disaster
BC initiate after clearing request with duty chief or fire chief
divided north/south
report to nearest station
personnel at headquarters staffing stations and unaffected stations used to assist in recall
emergency broadcast radio can be used
2 hour minimum paid to staff that come in

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81
Q

probationary FF eval if performance unsatisfactory

A

at direction of BC or HR manager, daily shift appraisal or cycle appraisals required

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82
Q

Bid for vacancy

A

21 day period which bids are accepted for original vacancy
goes to seniority in rank
ties go to score on promotion list or recruit academy ranking
ongoing vacancies go to first come first serve
mutual transfers must be in spot for 6 months

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83
Q

Bid for Hazmat station

A

2 year minimum at hazmat station. begins after completion of 1st week of hazmat school

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84
Q

staff bids

A

resumes/ interviews used
3 year commitment
eligible to bid back to station @ 2.5 years in staff

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85
Q

progressive discipline

A

coached
reprimanded
suspended
discharged
some offences can bypass progressive disc

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86
Q

notice of intent to discipline

A

notice of proposed disciplinary action
facts and grounds for action
opportunity to examine material on proposed action
right to respond in writing

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87
Q

Rule 13 in civil service rules

A

order of action includes;
effective date of action
nature of discipline
facts and ground for discipline
acts upon causes action is based on
copy of appeal and hearing procedure

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88
Q

disciplinary suspension

A

removal of duty without pay
may not exceed 90 days

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89
Q

disciplinary demotion

A

demoted employee not eligible for promotion for 6 months

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90
Q

administrative appeal procedure

A

appeals to disciplinary action needed to be filed to deputy chief with in 10 days
employee provided opportunity to meet with chief with in 30 days to discuss

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91
Q

statue of limitations for disciplinary action

A

must be served with in 1 year after use of discipline
fraud, embezzlement or falsification of records has a 3 year statue of limitations

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92
Q

procedure for reasonable suspicion

A

use chain of command to request authority of fire chief/deputy chief or on duty chief

employee must bring employe clinic passport to testing site

county medical review office conducts review and interview

employee stays on full pay until medical review office reviews results with employee

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93
Q

blood alcohol level to be deemed under the influence on job

A

.04 or higher

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94
Q

refusal to undergo drug test =

A

.04% or greater and will be treated the same

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95
Q

if employee admits to being under the influence prior to test

A

employee may elect to go to rehab at own expense

employee that goes to rehab must submit to testing and is eligible for no more than 2 opportunities to rehab

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96
Q

if employee admits to being under the influence prior to test

A

employee may elect to go to rehab at own expense

employee that goes to rehab must submit to testing and is eligible for no more than 2 opportunities to rehab

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97
Q

voluntary self referral to rehab

A

1st and 2nd round of rehab not related to reasonable suspicion will be at the cost of the department

2 opportunities awarded maximum

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98
Q

breathalizer of .02 or less?

A

you are ok
.02 = second test conducted

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99
Q

if you have a drug or urine test positive

A

you have 72 hours to request split specimen be analysed by different lab

medical review office has 5 days to discuss result.

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100
Q

parameters for outside employment

A

not to exceed 24 hours a week
complete outside employment notification annually

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101
Q

if a child or adult is in imminent danger

A

request law enforcement
contact BC
call hotline next day
you are responsible for required report- do not expect superior to do it

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102
Q

boots repair and replacement

A

$150 for replacement
$60 for repair

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103
Q

Meals during IA emergencies

A

1st meal will be MRE- every vehicle carries minimum of 3 MRE per person
only logs chief or his rep can charge local restaurant on inc

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104
Q

education incentive pay

A

$100 per unit
hourly classes = 14 hours class work = 1 unit
up to $300 per course for state fire training
department has $27231 annually for education
first come first serve
must have 2.0 GPA to get paid

