Oxygenation

Question 1

A nurse is caring for a patient who was in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in cervical trauma to C4. Which assessment is the priority?

a. Pulse
b. Respirations
c. Temperature
d. Blood pressure

Answer 1

ANS: B

Respirations and oxygen saturation are the priorities. Cervical trauma at C3 to C5 usually results in paralysis of the phrenic nerve. When the phrenic nerve is damaged, the diaphragm does not descend properly, thus reducing inspiratory lung volumes and causing hypoxemia. While pulse and blood pressure are important, respirations are the priority. Temperature is not a high priority in this situation.

Question 2

The patient is breathing normally. Which process does the nurse consider is working properly when the patient inspires?

a. Stimulation of chemical receptors in the aorta
b. Reduction of arterial oxygen saturation levels
c. Requirement of elastic recoil lung properties
d. Enhancement of accessory muscle usage

Answer 2

ANS: A

Inspiration is an active process, stimulated by chemical receptors in the aorta. Reduced arterial oxygen saturation levels indicate hypoxemia, an abnormal finding. Expiration is a passive process that depends on the elastic recoil properties of the lungs, requiring little or no muscle work. Prolonged use of the accessory muscles does not promote effective ventilation and causes fatigue.

Question 3

The home health nurse recommends that a patient with respiratory problems install a carbon monoxide detector in the home. What is the rationale for the nurse’s action?

a. Carbon monoxide detectors are required by law in the home.
b. Carbon monoxide tightly binds to hemoglobin, causing hypoxia.
c. Carbon monoxide signals the cerebral cortex to cease ventilations.
d. Carbon monoxide combines with oxygen in the body and produces a deadly toxin.

Answer 3

ANS: B

Carbon monoxide binds tightly to hemoglobin; therefore, oxygen is not able to bind to hemoglobin and be transported to tissues, causing hypoxia. A carbon monoxide detector is not required by law, does not signal the cerebral cortex to cease ventilations, and does not combine with oxygen but with hemoglobin to produce a toxin.

Question 4

. While performing an assessment, the nurse hears crackles in the patient’s lung fields. The nurse also learns that the patient is sleeping on three pillows to help with the difficulty breathing during the night. Which condition will the nurse most likely observe written in the patient’s medical record?

a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Myocardial ischemia
c. Left-sided heart failure
d. Right-sided heart failure

Answer 4

ANS: C

Left-sided heart failure results in pulmonary congestion, the signs and symptoms of which include shortness of breath, cough, crackles, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (difficulty breathing when lying flat). Right-sided heart failure is systemic and results in peripheral edema, weight gain, and distended neck veins. Atrial fibrillation is often described as an irregularly irregular rhythm; rhythm is irregular because of the multiple pacemaker sites. Myocardial ischemia results when the supply of blood to the myocardium from the coronary arteries is insufficient to meet myocardial oxygen demands, producing angina or myocardial infarction.

Question 5

The nurse suspects the patient has increased afterload. Which piece of equipment should the nurse obtain to determine the presence of this condition?

a. Pulse oximeter
b. Oxygen cannula
c. Blood pressure cuff
d. Yankauer suction tip catheter

Answer 5

ANS: C

A blood pressure cuff is needed. The diastolic aortic pressure is a good clinical measure of afterload. Afterload is the resistance to left ventricular ejection. In hypertension the afterload increases, making cardiac workload also increase. A pulse oximeter is used to monitor the level of arterial oxygen saturation; it will not help determine increased afterload. While an oxygen cannula may be needed to help decrease the effects of increased afterload, it will not help determine the presence of afterload. A Yankauer suction tip catheter is used to suction the oral cavity.

Question 6

The nurse is careful to monitor a patient’s cardiac output. Which goal is the nurse trying to achieve?

a. To determine peripheral extremity circulation
b. To determine oxygenation requirements
c. To determine cardiac dysrhythmias
d. To determine ventilation status

Answer 6

ANS: A

Cardiac output indicates how much blood is being circulated systemically throughout the body to the periphery. The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle each minute is the cardiac output. Oxygen status would be determined by pulse oximetry and the presence of cyanosis. Cardiac dysrhythmias are an electrical impulse monitored through ECG results. Ventilation status is measured by respiratory rate, pulse oximetry, and capnography. Capnography provides instant information about the patient’s ventilation. Ventilation status does not depend solely on cardiac output.

