P Old Spreadsheet stuff Flashcards

https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1q2L0arJ8yi1fTDYb_uBiMY3Dg_ej7rhqvwp8XPBtsJ4/edit?gid=0#gid=0

1
Q

P. Advisory Circulars Checklist, and circular Numbering System

A

Aircraft - 20
Airman - 60
Airspace - 70
Air Traffic and General Operation Rules - 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

P. Cessna 172 Engine type (5)

A

-160 horsepower Lycoming engine
-Horizontally opposed
-Air cooled
-Normally aspirated
-Direct driven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

P. Fuel System

A

N6814H holds 38 gallons total.
36 of that is usable making 2 gallons unusable.
The fuel system is vent and gravity fed. (or driven by an engine fuel pump)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the electrical stats on your cessna. Volts, etc.

A

I have 28 volt direct current system with a 24 volt battery all diven by a 60 amp alternator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pitot static systems use what 2 things inside?

A

Anroid wafers and calibrated leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

P. Which instruments run off the vacuum system:

A

Attitude indicator and
heading indicator / directional gyro (and suction gauge)
Turn coordinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Class G airspace (uncontrolled)
Day and night requirements, above or below…

A

Day: above 1200ft. 1-152
Night: above 1200ft = 3-152
Day: below 1200ft. 1 mile, clear of clouds
Night: below 1200ft = 3-152

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Class E airspace limitations? 700 or 1200 to 18,000

A

Above 10,000 MSL
5-111 rule
Below 10,000 MSL
3-152 rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Whats are the Special use Airspaces

A

M-ilitary Operations Area
C-ontoled Firing Area
P-rohibited
R-restricted
A-lert
W-arning Area (off shore mostly)
N-ational Securiey TFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A

Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Student pilot limitation (4)

A

-No passangers
-no people or property for money
-not to further business
-visibility 3 miles day / 5 miles at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Private Pilot limitations (1 no,3 yes)

A

No people or property for money

can
-Demonstrate if over 200 hours
-Tow a glider in accordance with 61.69
-Act as PIC in connection with a business or employment if that flight is incidental to the business or employment (only if the deal in Atlanta is good weather or drive or flly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A.V.I.A.T.E.S.

A

A - Annual Inspection: every 12 months
V - VOR Check: Required every 30 days for IFR flight.
I - 100-hour Inspection: aircraft for hire or instruction for hire.
A - Airworthiness Directives (ADs): Compliance based.
T - Transponder Check: every 24 months.
E - ELT: Inspection every 12 months.
S - Static System and Altimeter Check: every 24 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A. T.O.M.A.T.O. F.L.A.M.E.S.

A
  1. A – Airspeed Indicator
  2. T – Tachometer
  3. O – Oil Pressure Gauge
  4. M – Manifold Pressure Gauge
  5. A – Altimeter
  6. T – Temperature Gauge
  7. O – Oil Temperature Gauge
  8. F – Fuel Gauge
  9. L – Landing Gear Position Indicator
  10. A – Anti-Collision Lights
  11. M – Magnetic Compass
  12. E – ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter)
  13. S – Seat Belts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

To be VFR legal at night add F.L.A.P.S

A

F-uses (may not apply)
L-anding light (only for hire)
A-nti collision lights (Date of manufacture is the difference between day and night)
P-osition lights
S-ource of power (having a flashlight)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An Accident: define

A

An occurrence in which any person suffers death or serious injury or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What classifies as an accident? (2)

A

-In which any person suffers death or serious injury
-In which the aircraft receives substantial damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What DOES NOT classifies as an accident? (4)

A

-Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged
-Bent fairings or cowling
=dented aircraft skin or small punctured holes in the skin or fabric
-ground damage to rotor or prop blades
-damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wingtips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What DOES classifies as an accident? (4)

A

-damage to property, other than aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including materials and labor of fair market value) in the event of total loss, whichever is less
-in-flight fire
-flight control system malfunction or failure
-complete loss of information, excluding flickering, from more than 50% of an aircrafts electronic cockpit displays such as EFIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What things qualify for immediate notification to NTSB 830? (6)

A

-it’s an accident
-inability of a required crew member to perform normal flight duties because of an in-flight injury or illness
-Infight fire
-flight control system malfunction or failure
-An overdue airplane believed to have been in an accident
-an airplane Collision in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When shall you the pilot, when requested by the NTSB, file a report?

A

Within 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified?

A

Within 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An aircraft’s annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than?

A

July 31 next year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When are TAF’s issued

A

Hourly at 55 after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

PIREP (2 types)

A

UA - Routine Pirep
UUA - Urgent pirep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Weather Depiction Chart updated every ____ hours?

A

Every 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What information is provided by the Radar summary chart that is not shown on other weather charts?