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105
Q

P card program

A

authorised ro certain members to make business related purchases
$3500/ mo
$15000/ year
used for department travel, business meals, service/ supply
not for travel meals

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106
Q

what can P card be used for

A

out of county responses meals and hotel for strike team
S numbers needed prior to using for state reimbursement.
payment for repairs to vehicle
fuel if voyager card not available
$3500 max

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107
Q

who is responsible for incorrect billing or purchase problems on P card

A

the card holder

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108
Q

who is responsible for facility repair and maintenance

A

-facility coordinator
-captain sends request to facility coordinator with BC and log captain attached

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109
Q

Ride along program

A

Form 76 retained for one year
3 month max participation
make arrangement 2 weeks out

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110
Q

NFIRS

A

National fire incident report system
official record of all incidents
inc narrative not needed for CXL

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111
Q

what is National wildland fire qualification guide

A

-PMS 310-1 developed under NWCG
-not required for local response
-designed to establish minimum requirements for training, experience physical fitness and currency levels for WL fire
-designed for National mobilisation in ICS system

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112
Q

what is California incident command certification system CICCS

A

process for review and certification of individuals who become qualified for statewide all hazard response

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113
Q

Task books

A

with in department, training department or captain or BC can initiate task books fr individual

can only be trainee in 3 positions at a time

training BC or division chief shall sign off cert once complete

3 year time limit to complete from time of first task

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114
Q

currency requirements for ICS positions

A

perform in that position regularly
max time allowed for maintaining currency is:
-3 years for ops and dispatch positions
-5 years for others
to re-certfy due to lack of currency- perform under supervision 3 operational pay periods

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115
Q

mandatory training department provides while on duty

A

EMT recert
paramedic recert
RT130
FRO
NIMS/FEMA class
workplace harassment

116
Q

what to do if you want to drop your paramedic lic

A

submit intent to depart 45 days in advance to lapse in accreditation

117
Q

two and a half inch hose on type one engine

A

hose bed:1500 max of 2000
Blitz:200
Min total 1700

118
Q

one and three quarter inch hose on type one

A

crosslay-400
why lines-200
freeway-100
total-700

119
Q

one and half inch hose on type 1
one inch hose on type 1

A

ganser packs- 3 complete
total- 300 feet of each

120
Q

two and half inch hose on type 3

A

500 feet

121
Q

inch and three quarter hose on type 3

A

ganser base lay(trunk line) 200 ft
additional 200 ft
400 total

122
Q

inch and a half hose type 3

A

ganser packs 600ft
additional 500ft
1100 total

123
Q

one inch hose on type 3

A

ganser 600ft
basepack-100
additional-300
total 1000ft

124
Q

4 inch hose truck

A

rear compartment 300ft
rolls 40ft
total 340ft

125
Q

two and a half inch hose on truck

A

200 ft

126
Q

inch and three quarter hose on truck

A

400 ft

127
Q

one inch hose on truck

A

200ft

128
Q

hose testing

A

tested every 2 years
2.5 inch hose tested on odd years
inch and three quarter hose tested on even years
WL hose casually inspected on even years
pressure testing on single jacket not required

129
Q

how is 2.5 inch hose loaded on engine

A

beds connected
flat load
females out
pump suctions are female

130
Q

hose testing procedure

A

helmet and gloves
layout line no longer than 300 ft
connect pumper to hydrant
connect lines to pumper(opposite side of pump panel)
mark coupling shank with pencil
raise pressure to required PSI for three minutes

131
Q

hose testing psi

A

250 for 3 minutes

132
Q

which station is in charge of hose repair

A

station 38

133
Q

backing and plymovent procedure

A

once exhaust hose is connected, FF moves to the left mirror and makes visual contact before backing

exception; if travel line on ap bay floor, ff moved to right side before backing

134
Q

air bottles min pressure, testing and out of service

A

min 3500psi
hydro tested every 5 years
out of service @ 15 years

135
Q

O2 bottles min pressure, tested and out of service

A

min 1000psi
tested every 5 years
out of service @20 years

136
Q

when is semi annual service performed on engine

A

done every 4000 miles or after heavy off road use

137
Q

semi annual/annual inspection and repair

A

done by mechanic at garage with exception of engine 27
when preventative maintenance is due, engineer notifies captain and competes service/ maintenance request via county vehicle operation customer portal