Question 7

A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient should the nurse see first?

a. A patient with hypercapnia wearing an oxygen mask
b. A patient with a chest tube ambulating with the chest tube unclamped
c. A patient with thick secretions being tracheal suctioned first and then orally
d. A patient with a new tracheostomy and tracheostomy obturator at bedside

Answer 7

ANS: A

The mask is contraindicated for patients with carbon dioxide retention (hypercapnia) because retention can be worsened; the nurse must see this patient first to correct the problem. All the rest are using correct procedures and do not need to be seen first. A chest tube should not be clamped when ambulating. Clamping a chest tube is contraindicated when ambulating or transporting a patient. Clamping can result in a tension pneumothorax. Use nasotracheal suctioning before pharyngeal suctioning whenever possible. The mouth and pharynx contain more bacteria than the trachea. Keep tracheostomy obturator at bedside with a fresh (new) tracheostomy to facilitate reinsertion of the outer cannula if dislodged.

Question 8

. A patient has inadequate stroke volume related to decreased preload. Which treatment does the nurse prepare to administer?

a. Diuretics
b. Vasodilators
c. Chest physiotherapy
d. Intravenous (IV) fluids

Answer 8

ANS: D

Preload is affected by the circulating volume; if the patient has decreased fluid volume, it will need to be replaced with fluid or blood therapy. Preload is the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole, often referred to as end-diastolic volume. Giving diuretics and vasodilators will make the situation worse. Diuretics causes fluid loss; the patient is already low on fluids or the preload would not be decreased. Vasodilators reduced blood return to the heart, making the situation worse; the patient does not have enough blood and fluid to the heart or the preload would not be decreased. Chest physiotherapy is a group of therapies for mobilizing pulmonary secretions. Chest physiotherapy will not help this cardiovascular problem.

Question 9

A nurse is preparing to suction a patient. The pulse is 65 and pulse oximetry is 94%. Which finding will cause the nurse to stop suctioning?

a. Pulse 75
b. Pulse 80
c. Oxygen saturation 91%
d. Oxygen saturation 88%

Answer 9

ANS: D

Stop when oxygen saturation is 88%. Monitor patient’s vital signs and oxygen saturation during procedure; note whether there is a change of 20 beats/min (either increase or decrease) or if pulse oximetry falls below 90% or 5% from baseline. If this occurs, stop suctioning. A pulse rate of 75 is only 10 beats different from the start of the procedure. A pulse rate of 80 is 15 beats different from the start of suctioning. Oxygen saturation of 91% is not 5% from baseline or below 90%.

Question 10

The patient has right-sided heart failure. Which finding will the nurse expect when performing an assessment?

a. Peripheral edema
b. Basilar crackles
c. Chest pain
d. Cyanosis

Answer 10

ANS: A

Right-sided heart failure results from inability of the right side of the heart to pump effectively, leading to a systemic backup. Peripheral edema, distended neck veins, and weight gain are signs of right-sided failure. Basilar crackles can indicate pulmonary congestion from left-sided heart failure. Cyanosis and chest pain result from inadequate tissue perfusion.

Question 11

A nurse teaches a patient about atelectasis. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of atelectasis?

a. “Atelectasis affects only those with chronic conditions such as emphysema.”
b. “It is important to do breathing exercises every hour to prevent atelectasis.”
c. “If I develop atelectasis, I will need a chest tube to drain excess fluid.”
d. “Hyperventilation will open up my alveoli, preventing atelectasis.”

Answer 11

ANS: B

Atelectasis develops when alveoli do not expand. Breathing exercises, especially deep breathing and incentive spirometry, increase lung volume and open the airways, preventing atelectasis. Deep breathing also opens the pores of Kohn between alveoli to allow sharing of oxygen between alveoli. Atelectasis can affect anyone who does not deep breathe. A chest tube is for pneumothorax or hemothorax. It is deep breathing, not hyperventilation, that prevents atelectasis.

Question 12

The nurse is caring for a patient with respiratory problems. Which assessment finding indicates a late sign of hypoxia?

a. Elevated blood pressure
b. Increased pulse rate
c. Restlessness
d. Cyanosis

Answer 12

ANS: D

Cyanosis, blue discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by the presence of desaturated hemoglobin in capillaries, is a late sign of hypoxia. Elevated blood pressure, increased pulse rate, and restlessness are early signs of hypoxia.

