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REVOL NROP > Owt > Flashcards

Owt Flashcards

1
Q

What type of corrosion is known to be the most common and destructive and occurs when two different types of metal contact each other with moisture present?

A

Galvanic

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2
Q

Which is a temporary protection of painted or unpainted surfaces where the coating system has been damaged or removed?

A

Compound

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3
Q

Which mechanical removal type uses abrasive paper to remove light corrosion not deeply pitted into metal?

A

Sanding

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4
Q

Which common cleaning removal type combines mechanical force from spray with the reactions of the chemicals used in the solutions?

A

Spray washing

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5
Q

What is the purpose of installing engine pre-heating devices?

A

To prevent damage caused by cold starts and rapid acceleration to rated RPM.

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6
Q

What is a weakness of the Direct Immersion (Coolant Type) pre-heating device?

A

Heat loss over distance creates cold pockets.

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7
Q

Which method of coolant pre-heating functions strictly operates off onboard battery voltage?

A

Fuel-fired

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8
Q

Which method of air pre-heating functions strictly operates off on-board battery voltage?

A

Glow plugs

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9
Q

Which component is used to set the required charging profile depending on battery type?

A

Charging Quick Set Selector

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10
Q

Which component allows the user to select the battery pre-charge status?

A

Maintainer Quick Set Selector

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11
Q

What will occur after connecting the charger and not making a charging quick set selection within 10 minutes?

A

Will default to a safe maintainer mode

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12
Q

After the battery has completed charging, the battery charger will enter which mode of operation?

A

Conditioning Battery Mode

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13
Q

When the piston begins to travel downward in the cylinder, what occurs?

A

Creates a vacuum

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14
Q

When fuel is mixed with air and ignited by an electric spark from the ignition system, what occurs?

A

Combustion

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15
Q

What is the purpose of the flywheel?

A

Stores rotational energy to ensure rotation of the crankshaft

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16
Q

If the piston reaches its upper limit of travel, what is it called?

A

Top dead center

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17
Q

How many complete revolutions of the crankshaft are required for a two-stroke engine?

A

One

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18
Q

What type of valves are located in the overhead valve train of a two-stroke diesel engine?

A

Exhaust

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19
Q

What supplies fresh air to the air box in a two stroke diesel engine?

A

Blower

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20
Q

When does the intake event begin on a two-stroke diesel engine?

A

When the piston uncovers the intake ports

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21
Q

If coolant comes into direct contact with the cylinder liner, then what
type of liner is used?

A

A wet liner

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22
Q

If the cylinder head forms the top of the combustion chamber, then what component forms the bottom of the combustion chamber?

A

The piston

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23
Q

What is the purpose of a four-stroke diesel engine?

A

Convert the chemical energy of burning fuel, into the mechanical energy of an engine

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24
Q

Which of the following is a major advantage of a diesel engine over gaseous engines?

A

Fuel efficiency

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25
Q

Seals are comprised of what?

A

High grade flexible rubber compounds

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26
Q

What should be done to prevent cross threading?

A

Start all fasteners by hand before tightening with tools

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27
Q

What is the purpose of a gasket?

A

Provides a mechanical seal, between non-rotating parts

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28
Q

When should gasket sealant be used?

A

Only as directed

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29
Q

Which of these will cause a loss of coolant?

A

Faulty radiator cap

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30
Q

If a gasoline engine lubricating system is showing low oil pressure, which will NOT be the cause?

A

Low level of urea

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31
Q

What is a common cause of a high temperature coolant system malfunction?

A

Thermostat stuck closed

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32
Q

In a gasoline engine, what would cause a lower power output, in relation to the intake and exhaust system?

A

Restricted intake or silencer

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33
Q

What is one cause of air in the fuel lines?

A

Running out of fuel

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34
Q

What can “knock”?

A

Over advanced timing of the injector

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35
Q

What will cause a generator to wet stack?

A

Insufficient load

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36
Q

EPA standards may require what to be used?