138
Q

who makes contact with garage for repairs

A

captain
done thru general service portal
repair inquiries significantly past expected date directed to logs

139
Q

process for emergency engine repairs

A

captain notifies BC
engineer completes service request
captain finds reserve apparatus

if vehicle repair needed outside county garage, authorisation obtained thru garage supervisor

140
Q

drawdown for utility vehicles

A

1 in battalion 1
2 in battalion 2
2 in battalion 3

141
Q

how to check out utility vehicle

A

notify captain
utility vehicle will be shown as unavailable in staffing
complete vehicle check in/checkout form on public server in the fuel log sheet folder

142
Q

Water tender request outside of district

A

Comes from IC of inc
minimum staffing of 2 personnel, one of whom is an engineer

143
Q

water tender 38

A

3000 gallons
4000 portable tank

144
Q

water tender 26

A

1500 gallons
1800 portable tank

145
Q

water tender 32

A

1500 gallons
1800 portable tank

146
Q

water tender 27

A

3000 gallons
5000 portable tank

147
Q

vehicle accident policy

A

all accidents investigated
BC notified right away
must be reported to law enforcement no matter severity
deputy chief determines if it was avoidable or un-avoidable

148
Q

If BC thinks vehicle accident warrants an investigation team

A

team comprised of at least 3 department members, who do not directly supervise member
1. one being chief officer (training BC),
2. a member of local 2046
3. and the logs captain

149
Q

Vehicle accident procedure

A
  1. check safety of all persons involved
  2. do not move vehicle until law arrives
  3. do not admit guilt
  4. notify supervisor
  5. BC requests Law
  6. complete accident report form and submit within 24 hours
150
Q

accident report form

A

GSD/RM-56

151
Q

Driver pump operator certification process

A

must complete driver portion prior to end of probation
must complete pump operator during JAC
obtain class C with FF endorsement/restriction 50 prior to end of probation

152
Q

rules for agricultural burning

A
  1. material produced from waste of ag when used as follows
    -primary use of making a profit
    -providing livelihood
    -conducting ag research or education
  2. grass/weeds in field of cultivation
  3. material related to growing or harvesting crops- fertiliser or pesticide empty sacs
  4. Russian thistle eradication
153
Q

what do you need to do to burn ag

A

have valid burn permit on site at all times
contact company officer on burn day who then notifies dispatch

154
Q

what qualifies a Bonfire

A

outdoor fire for ceremonial purposes and does not meet definition of a recreational fire

155
Q

definition of fire hazard reduction

A
  1. burning of cuttings from trees vines bushes specifically for the purpose of reducing fire hazard
  2. restricted to high and very high hazard severity zones
  3. materials other than rubbish not contained to incinerator, outdoor fireplace, BBQ pit
  4. permit not required
156
Q

max fuel area of recreation fire

A

area of 3 feet diameter
2 foot height

157
Q

definition of residential dry vegetation burn

A

leaves, weeds, grass, shrubbery or tree pruning
one and 2 family dwellings
restricted to North co other than Solvang, Santa Maria and Lompoc

158
Q

definition of right of way burn

A

Northern zone burning by public or utility for leave, reservoir and ditch management
cuyama valley only

159
Q

5 types of burn permits

A
  1. residential
  2. right of way burn
  3. fire hazard reduction
  4. age burn
  5. bonfires
160
Q

Northern city that does not allow burn permits

A

Solvang

161
Q

recreational fire rules

A

do not need burn permit
exempt from no burn days
recreational fire on beach must be below mean high tide