Question 13

A nurse is caring for a 5-year-old patient whose temperature is 101.2° F. The nurse expects this patient to hyperventilate. Which factor does the nurse remember when planning care for this type of hyperventilation?

a. Anxiety over illness
b. Decreased drive to breathe
c. Increased metabolic demands
d. Infection destroying lung tissues

Answer 13

ANS: C

Increased body temperature (fever) increases the metabolic rate, thereby increasing carbon dioxide production. The increased carbon dioxide level stimulates an increase in the patient’s rate and depth of respiration, causing hyperventilation. Anxiety can cause hyperventilation, but this is not the direct cause from a fever. Sleep causes a decreased respiratory drive; hyperventilation speeds up breathing. The cause of the fever in this question is unknown.

Question 14

A nurse is preparing a patient for nasotracheal suctioning. In which order will the nurse perform the steps, beginning with the first step?

1. Insert catheter.
2. Apply suction and remove.
3. Have patient deep breathe.
4. Encourage patient to cough.
5. Attach catheter to suction system.
6. Rinse catheter and connecting tubing.
   a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
   b. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 6
   c. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6
   d. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4, 6

Answer 14

ANS: C

The steps for nasotracheal suctioning are as follows: Verify that catheter is attached to suction; have patient deep breathe; insert catheter; apply intermittent suction for no more than 10 seconds and remove; encourage patient to cough; and rinse catheter and connecting tubing with normal saline.

Question 15

. A patient has carbon dioxide retention from lung problems. Which type of diet will the nurse most likely suggest for this patient?

a. Low-carbohydrate
b. Low-caffeine
c. High-caffeine
d. High-carbohydrate

Answer 15

ANS: A

A low-carbohydrate diet is best. Diets high in carbohydrates play a role in increasing the carbon dioxide load for patients with carbon dioxide retention. As carbohydrates are metabolized, an increased load of carbon dioxide is created and excreted via the lungs. A low- or high-caffeine diet is not as important as the carbohydrate load.

Question 16

ANS: A
A low-carbohydrate diet is best. Diets high in carbohydrates play a role in increasing the carbon dioxide load for patients with carbon dioxide retention. As carbohydrates are metabolized, an increased load of carbon dioxide is created and excreted via the lungs. A low- or high-caffeine diet is not as important as the carbohydrate load.

Answer 16

ANS: A

A 2000-calorie diet of fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy foods that are high in fiber, potassium, calcium, and magnesium and low in saturated and total fat helps prevent and reduce the effects of hypertension. Nonfat yogurt with granola is a good source of calcium, fiber, and potassium; dried apricots add a second source of potassium. Although cereal and a banana provide fiber and potassium, skim milk should be substituted for whole milk to decrease fat. An omelet with sausage and cheese is high in fat. Butter and bacon are high in fat.

Question 17

A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving 2 L/min of oxygen. Which oxygen delivery device is most appropriate for the nurse to administer the oxygen?

a. Nasal cannula
b. Simple face mask
c. Non-rebreather mask
d. Partial non-rebreather mask

Answer 17

ANS: A

Nasal cannulas deliver oxygen from 1 to 6 L/min. All other devices (simple face mask, non-rebreather mask, and partial non-rebreather mask) are intended for flow rates greater than 6 L/min.

Question 18

The nurse needs to closely monitor the oxygen status of an older-adult patient undergoing anesthesia because of which age-related change?

a. Thinner heart valves cause lipid accumulation and fibrosis.
b. Diminished respiratory muscle strength may cause poor chest expansion.
c. Alterations in mental status prevent patients’ awareness of ineffective breathing.
d. An increased number of pacemaker cells make proper anesthesia induction more difficult.

Answer 18

ANS: B

Age-related changes in the thorax that occur from ossification of costal cartilage, decreased space between vertebrae, and diminished respiratory muscle strength lead to problems with chest expansion and oxygenation,whereby the patient will have difficulty excreting anesthesia gas. The nurse needs to monitor the patient’s oxygen status carefully to make sure the patient does not retain too much of the drug. Older adults experience alterations in cardiac function as a result of calcification of the conduction pathways, thicker and stiffer heart valves caused by lipid accumulation and fibrosis, and a decrease in the number of pacemaker cells in the SA node. Altered mental status is not a normal age-related change; it indicates possible cardiac and/or respiratory problems.