A

Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ABC’s of an Engine Failure in flight

A

A-irspeed 65
B-est Landing Area
C-hecklist
D-eclare am emergency 7700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Engine failure on take off.
With runway 2
Without runway 1

A
  1. Engine quits before rotation: Best case scenario, plenty of space
  2. with runway remaining
    Pitch nose forward
    Flaps as Needed
    Aerodynamic Brake(pull back)
  3. without runway remaining
    Land straight ahead (30 degree window Lt&Rt)
    Never attampt a turn back below 1,000ft AGL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Engine fire in flight or on ground Causes

A

-Cold Days - Overpriming 95% of E fires
-Engine Pre-Ignition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Engine fire in flight or on ground, If engine does not start

A

-Continue cranking 30 to 60 seconds (Consult checklist)
-Fuel off (fuel selector and mix)
-Evacuate and Extinguish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Engine fire in flight or on ground, If engine does start

A

-Run engine to higher RPM 30-60 seconds (consult checklist)
-Fuel off (fuel selector and mix)
-Evacuate and Extinguish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Engine fire on the during flight

A

Put out fire ASAP by dropping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Electrical fire Causes:

A

Shortage,
over voltage,
fraying wire (most common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Electrical fire What to do?

A

What to do? Master off, Avionics off, Ventilate Cabin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How to Declaring an emergency (4)

A

-Mayday 3 times indicated grave danger
-Pan 3 times suggest uncertainty
-121.5 is no longer monitored
State: I’m declaring an emergency on -Squak 7700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What condition aircraft gets turbulence the most? (3)

A

Heavy, clean, slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Transponder Squawk Code

A

7500 I’ve been hijacked
7600 Lost communications
7700 General Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ATC Light Gun Signals on ground and In Flight: Steady green

A

G: Cleared for Takeoff
In Flight: Cleared to land

42
Q

ATC Light Gun Signals on ground and In Flight: Flashing Green

A

G: Cleared to Taxi
In Flight: Return to Land

43
Q

ATC Light Gun Signals on ground and In Flight: Steady Red

A

G: Stop
In Flight: Give way to other aircraft

44
Q

ATC Light Gun Signals on ground and In Flight: Flashing Red

A

G: Taxi Clear of Runway
In Flight: Airport unsafe -Do not land

45
Q

ATC Light Gun Signals on ground and In Flight: Flashing White

A

G: Return to Starting Point on Airport
In Flight: N/A

46
Q

ATC Light Gun Signals on ground and In Flight: Alternating Red and Green

A

G: Exercise Extreme Caution
In Flight: Exercise Extreme Caution

47
Q

When should a pilot file an emergency report with the ATC Tower?

A

Upon request.

48
Q

PARC Pre- Maneuver Checklist

A

P-re checklist (dashboard)
A-rea to land
R-adio call
C-lear area

49
Q

Good Decisions Making: IMSAFE

A

I-llness
M-edication
S-tress
A-lcohol
F-atigue
E-motional

50
Q

Good Decisions Making. Should i fly today: PAVE

A

P-ilot
A-irplane
V- EnVironment
E-xternal pressures

51
Q

Good in air Decision Making: DECIDE

A

D-etect
E-stimate
C-hoose
I-dentify
D-o
E-valuate

52
Q

spatial disorientations (8)

A

Somatogravic illusions
-inversion illusion
-elevator illusion
-somaotgraphic illusion
Somatogyral illusions
-Leans
-graveyard spiral
-coriolis illusion
Visual illusions
-false horizon
-autokinisis

53
Q

Describe this spatial disorientation: inversion illusion

A

a change from climb to level flight.
This combination of accelerations produces an illusion that the aircraft is inverted or tumbling backwards.

54
Q

Describe this spatial disorientation: coriolis illusion

A

occurs when a pilot, during a prolonged turn, experiences a sudden, confusing sensation of tumbling or rotating in all directions after MOVING THEIR HEAD ABRUPTLY, even though the aircraft is not actually changing direction

55
Q

Describe this spatial disorientation: elevator illusion

A

a false sensation of climbing when encountering an updraft, leading them to push the aircraft’s nose down

56
Q

Describe this spatial disorientation: leans (illusion)

A

Slow turn. ear fluid doesn’t register. Thinks your straight. So turn more.

a pilot experiences a false sensation of rolling or banking, often after a gradual turn, leading them to lean in the perceived direction of the “bank”.

57
Q

Describe this spatial disorientation: autokinisis

A

staring at a light too long at night it will begin to move

58
Q

Describe this spatial disorientation: graveyard spiral or spin

A

mistakenly believes they are losing altitude in a banked turn, and then takes corrective action that exacerbates the descent, leading to a spiraling dive.

proper recovery and reenter original spin

60
Q

Describe this spatial disorientation: somaotgraphic illusion

A

rapid acceleration or deceleration causes the pilot to misinterpret the aircraft’s attitude, feeling like they are climbing or descending when they are actually flying straight and level

61
Q

Describe spatial disorientation:

A

A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as

62
Q

What are the different types of Hypoxia

A

hypoxic hypoxia
hypemic hypoxia
stagnant
histoxic

63
Q

What is Hypoxic Hypoxia

A

induced by altitude

64
Q

What is hypemic hypoxia

A

inability to transport to the brain

65
Q

What is stagnant

A

inability to transport because of cooling. where a g suit to prevent blood from heading to legs

66
Q

What is histoxic

A

Something toxic attached itself to red blood cell not allowing them to accept oxygen
Lightheadedness, Euphoria, Cyanosis, Dizziness, headaches IN THAT ORDER

67
Q

Which statement best defines hypoxia?