162
Q

procedure for issuing burn permits

A
  1. only issue to owner or responsible party of land
  2. inspection conducted prior to issuing permit
  3. fee established- no cash allowed
  4. copy of permit given to permitee
  5. check sent to finance
  6. single permit can be issued for multiple burns on the same property
163
Q

what do you do if a request for a burn permit comes in on SRA within federal DPA

A

refer to closest federal personnel
Do not issue permit for DPA

164
Q

all burning suspended when county declares high fire season except

A

agricultural

165
Q

procedure for burning

A
  1. permitee contacts APCD line no sooner than 3pm the day before
  2. APCD must determine burn day by 0745 on day of burn
  3. if burn day, permitee must contact station before burning. between 5pm and 7pm the day before or between 7am and 12pm day of
166
Q

rule 102 of open burn day in ag operations

A

burning of empty sacks or containers of pesticides or other toxic substances is permitted on NO burn days in agricultural operations only

167
Q

drying time for materials to be burned

A

6 weeks for trees/large branches
3 weeks for pruning/small branches

168
Q

Residential dry veg burning times

A

between 10am and 4pm
fire out and dead by 4pm

169
Q

agricultural burning times

A

May commence at sunrise
no new fuel added 2 hours before sunset

170
Q

hazard reduction burning times

A

7am-4pm
no new material after 12pm
dead out by 4pm

171
Q

approved ignition devises for burn permits

A

matches
road flares
propane lighters/torches
drip torch

172
Q

engine company officer may terminate burn for 3 reasons

A
  1. permit condition violated
  2. fire hazard or risk as result of operation
  3. fire or smoke nuisance
173
Q

who coordinates prescribed and standing vegetation burns

A

goes thru vegetation management officers

174
Q

department issued firearms for investigators

A

-sig sauer P320 9mm pistal
-must complete POST academy
-must demonstrate proficiency once every 3 months
-fire marshal maintains records

175
Q

who is responsible for occupancy inspections and permits

A

fire prevention and operation division

176
Q

what inspections are engine companies responsible for

A

A,B,F,H,I,M,R-1,R-2,R-3,S-1,S-2 and H
NOT responsible for R-3 and R-4

177
Q

which occupancy can qualify for B-SAFE program

A

U occupancy

178
Q

how long to wait to do re-inspection on an ordinary code violation

A

14-21 days

179
Q

B-SAFE program

A

-self inspection program
-for low hazard businesses
-less than 10,000 sq feet
-single use buildings
- no hazardous material
-no commercial kitchens
-no fire sprinklers
-no CFC permits

180
Q

procedure for open burn permits

A

-review past burn inspection history
-conduct inspection
-note any violations
-conduct re-inspection
-complete burn permit form
-receive check
-include; name, inspection date, permit # on check
-send to finance

181
Q

when does your one year valid burn permit begin

A

on date of initial inspection

182
Q

when do wildland fire access road need to be inspected by

A

march 31

183
Q

what is a site plan for target hazards

A

part of preplan info
shows;
life hazards
H2O supply
sprinklers and standpipes
hazardous matter
Knox box loc
entrees and exits

184
Q

what is the info block of target hazards

A

part of the preplan
shows;
address
building name
contact info
occupancy load
access issues
sq footage

185
Q

who is resporibe for coordinating building construction and ensuring compliance

A

planning and engineering

186
Q

what are the requirements for defensible space

A
  1. hazard reduction 100’ from all structures
  2. 13’ 6” vertical clearance on access to structures
  3. vegetation along access to structure cleared 10’ on both sides
187
Q

addressing requirements

A
  1. 3” minimum residential
  2. 6” minimum commercial
  3. color contrasting
  4. visible from both directions of travel
188
Q

structure fire response

A

if confirmed working fire, 1st alarm will be augmented by;
1 additional engine
standby ambulance
duty chief notification