Question 19

ANS: B
Age-related changes in the thorax that occur from ossification of costal cartilage, decreased space between vertebrae, and diminished respiratory muscle strength lead to problems with chest expansion and oxygenation,whereby the patient will have difficulty excreting anesthesia gas. The nurse needs to monitor the patient’s oxygen status carefully to make sure the patient does not retain too much of the drug. Older adults experience alterations in cardiac function as a result of calcification of the conduction pathways, thicker and stiffer heart valves caused by lipid accumulation and fibrosis, and a decrease in the number of pacemaker cells in the SA node. Altered mental status is not a normal age-related change; it indicates possible cardiac and/or respiratory problems.

Answer 19

ANS: B

A nursing care plan for preventative health measures should be reasonable and feasible. Keeping up-to-date on vaccinations is important because vaccine reduces the severity of illnesses and serious complications. Determine if and when the patient has had a pneumococcal or influenza (flu) vaccine. This is especially important when assessing older adults because of their increased risk for respiratory disease. Although it is important to finish the full course of antibiotics, it is not a preventative health measure. Scheduling annual tuberculosis skin tests does not address prevention and is an unreliable indictor of tuberculosis in older patients. The exercise routine should be reasonable to increase compliance; exercise is recommended only 3 to 4 times a week for 30 to 60 minutes, and walking, rather than running, is an efficient method.

Question 20

. The nurse is caring for a patient with fluid volume overload. Which physiological effect does the nurse most likely expect?

a. Increased preload
b. Increased heart rate
c. Decreased afterload
d. Decreased tissue perfusion

Answer 20

ANS: A

Preload refers to the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole; an increase in circulating volume would increase the preload of the heart. Afterload refers to resistance; increased pressure would lead to increased resistance, and afterload would increase. A decrease in tissue perfusion would be seen with hypovolemia. A decrease in fluid volume would cause an increase in heart rate as the body is attempting to increase cardiac output.

Question 21

A nurse is caring for a patient with continuous cardiac monitoring for heart dysrhythmias. Which rhythm will cause the nurse to intervene immediately?

a. Ventricular tachycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Sinus rhythm
d. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

Answer 21

ANS: A

Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation are life-threatening rhythms that require immediate intervention. Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening dysrhythmia because of the decreased cardiac output and the potential to deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation or sudden cardiac death. Atrial fibrillation is a common dysrhythmia in older adults and is not as serious as ventricular tachycardia. Sinus rhythm is normal. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is a sudden, rapid onset of tachycardia originating above the AV node. It often begins and ends spontaneously.

Question 22

The patient is experiencing angina pectoris. Which assessment finding does the nurse expect when conducting a history and physical examination?

a. Experiences chest pain after eating a heavy meal
b. Experiences adequate oxygen saturation during exercise
c. Experiences crushing chest pain for more than 20 minutes
d. Experiences tingling in the left arm that lasts throughout the morning

Answer 22

ANS: A

Angina pectoris is chest pain that results from limited oxygen supply. Often pain is precipitated by activities such as exercise, stress, and eating a heavy meal and lasts 3 to 5 minutes. Symptoms of angina pectoris are relieved by rest and/or nitroglycerin. Adequate oxygen saturation occurs with rest; inadequate oxygen saturation occurs during exercise. Pain lasting longer than 20 minutes or arm tingling that persists could be a sign of myocardial infarction.

Question 23

Which nursing intervention is most effective in preventing hospital-acquired pneumonia in an older-adult patient?

a. Discontinue the humidification delivery device to keep excess fluid from lungs.
b. Monitor oxygen saturation, and frequently auscultate lung bases.
c. Assist the patient to cough, turn, and deep breathe every 2 hours.
d. Decrease fluid intake to 300 mL a shift.

Answer 23

ANS: C

The goal of the nursing action should be the prevention of pneumonia; the action that best addresses this is to cough, turn, and deep breathe to keep secretions from pooling at the base of the lungs. Humidification thins respiratory secretions, making them easier to expel and should be used. Monitoring oxygen status is important but is not a method of prevention. Hydration assists in preventing hospital-acquired pneumonia. The best way to maintain thin secretions is to provide a fluid intake of 1500 to 2500 mL/day unless contraindicated by cardiac or renal status. Restricting fluids is contraindicated in this situation since there is no data indicating cardiac or renal disease.

