Owt Flashcards

1
Q

What type of corrosion is known to be the most common and destructive and occurs when two different types of metal contact each other with moisture present?

A

Galvanic

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2
Q

Which is a temporary protection of painted or unpainted surfaces where the coating system has been damaged or removed?

A

Compound

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3
Q

Which mechanical removal type uses abrasive paper to remove light corrosion not deeply pitted into metal?

A

Sanding

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4
Q

Which common cleaning removal type combines mechanical force from spray with the reactions of the chemicals used in the solutions?

A

Spray washing

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5
Q

What is the purpose of installing engine pre-heating devices?

A

To prevent damage caused by cold starts and rapid acceleration to rated RPM.

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6
Q

What is a weakness of the Direct Immersion (Coolant Type) pre-heating device?

A

Heat loss over distance creates cold pockets.

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7
Q

Which method of coolant pre-heating functions strictly operates off onboard battery voltage?

A

Fuel-fired

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8
Q

Which method of air pre-heating functions strictly operates off on-board battery voltage?

A

Glow plugs

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9
Q

Which component is used to set the required charging profile depending on battery type?

A

Charging Quick Set Selector

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10
Q

Which component allows the user to select the battery pre-charge status?

A

Maintainer Quick Set Selector

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11
Q

What will occur after connecting the charger and not making a charging quick set selection within 10 minutes?

A

Will default to a safe maintainer mode

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12
Q

After the battery has completed charging, the battery charger will enter which mode of operation?

A

Conditioning Battery Mode

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13
Q

When the piston begins to travel downward in the cylinder, what occurs?

A

Creates a vacuum

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14
Q

When fuel is mixed with air and ignited by an electric spark from the ignition system, what occurs?

A

Combustion

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15
Q

What is the purpose of the flywheel?

A

Stores rotational energy to ensure rotation of the crankshaft

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16
Q

If the piston reaches its upper limit of travel, what is it called?

A

Top dead center

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17
Q

How many complete revolutions of the crankshaft are required for a two-stroke engine?

A

One

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18
Q

What type of valves are located in the overhead valve train of a two-stroke diesel engine?

A

Exhaust

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19
Q

What supplies fresh air to the air box in a two stroke diesel engine?

A

Blower

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20
Q

When does the intake event begin on a two-stroke diesel engine?

A

When the piston uncovers the intake ports

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21
Q

If coolant comes into direct contact with the cylinder liner, then what
type of liner is used?

A

A wet liner

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22
Q

If the cylinder head forms the top of the combustion chamber, then what component forms the bottom of the combustion chamber?

A

The piston

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23
Q

What is the purpose of a four-stroke diesel engine?

A

Convert the chemical energy of burning fuel, into the mechanical energy of an engine

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24
Q

Which of the following is a major advantage of a diesel engine over gaseous engines?