2nd alarm will be like number of engines

189
Q

engine response for structure fire in battalion 1

A

Residential;
3 engines
BC
truck
water tender in rural area

commercial;
3 engines
BC
truck

High rise;
4 engines
BC
truck

190
Q

engine response for structure fire in battalion 2

A

residential;
4 engines
BC
Water tender in rural areas

Commercial;
4 engines
BC
closest Truck

Highrise;
5 engines
BC
Closest truck

191
Q

response for 1st alarm veg fire

A

low; 1 engine and BC notification

moderate;
3 type 3s
water tender
BC

center divider;
2 engines
BC
water tender
crew

192
Q

vegetation fire high fire season SRA

A

SRA:
4 type 3 eng
1 WT
2 Dozers
1 Helo
2 crews
1 air attack
2 air tankers

193
Q

vegetation response high fire season LRA

A

LRA:
3 type 3 engines
1 WT
1 crew
1 helo

194
Q

vegetation response high fire season FRA

A

FRA:
2 type 3 eng
1 dozer
1 WT
1 crew

195
Q

vegetation fire Very high fire season SRA or LRA

A

4 type 3 eng
1 WT
2 Dozers
1 Helo
2 crews
1 air attack
2 air tankers

same as high fire season plus SBC augmented staffing pattern

SBC task force:
3 type 3 eng
water tender
TFL

196
Q

vehicle fire response battalion 1

A

passanger: 1 engine

comercial vehicle:
3 engines
BC
truck

Train:
3 Engines
truck
BC
WT

197
Q

vehicle fire response battalion 2

A

Passenger: 1 engine

commercial vehicle:
4 engines
BC

Train:
4 Engines
BC
WT

198
Q

Other inc response: fence, fire reported out, illegal burn, power pole

A

fence, fire reported out, illegal burn- 1 engine

power pole- 1 engine and a BC

199
Q

Trash/ Dumpster fire response

adjacent to structure

remote from structure

A

adjacent to structure
battalion 1:
3 Engine
truck
BC

Battalion 2:
4 engines
BC

remote from structure is one engine

200
Q

hazardous conditions response

bomb threat, gas leak inside and outside structure, electrical lines down

A

Bomb threat: 1 engine, BC

gas leak inside: 3 engines, truck, BC (4 engines no truck in battalion 2)

gas leak outside: 1 engine, BC

electrical line down: 1 engine

201
Q

operational response levels
maximum, medium and minimum

A

max: normal day to day staffing pattern

medium: Incidents have short term impact on response level of 12 hours or less. (may not require back filling)

minimum: developing incident requiring severe drawdown

202
Q

priority station order for minimum response level

A

batt 1: 11, 12, 13
batt 2: 24, 26, 27
batt: 3: 30, 34

203
Q

priority station order for medium response level

A

batt 1: 11,12,13,17
batt 2; 21, 24, 26, 27
batt 3: 30, 31, 32, 34

204
Q

road block colours
Red, yellow, green

A

red: only emergency vehicles enter
yellow: only residence and friends of residence in same vehicle enter
green: warning to persons entering or to control stealing, looting, ect.

persons with news credentials may enter any road block colour

205
Q

code 3 lights on freeway or divided highway

A

should not be used except during periods of extreme congestion or when travelling against traffic or on shoulder

206
Q

Factors in determining placement of engine on scene (4)

A

number and location of vehicles
size of debris field
patient triage and treatment area
extrication area