Question 24

The nurse is assessing a patient with emphysema. Which assessment finding requires further follow-up with the health care provider?

a. Increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest
b. Accessory muscle used for breathing
c. Clubbing of the fingers
d. Hemoptysis

Answer 24

ANS: D

Hemoptysis is an abnormal occurrence of emphysema, and further diagnostic studies are needed to determine the cause of blood in the sputum. Clubbing of the fingers, barrel chest (increased anterior-posterior chest diameter), and accessory muscle use are all normal findings in a patient with emphysema.

Question 25

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) asks the nurse why clubbing occurs. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?

a. “Your disease doesn’t send enough oxygen to your fingers.”
b. “Your disease affects both your lungs and your heart, and not enough blood is being pumped.”
c. “Your disease will be helped if you pursed-lip breathe.”
d. “Your disease often makes patients lose mental status.”

Answer 25

ANS: A

Clubbing of the nail bed can occur with COPD and other diseases that cause prolonged oxygen deficiency or chronic hypoxemia. Pursed-lipped breathing helps the alveoli stay open but is not the cause of clubbing. Loss of mental status is not a normal finding with COPD and will not result in clubbing. Low oxygen and not low circulating blood volume is the problem in COPD that results in clubbing.

Question 26

A patient with a pneumothorax has a chest tube inserted and is placed on low constant suction. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?

a. The patient reports pain at the chest tube insertion site that increases with movement.
b. Fifty milliliters of blood gushes into the drainage device after the patient coughs.
c. No bubbling is present in the suction control chamber of the drainage device.
d. Yellow purulent discharge is seen leaking out from around the dressing site.

Answer 26

ANS: C

No bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates an obstruction of the drainage system. An obstruction causes increased pressure, which can cause a tension pneumothorax, which can be life threatening. The nurse needs to determine whether the leak is inside the thorax or in the tubing and act from there. Occasional blood gushes from the lung owing to lung expansion, as during a cough; this is reserve drainage. Drainage over 100 mL/hr after 3 hours of chest tube placement is cause for concern. Yellow purulent drainage indicates an infection that should be reported to the health care provider but is not as immediately life threatening as the lack of bubbling in the suction control chamber.

Question 27

. The nurse is caring for a patient with a tracheostomy tube. Which nursing intervention is most effective in promoting effective airway clearance?

a. Suctioning respiratory secretions several times every hour
b. Administering humidified oxygen through a tracheostomy collar
c. Instilling normal saline into the tracheostomy to thin secretions before suctioning
d. Deflating the tracheostomy cuff before allowing the patient to cough up secretions

Answer 27

ANS: B

Humidification from air humidifiers or humidified oxygen tracheostomy collars can help prevent drying of secretions that cause occlusion. Suctioning should be done only as needed; too frequent suctioning can damage the mucosal lining, resulting in thicker secretions. Normal saline should not be instilled into a tracheostomy; research showed no benefit with this technique. The purpose of the tracheostomy cuff is to keep secretions from entering the lungs; the nurse should not deflate the tracheostomy cuff unless instructed to do so by the health care provider.

Question 28

The nurse is educating a student nurse on caring for a patient with a chest tube. Which statement from the student nurse indicates successful learning?

a. “I should clamp the chest tube when giving the patient a bed bath.”
b. “I should report if I see continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.”
c. “I should strip the drains on the chest tube every hour to promote drainage.”
d. “I should notify the health care provider first, if the chest tube becomes dislodged.”

Answer 28

ANS: B

Correct care of a chest tube involves knowing normal and abnormal functioning of the tube. A constant or intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates a leak in the drainage system, and the health care provider must be notified immediately. Stripping the tube is not routinely performed as it increases pressure. If the tubing disconnects from the drainage unit, instruct the patient to exhale as much as possible and to cough. This maneuver rids the pleural space of as much air as possible. Temporarily reestablish a water seal by immersing the open end of the chest tube into a container of sterile water. The chest tube should not be clamped unless necessary; if so, the length of time clamped would be minimal to reduce the risk of pneumothorax.

Question 29

. Which coughing technique will the nurse use to help a patient clear central airways?

a. Huff
b. Quad
c. Cascade
d. Incentive spirometry

Answer 29

ANS: A

The huff cough stimulates a natural cough reflex and is generally effective only for clearing central airways. While exhaling, the patient opens the glottis by saying the word huff. The quad cough technique is for patients without abdominal muscle control such as those with spinal cord injuries. While the patient breathes out with a maximal expiratory effort, the patient or nurse pushes inward and upward on the abdominal muscles toward the diaphragm, causing the cough. With the cascade cough the patient takes a slow, deep breath and holds it for 2 seconds while contracting expiratory muscles. Then he or she opens the mouth and performs a series of coughs throughout exhalation, thereby coughing at progressively lowered lung volumes. This technique promotes airway clearance and a patent airway in patients with large volumes of sputum. Incentive spirometry encourages voluntary deep breathing by providing visual feedback to patients about inspiratory volume. It promotes deep breathing and prevents or treats atelectasis in the postoperative patient.