A

A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.

68
Q

If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to

A

rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.

69
Q

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

A

Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.

70
Q

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?

A

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

-Due to the fact that eyes can focus only on a narrow viewing area, effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central vision field.

71
Q

Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

A

eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments

-Spatial disorientation is a state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs. Thus, the pilot should ignore sensations of muscles and the inner ear and kinesthetic senses (those that sense motion).

72
Q

Types of clouds sub 6500 ft

A

Stratus
Cumulus
Nimbostratus
Cumulonimus (CB on TAF)

73
Q

Types of clouds mid range

A

Alotstratus (Alot=high)
Altocumulus

74
Q

Types of clouds High up

A

Cirrus
Towering Cumulonimbus (stay 20 miles away). Clouds w/ extensive vertical development
Produces Anvil top sometimes

75
Q

Describe “Stable” Weather. (4)

A

Stratus clouds
Smooth air
Continuous precipitation
Fair to poor visibility

76
Q

Describe “Unstable” Weather. (4)

A

Cumuliform clouds
Turbulent air
Showery precipitation
Good visibility in haze

77
Q

What do fronts look like on a weather map? (4)

A

Cold front: blue triangles linked
Warm front: blue circles linked
Stationary: it’s a tie. Red blue connected
Occluded front: purple triangle circle linked

78
Q

4 types of Fog

A

Radiation fog : 75% of time
Advection fog: coastline: warm moist air moves over a cold moist surface (ocean) . Golden Gate Bridge
Upslope fog: warm air going up a hill to meet cold air
Precipitation enduceded fog/steam fog: Rain cools on hot ground

79
Q

6 Types of Turbulance

A

Light
Moderate
Severe
Extreme
CHOP: turbulence wake (consistent )
Clear air turbulence: jet stream turbulence

-Light: Slight erratic changes to altitude or airspeed
-Moderate: Larger variations in speed altitude and attitude can occur but control maintained
-Severe: Large changes in speed, alt, & Attitude lose control. Items could cause structural damage
-Extreme: Capable of causing structural damage. And resulting in prolonged, possibly terminal, loss of control of the aircraft
-CHOP: turbulence wake (consistent )
-Clear air turbulence: jet stream turbulence

80
Q

3 Types of Ice

A

Clear
RIME
Mixed

-Clear Super cooled water droplets (on the top of wing + adds weight)
-RIME Freezes instantly disrupting airflow. losing life, carry weight)
-Mixed Mixed ice. Both

81
Q

3 rules for Mountain flying

A

-CFIT Control flight into terrain
-Avoid the “Lee” Side (Downwind side) of the mountain
-Standing lenticular cloud: Beast mode cloud (double stack over mountain)

82
Q

Types of Altitudes

A

Indicated Altitude
True altitude
Absolute Altitude
Pressure Altitude
Density Altitude

83
Q

Aft CG

A

less stable/ leverage (shorter arm)
lower stall speed, less wing loading
higher cruise speed

84
Q

Forward CG

A

More stable
Higher stall speed.
Slower cruise speed

85
Q

Whats need for Basic Med (5)

A

-License
-have a held a med cert after July 15, 2006,
-Take a CMEC (Comprehensive Medical Exam Checklist) to regular Dr.
-Physical every 48 months w/checklist
-Complete the online Medical Education Course, and consent to the National Driver Register Check

86
Q

What can’t you do with Basic Med

A

-less than 5 PAX
-Can’t fly an aircraft that can fit more than 6 people
cant be over 6000 pounds
-stay under 250kt
-stay under 18,000 ft.

87
Q

How to maintain Basic Med. (3)

A

CMEC with dr every 48 months
Cant be treated by dr for any disqualifying condition
every 24 months: Course completion certificate. Medical Education Course

88
Q

What do you need for a 1st Class medical

A

20/20 in each eye
near vision of 20/40
aviation red, green and white
normal field of vision
normal field of hearing

89
Q

What do you need for a 2nd Class medical

A

20/20 in each eye
near vision of 20/40
aviation red, green and white
normal field of vision
normal field of hearing

90
Q

What do you need for a 3rd Class medical

A

20/40 each
near vision of 20/40
aviation red, green and white
normal field of vision
normal field of hearing

91
Q

How often do you have to renew a 3rd Class Medical

A

60 calendar months
24 if over 40

92
Q

how should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tail wing airplane with a left quartering Tailwind

A

left aileron down elevator

93
Q

what is the approximate base of a cumulus cloud if the surface air temperature at a thousand cmsl is 70° F and the dew point is 88° f

94
Q

Define night time

A

the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

95
Q

What are SIG CLDS AND WX

A

cloudiness and weather significant to flight operations broken down by state or other geographical areas

NOT forecast Sky cover, Cloud tops, visibility, and obstructions to Vision along specific routes

96
Q

chair type parachute must be packed a certain way every

A

180 days Within

97
Q

while 18000 ft in route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on

A

channel 122.0

98
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to air traffic control and general operations are issued under what subject number

99
Q

During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A

The other aircraft is approaching head-on.