207
Q

block right vs block left

A

block with right to protect pump panel on vehicle fire

block left to protect medical compartment and extrication tools on TC

208
Q

what should next in engine on TC or vehicle fire do

A

park downstream from incident
turn off code 3 lights
turn on 4 ways

209
Q

how should cones be placed at TCs

A

4 cones at 25-30 feet intervals upstream of blocking apparatus

total of 60-80 feet

210
Q

operational priorities after major earthquake

A
  1. station survey
  2. district survey
  3. evaluate battalion and countywide impacts
  4. allocation of resources per incident priorities
211
Q

what does the captain do after major earthquake

A
  1. direct crew to start station survey checklist
  2. communicate results to BC and dispatch
  3. start district survey asap
212
Q

what does the engineer do after major earthquake

A
  1. move apparatus out of app bay
  2. move essential equipment to safe area
  3. check condition of apparatus
  4. report to captain
213
Q

what does firefighter do after major earthquake

A
  1. check integrity of station
  2. check gas, electrical, water, and generator condition
  3. report to captain
214
Q

two phases of district survey

A

primary: focus on target hazards and transportation corridors

secondary: residential and utility damage

document findings on damage assessment worksheet

215
Q

major earthquake priority guidelines

A
  1. life threatening conditions
    -rescues, collapses, fires
  2. potential life threatening conditions
    -gas leaks, medicals, stuck elevators
  3. non-life threatening conditions
    -flooding, public access, fire alarms, gas leaks outside
216
Q

steps to take during hazardous liquid spills (7)

A
  1. eliminate ignition hazards
  2. if safe and if possible, let spill evaporate
  3. prevent spills from entering waterways
  4. do not use water or foam for initial attack unless fire involved. control runoff when H2O used
  5. notify HMU
  6. all spills on waterways- notify HMU
  7. report all spills to protections services district
217
Q

How much liquid should you consume to be properly hydrated

A

48-64oz

218
Q

how far from fire scene should equipment for rehab be set up

A

within 50-100 yards from work activity

219
Q

where should rehab and medical treatment area be set up

structure fire, highrise, WL, hazmat

A

structure fire: half to one block from incident

highrise: on staging floor, at least 2 floors below fire

wildland fire: centralised location like basecamp

hazmat: in support zones

220
Q

criteria for entry into rehab/medical treatment on fire

A
  1. 2 or more exchanges of BA
  2. adverse health effects
  3. deemed necessary by IC
221
Q

what is done when you enter rehab/ medical treatment on fire

A

base line vitals taken and recorded
must relax for 20 minutes while hydrating

vitals reassessed to exit

222
Q

staffing in rehab/medical treatment area on fires

A
  1. rehab/ medical personnel- supervises rehab unit
  2. rehab unit personnel- 1 person
    - assists with record keeping
    -entry and exit control
  3. medical treatment person- minimum of 1 paramedic
223
Q

how long does it take to acclimate to heat

A

occurs with in 4-14 days of regular work of 2 hours a day in heat

224
Q

air ambulance definition and dispatch

A

air ambulance = 2 ALS personnel
auto dispatch for remote ares having more than 20 minute ETA of ground ambulance

225
Q

ALS rescue aircraft definition

A

has at least one ALS provider and 1 BLS provider
ASU
crew chief can fill roll as BLS provider

226
Q

rescue aircraft dispatch order

A
  1. SBC- ASU
  2. Ventura county ASU
  3. US coast guard BLS- best option in inclement weather
    *calstar not allowed to fly off shore
227
Q

response guidelines for SBC ambulance

A

arrive on scene in 7 minutes and 59 seconds to 90% of all code 3 calls

14 minutes and 59 secs to 90% of all code 2 calls

228
Q

Form for suspected child abuse report

A

SCAR form SS8572
submit within 36 hours
notify law enforcement immediately

229
Q

form for suspected elder abuse report

A

SOC 341
submit copies with in 2 working days

230
Q

PAS group supervisor

A

in charge of all PAS officers and overall accountability

231
Q

PAS officer

A

accounts for people assigned to their status board
engineer on 1st in engine company or one member RIC team

232
Q

PAS status board

A

on front: personnel in hazardous area

on back: personnel on scene but not involved in hazardous areas

activities and entry times noted with grease pencil next to name tags

233
Q

can more than one PAS officer be assigned

A

Yes, if there is more than one entrance into hazardous area multiple PAS officers can be assigned