A

Diesel exhaust fluid

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37
Q

What component moves oil from the oil pan and delivers it throughout the engine?

A

Oil pump

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38
Q

What is the purpose of an oil filter?

A

To remove unwanted contaminates

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39
Q

What is the purpose of the oil cooler?

A

To remove excess heat from oil to help retain the lubricating qualities of the oil

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40
Q

Which component stabilizes oil pressure at all speeds?

A

Oil pressure relief valve

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41
Q

What component will be used to aid in a cold engine start?

A

Choke

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42
Q

Which of these does not provide a form of fuel filtration?

A

Reverse-osmosis

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43
Q

When would a fuel transfer pump be used?

A

When gravity feed will not be possible or practical

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44
Q

What is the function of the intake valves?

A

To control the entry of the air/fuel mixture into the combustion chambers

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45
Q

What function of the fuel system breaks up the fuel into smaller particles?

A

Atomization

46
Q

Which type of fuel lines are standard wire-braided hose with an inner lining?

A

Medium weight lines

47
Q

Which fuel injection system is designed for applications with relatively broad speed requirements?

A

Distributor Fuel System

48
Q

A mechanical fuel pump is actuated by what?

A

Camshaft

49
Q

What happens to air velocity when it passes over the fins of air-cooled engines?

A

Slows down

50
Q

The centrifugal water pump draws coolant into the center of the impeller and then

A

Throws coolant at high velocity into the surround casing

51
Q

What is the purpose of the additive within the coolant filters?

A

To condition the coolant to minimize scale build up

52
Q

When the pressure in the cooling system exceeds the maximum valve the radiator cap

A

Diverts coolant to the expansion tank

53
Q

Supplemental coolant additives are a water-soluble chemical compound that protects metal surfaces of the cooling system against

A

Damage and corrosion

54
Q

If left untreated, cavitation can cause what in a cooling system?

A

Pinholes in the liner allowing coolant to leak through

55
Q

Conventional antifreezes use what type of additives to achieve corrosion and scale protection?

A

Inorganic

56
Q

What is used to determine if the correct amount of coolant additives exist within the cooling system?

A

Test strips

57
Q

What air cleaner has air travel through two filters before entering the intake piping?

A

Two-stage cleaner

58
Q

If cooling air passes over intake air then this is a/an?

A

Air-to-Air aftercooler

59
Q

What type of silencer is efficient at mitigating low to mid frequency noise only?

A

Reactive

60
Q

What is the end product if DEF is used in conjunction with an SCR
Catalyst in a diesel exhaust system?

A

Nitrogen and water

61
Q

In order for the engine control unit to understand a sensor signal it must first be converted into?

A

Digital

62
Q

Which of the following functions of an electronic governing system comes after sensing?

A

Computing

63
Q

Why are electronic governors used instead of mechanical?

A

Easier to tune and change preselected speeds

64
Q

In order to supply a utility with a certain amount of power, the ECU must be set to what?

A

Droop base load

65
Q

What capability does the battery have?

A

Stores chemical energy and converts it into electrical energy

66
Q

Which component of the Starting System uses low amperage to operate a high amperage component?

A

The start switch and crank relay

67
Q

Which component engages the pinion gear?

A

Starter solenoid

68
Q

The MPU, crank positioning sensor and the cam positioning sensor all perform what function?

A

Sense the engine speed during startup

69
Q

What is the purpose of a battery?

A

Store chemical energy and convert it into electrical energy when connected to a load

70
Q

What is used as an electrolyte solution in a lead-acid battery?

A

A mixture of water and sulfuric acid

71
Q

Specific gravity is affected by what two things?

A

State of charge and temperature

72
Q

Which type of battery is constructed of fine, highly porous, micro-fiber glass separators to absorb the electrolyte?

A

Absorbed Glass Mat

73
Q

When would static ground be utilized?

A

While offloading fuel into a storage tank

74
Q

Why are static grounds used?