Question 30

The nurse is suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy tube. Which action will the nurse take?

a. Set suction regulator at 150 to 200 mm Hg.
b. Limit the length of suctioning to 10 seconds.
c. Apply suction while gently rotating and inserting the catheter.
d. Liberally lubricate the end of the suction catheter with a water-soluble solution.

Answer 30

ANS: B

Suctioning passes should be limited to 10 seconds to avoid hypoxemia. Suction for a tracheostomy should be set at 100 to 150 mm Hg. Excessive lubrication can clog the catheter or occlude the airway; lubricant is not necessary for oropharyngeal or artificial airway (tracheostomy) suctioning. Suction should never be applied on insertion.

Question 31

The nurse is caring for a patient who needs oxygen via a nasal cannula. Which task can the nurse delegate to the nursing assistive personnel?

a. Applying the nasal cannula
b. Adjusting the oxygen flow
c. Assessing lung sounds
d. Setting up the oxygen

Answer 31

ANS: A

The skill of applying (not adjusting oxygen flow) a nasal cannula or oxygen mask can be delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP). The nurse is responsible for assessing the patient’s respiratory system, response to oxygen therapy, and setup of oxygen therapy, including adjustment of oxygen flow rate.

Question 32

The nurse is using a closed suction device. Which patient will be most appropriate for this suctioning method?

a. A 5-year-old with excessive drooling from epiglottitis
b. A 5-year-old with an asthma attack following severe allergies
c. A 24-year-old with a right pneumothorax following a motor vehicle accident
d. A 24-year-old with acute respiratory distress syndrome requiring mechanical ventilation

Answer 32

ANS: D

Closed suctioning is most often used on patients who require invasive mechanical ventilation to support their respiratory efforts because it permits continuous delivery of oxygen while suction is performed and reduces the risk of oxygen desaturation. In this case, the acute respiratory distress syndrome requires mechanical ventilation. In the presence of epiglottitis, croup, laryngospasm, or irritable airway, the entrance of a suction catheter via the nasal route causes intractable coughing, hypoxemia, and severe bronchospasm, necessitating emergency intubation or tracheostomy. The 5-year-old child with asthma would benefit from an inhaler. A chest tube is needed for the pneumothorax.

Question 33

While the nurse is changing the ties on a tracheostomy collar, the patient coughs, dislodging the tracheostomy tube. Which action will the nurse take first?

a. Press the emergency response button.
b. Insert a spare tracheostomy with the obturator.
c. Manually occlude the tracheostomy with sterile gauze.
d. Place a face mask delivering 100% oxygen over the nose and mouth.

Answer 33

ANS: B

The nurse’s first priority is to establish a stable airway by inserting a spare trach into the patient’s airway; ideally an obturator should be used. The nurse could activate the emergency response team if the patient is still unstable after the tracheostomy is placed. A patient with a tracheostomy breathes through the tube, not the nose or mouth; a face mask would not be an effective method of getting air into the lungs. Manually occluding pressure over the tracheostomy site is not appropriate and would block the patient’s only airway.

Question 34

. A nurse is following the Ventilator Bundle standards to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. Which strategies is the nurse using? (Select all that apply.)

a. Head of bed elevation to 90 degrees at all times
b. Daily oral care with chlorhexidine
c. Cuff monitoring for adequate seal
d. Clean technique when suctioning
e. Daily “sedation vacations”
f. Heart failure prophylaxis

Answer 34

ANS: B, C, E

The key components of the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) Ventilator Bundle are:
Elevation of the head of the bed (HOB)—elevation is 30 to 45 degrees
Daily “sedation vacations” and assessment of readiness to extubate
Peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis
Deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis
Daily oral care with chlorhexidine
Monitor cuff pressure frequently to ensure that there is an adequate seal to prevent aspiration of secretions is also included. Sterile technique is used for suctioning when on ventilators. Heart failure prophylaxis is not a component.