234
Q

what is the emergency abandonment radio traffic and audible alarm

A

emergency traffic: abandonment command repeated 3 times by IC or dispatch

audible alarm: short blasts of air horn for 10 seconds followed by 10 seconds of silence
-done 3 times
-total of 50 seconds

235
Q

RIC crew is _____________

A

closest engine not assigned to suppression during 1st or 2nd alarm

236
Q

which channels are reserved for RIC crew traffic

A
  1. VFIRE 22, 23 and 26
237
Q

LUNAR

A

location , until, Name, Air, resources

238
Q

NUCAN

A

Name, Unit, Condition, Actions, needs

239
Q

what is the definition of a highrise building

A

structure beyond reach of aerial ladder

point of fire department access to highest occupied level greater than 75 feet
*not actual hight of building

240
Q

ALS Base

A

attack
lobby
staging
base

241
Q

ALS base- Attack

A

establish command presence
gather tools
investigate
determines staging floor (2 below fire)
hoseline-
-single hoseline on fire floor backed by similar or greater hose line
-third hoseline above fire floor

242
Q

ALS Base- Lobby

A

Lobby officer
-controls elevators
-distributes building keys
-directs firefigheres to appropriate stairs

initial control of building environment
point of firefighter accountability

243
Q

ALS Base - staging

A

Equipment drop off location
rehab
bottle SCBA cache
RIC

244
Q

SOP for company officer 1st arriving at structure fire

A
  1. 360 size up
  2. incident action plan to determine operational mode
  3. transmit “report on conditions “
  4. take initial actions
  5. consider use of traditional attack when in offensive mode and fire showing
  6. establish ICS
245
Q

Incident priorities for structure fire

A
  1. protection of life
  2. incident stabilisation thru fire control
  3. property/environment protection
246
Q

3 operational modes of structure fire

A
  1. investigation
  2. offensive
    -transitional vs traditional fire attack
  3. defensive
247
Q

what does a structure fire report of conditions consist of

A
  1. location by address
  2. products of combustion (smoke)
  3. floor height of occupancy
  4. special instructions
  5. side of building ABCD
248
Q

size up evaluation of fire conditions include

A
  1. location of fire
  2. identify presence of flow paths
  3. report on conditions
  4. 360 size up
249
Q

360 building assessment

A
  1. ID rescues
  2. ID flow paths of fire
  3. ID location and extent of fire
  4. determine size/age/construction of structure
  5. assess structure stability
  6. ID other hazards
250
Q

Fuel limited fire

A

fire where growth is determined by the fuel because adequate oxygen IS available

251
Q

modern content fire

A

Fuels involve hydrogen and synthetic material
foam rubber nylon rayon
react rapidly to ventilation
HOT

252
Q

top 5 factors of firefighter injury and death

A
  1. improper risk assessment (size up)
  2. lack of incident command
  3. lack of accountability
  4. bad communication
  5. lack of SOP or failure to follow
253
Q

collapse zone

A

1.5 height of building

254
Q

ventilation profile (4)

A
  1. building construction, integrity, size and occupancy type
  2. location of smoke/fire from structure
  3. volume, velocity, density and colour of smoke
  4. direction and speed of wind
255
Q

who does atmospheric monitoring on structure fires and until when

A

breathing support, every 18 minutes

until HCN less than 4.7 ppm and CO less than 25ppm

256
Q

SCBA used until O2, HCN, CO within acceptable limits of

A

02= above 19.5%
CO (carbon monoxide)= less than 25ppm
HCN (hydrogen cyonide)= less than 4.7ppm

257
Q

permissable exposure limit (PEL)

A

maximum permitted 8 hour time weighted average concentration of airborne contaminants