A

Fuel efficiency

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25
Seals are comprised of what?
High grade flexible rubber compounds
26
What should be done to prevent cross threading?
Start all fasteners by hand before tightening with tools
27
What is the purpose of a gasket?
Provides a mechanical seal, between non-rotating parts
28
When should gasket sealant be used?
Only as directed
29
Which of these will cause a loss of coolant?
Faulty radiator cap
30
If a gasoline engine lubricating system is showing low oil pressure, which will NOT be the cause?
Low level of urea
31
What is a common cause of a high temperature coolant system malfunction?
Thermostat stuck closed
32
In a gasoline engine, what would cause a lower power output, in relation to the intake and exhaust system?
Restricted intake or silencer
33
What is one cause of air in the fuel lines?
Running out of fuel
34
What can "knock"?
Over advanced timing of the injector
35
What will cause a generator to wet stack?
Insufficient load
36
EPA standards may require what to be used?
Diesel exhaust fluid
37
What component moves oil from the oil pan and delivers it throughout the engine?
Oil pump
38
What is the purpose of an oil filter?
To remove unwanted contaminates
39
What is the purpose of the oil cooler?
To remove excess heat from oil to help retain the lubricating qualities of the oil
40
Which component stabilizes oil pressure at all speeds?
Oil pressure relief valve
41
What component will be used to aid in a cold engine start?
Choke
42
Which of these does not provide a form of fuel filtration?
Reverse-osmosis
43
When would a fuel transfer pump be used?
When gravity feed will not be possible or practical
44
What is the function of the intake valves?
To control the entry of the air/fuel mixture into the combustion chambers
45
What function of the fuel system breaks up the fuel into smaller particles?
Atomization
46
Which type of fuel lines are standard wire-braided hose with an inner lining?
Medium weight lines
47
Which fuel injection system is designed for applications with relatively broad speed requirements?
Distributor Fuel System
48
A mechanical fuel pump is actuated by what?
Camshaft
49
What happens to air velocity when it passes over the fins of air-cooled engines?
Slows down
50
The centrifugal water pump draws coolant into the center of the impeller and then
Throws coolant at high velocity into the surround casing
51
What is the purpose of the additive within the coolant filters?
To condition the coolant to minimize scale build up
52
When the pressure in the cooling system exceeds the maximum valve the radiator cap
Diverts coolant to the expansion tank
53
Supplemental coolant additives are a water-soluble chemical compound that protects metal surfaces of the cooling system against
Damage and corrosion
54
If left untreated, cavitation can cause what in a cooling system?
Pinholes in the liner allowing coolant to leak through
55
Conventional antifreezes use what type of additives to achieve corrosion and scale protection?
Inorganic
56
What is used to determine if the correct amount of coolant additives exist within the cooling system?
Test strips
57
What air cleaner has air travel through two filters before entering the intake piping?
Two-stage cleaner
58
If cooling air passes over intake air then this is a/an?
Air-to-Air aftercooler
59
What type of silencer is efficient at mitigating low to mid frequency noise only?
Reactive
60
What is the end product if DEF is used in conjunction with an SCR Catalyst in a diesel exhaust system?
Nitrogen and water
61
In order for the engine control unit to understand a sensor signal it must first be converted into?
Digital
62
Which of the following functions of an electronic governing system comes after sensing?
Computing
63
Why are electronic governors used instead of mechanical?
Easier to tune and change preselected speeds
64
In order to supply a utility with a certain amount of power, the ECU must be set to what?
Droop base load
65
What capability does the battery have?
Stores chemical energy and converts it into electrical energy
66
Which component of the Starting System uses low amperage to operate a high amperage component?
The start switch and crank relay
67
Which component engages the pinion gear?
Starter solenoid
68
The MPU, crank positioning sensor and the cam positioning sensor all perform what function?
Sense the engine speed during startup
69
What is the purpose of a battery?
Store chemical energy and convert it into electrical energy when connected to a load
70
What is used as an electrolyte solution in a lead-acid battery?
A mixture of water and sulfuric acid
71
Specific gravity is affected by what two things?
State of charge and temperature
72
Which type of battery is constructed of fine, highly porous, micro-fiber glass separators to absorb the electrolyte?
Absorbed Glass Mat
73
When would static ground be utilized?
While offloading fuel into a storage tank
74
Why are static grounds used?
To prevent static electricity from reaching sparking potential
75
Which type of grounding radiates wires horizontally from a central point?
Star ground
76
Which of the following is the best example of an equipment ground?
Driven electrode with a resistance value of 5 Ohms
77
Why are electrical systems and equipment grounded?
Protect personnel, equipment and facility cabling
78
Electrical systems are grounded to prevent surges due to _______, line surges and unintentional contact with higher voltage lines?
Lightning
79
For a system to be considered grounded it must
Have at least one conductor or point intentionally grounded
80
Which grounding principles is defined below? Protects personnel from shock, electrocution, fire and explosion hazards by equalizing the potential between ground and any normally non-current carrying conductive materials.
Personal and Equipment Safety
81
What bonding method is used to connect components separated by distance and can be solid, stranded, braided, bare or insulated?
Jumper wire
82
Which of the following is NOT a reason for bonding equipment?
Provide alternate current carrying conductor
83
When bonding electrical system components, which of the following methods is appropriate?
Exothermic welding
84
What bonding method utilizes rigid plates that can be used to span a gap to connect two or more components of an electrical system?
Terminal bars
85
Which alternator components) help(s) to maintain stable voltage during load changes?
Damper windings
86
Which alternator connection has three phase leads and a neutral?
Wye
87
What exciter component rotates and provides AC voltage to the rectifier components?
Exciter armature
88
How many degrees apart is each phase winding in a three-phase alternation positioned?
120
89
If voltage output goes to zero, what will happen to the volt meter?
Power to the meter will also go to zero and read 0 VAC
90
If a transformer uses two inductors, then it is said to be what kind of transformer?
Potential transformer
91
If the Power factor meter indicates to the left, then the load is ______ and _______ is said to be
Lagging, inductive
92
If the Automatic Voltage Regulator computed a positive error signal, then how would that affect the stator's output voltage?
The voltage would decrease
93
Which type of protective device provides a time delay and must be replaced when actuated?
Fuse
94
If a circuit has higher amperage or volt ratings, then what type of fuse will be used?
Cartridge
95
If current rises above amperage rating on a fuse link. what will happen?
Heat from passing current melts fuse link
96
Why would a piece of equipment be equipped with a thermal-magnetic circuit breaker?
The breaker is capable of handling larger overloads
97
The Air Force Form 487 (Generator Operating Log) is used to
Record operating data, the condition of engine/ generator systems, discrepancies, corrective actions taken, and to determine the need for maintenance.
98
Upon starting the engine, check for excessive smoke. Why?
Because this is indicative of malfunctions in either the fuel or intake system
99
If possible, why should an infrared scan of inner equipment be accomplished on an AC system?
To detect loose connections, imbalanced circuits, damaged switches, and material defects unseen by the naked eye
100
If facility loads are not sufficient in bringing the generator to the required load level, then what should be done?
Augment with a load bank to comply with regulations and requirements
101
Which component moves the contact assemblies between Source 1 And Source 2?
Linear Actuator
102
How long is the Time Delay Normal to Emergency (TDNE) adjustable for?
0 to 120 seconds
103
Which component houses a microprocessor that controls all ATS functions?
Digital Control Board
104
Which ATS command is used to start the generator?
TDES
105
What will happen if the generator's voltage is incompatible with the electrical service?
Equipment will burn up or operate incorrectly
106
Which of the following does NOT need to be known to complete a load survey?
Open transition or closed transition
107
Why must the transfer switch have a switched neutral?
To protect the generator from ground faults occurring on the utility
108
In order for the facility load to operate properly the generator and transfer switch must do what?
Provide the same number of phases as the electrical service
109
What are PLCs replacing?
Electromechanical relays
110
How is power supplied to single unit PLCs?
Internally
111
What hosts the PLC logic, memory and communications?
Central processing unit
112
What was invented to ease the transition for technicians programming PLCs, while they replaced mechanical relay logic systems?
Ladder logic