258
Q

Overhead sent out of county must submit Form__________ within________

A

F-150 within 24 hours upon returning to county

259
Q

Who is responsible for issuing red flag warnings

A

LA/Oxnard national weather service forecast office

260
Q

what constitutes a red flag high risk day

A

20% chance of new large fire or significant growth

261
Q

Fire weather watch

A

notice issued to alert agencies of high potential for development of red flag event in next 18-96 hours

262
Q

red flag warning

A

notice issued of impending red flag conditions in next 48 hours or less

263
Q

criteria for red flag warning

A

Dry fuels and ANY ONE of the following:
1. RH 15% or less with either greater than 25mph wind or gusts of 35mph
2. RH 10% or less with winds above 15mph or gusts of 25mph
3. dry lightning
4. other unusual conditions

264
Q

Full hazmat response

A

3 engines
hazmat company with 5 hazmat specialists
BC

265
Q

Hazmat response team

A

personnel trained to a minimum of hazmat specialist level

266
Q

hazmat task force

A

10 hazmat response team members
with at least 5 specialists
one of whom is a hazmat assistant safety officer

HM- 31
BS-18
one utility

267
Q

levels of hazmat response

A

HMU investigation
hazmat company request-
-type 2 (STB, HMZ or SBC HM-31)
- with minimum of 5 trained HM
Full hazmat response-
-3 engine companies
-breathing support
-BC

268
Q

What is needed if you bid hazmat staton 31 or 38

A
  1. two year commitment
  2. complete HZMT training within 12 months
  3. 24 hours annual training
  4. training held on the second Tuesday of the month
269
Q

water rescue stations

A

11, 12, 14, 17, 18
minimum of 6 people on daily between these stations

270
Q

water rescue equipment at station 11

A

two skis
1 tow vehicle 4x4
2 paddle boards
2 boats

271
Q

water rescue equipment at station 17

A

1 ski
1 tow vehicle
2 paddle boards

272
Q

water rescue equipment at station 18

A

1 paddle board

273
Q

com channels for water rescue

A

command channel
tach channel
air to ground
marine channel

274
Q

training for water rescue

A

ocean surf rescue
swift water 1
IRB
PWC
swim test
annual ocean swim test

275
Q

USAR team commitment

A

2 years time requirement
starts 60 days from reporting date

276
Q

USAR stations

A

11,12,14,17
6 people on duty daily minimum

277
Q

USAR training requirements

A

rescue systems 1 and 2
confined space
annual confined space entry
trench rescue
low angle rescue

278
Q

what is a TOLC (helicopter)

A

take off and landing coordinator, pump operator, cam lock person

responsible for enhancing safety with in helispot airspace

279
Q

Hello spot landing criteria

A

75’ for type 3 helo
90’ for type 2 helo
110’ for type 1 helo

at night areas litr with amber lights at each corner
white lights 5-8 feet from pad at windward side

280
Q

safety/security for helispot

A

avoid slopes above 5%
safety officer
fire extinguisher at pad
secure access roads with law enforcement
use cones and flagging

281
Q

ground fill operations and equipment needed

A

water tender and engine present
2.5 discharge with bale
20’ hose at bale with quick connect
helo provides bale shutoff at quick connection
*pump at 130 psi

282
Q

code 77=

A

violent incident (active shooter, civil unrest, riot, terrorist)

283
Q

Code 77 response

A

2 chief officers
1 ems supervisor
1 safety officer
3 engines
ALS ambulance
MCI unit

284
Q

rescue task force

A

RTF team for point of wound care victims deployed to ballistic or explosive threat

2 firefighers, 1 force protection officer

no defibrillator or large bags, must be able to be mobile with minimum equipment

285
Q

expanded dispatch

A

when IA is upgraded to extend attack incident on major incident

located at fire headquarters

primary job is to relive dispatch center

286
Q

minimum number of personnel to open expanded dispatch

A

3- one person qualified in ROSS

ideal number of people is 6
-supervisor
-radio operator
-2 ROSS persons
-1 IT
1 call taker