A

To prevent static electricity from reaching sparking potential

75
Q

Which type of grounding radiates wires horizontally from a central point?

A

Star ground

76
Q

Which of the following is the best example of an equipment ground?

A

Driven electrode with a resistance value of 5 Ohms

77
Q

Why are electrical systems and equipment grounded?

A

Protect personnel, equipment and facility cabling

78
Q

Electrical systems are grounded to prevent surges due to _______, line surges and unintentional contact with higher voltage lines?

A

Lightning

79
Q

For a system to be considered grounded it must

A

Have at least one conductor or point intentionally grounded

80
Q

Which grounding principles is defined below?
Protects personnel from shock, electrocution, fire and explosion hazards by equalizing the potential between ground and any normally non-current carrying conductive materials.

A

Personal and Equipment Safety

81
Q

What bonding method is used to connect components separated by distance and can be solid, stranded, braided, bare or insulated?

A

Jumper wire

82
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason for bonding equipment?

A

Provide alternate current carrying conductor

83
Q

When bonding electrical system components, which of the following methods is appropriate?

A

Exothermic welding

84
Q

What bonding method utilizes rigid plates that can be used to span a gap to connect two or more components of an electrical system?

A

Terminal bars

85
Q

Which alternator components) help(s) to maintain stable voltage during load changes?

A

Damper windings

86
Q

Which alternator connection has three phase leads and a neutral?

A

Wye

87
Q

What exciter component rotates and provides AC voltage to the rectifier components?

A

Exciter armature

88
Q

How many degrees apart is each phase winding in a three-phase alternation positioned?

A

120

89
Q

If voltage output goes to zero, what will happen to the volt meter?

A

Power to the meter will also go to zero and read 0 VAC

90
Q

If a transformer uses two inductors, then it is said to be what kind of transformer?

A

Potential transformer

91
Q

If the Power factor meter indicates to the left, then the load is ______
and _______ is said to be

A

Lagging, inductive

92
Q

If the Automatic Voltage Regulator computed a positive error signal, then how would that affect the stator’s output voltage?

A

The voltage would decrease

93
Q

Which type of protective device provides a time delay and must be replaced when actuated?

A

Fuse

94
Q

If a circuit has higher amperage or volt ratings, then what type of fuse will be used?

A

Cartridge

95
Q

If current rises above amperage rating on a fuse link. what will happen?

A

Heat from passing current melts fuse link

96
Q

Why would a piece of equipment be equipped with a thermal-magnetic circuit breaker?

A

The breaker is capable of handling larger overloads

97
Q

The Air Force Form 487 (Generator Operating Log) is used to

A

Record operating data, the condition of engine/ generator systems, discrepancies, corrective actions taken, and to determine the need for maintenance.

98
Q

Upon starting the engine, check for excessive smoke. Why?

A

Because this is indicative of malfunctions in either the fuel or intake system

99
Q

If possible, why should an infrared scan of inner equipment be accomplished on an AC system?

A

To detect loose connections, imbalanced circuits, damaged switches, and material defects unseen by the naked eye

100
Q

If facility loads are not sufficient in bringing the generator to the required load level, then what should be done?

A

Augment with a load bank to comply with regulations and requirements

101
Q

Which component moves the contact assemblies between Source 1
And Source 2?

A

Linear Actuator

102
Q

How long is the Time Delay Normal to Emergency (TDNE) adjustable for?

A

0 to 120 seconds

103
Q

Which component houses a microprocessor that controls all ATS functions?

A

Digital Control Board

104
Q

Which ATS command is used to start the generator?

A

TDES

105
Q

What will happen if the generator’s voltage is incompatible with the electrical service?

A

Equipment will burn up or operate incorrectly

106
Q

Which of the following does NOT need to be known to complete a load survey?

A

Open transition or closed transition

107
Q

Why must the transfer switch have a switched neutral?

A

To protect the generator from ground faults occurring on the utility

108
Q

In order for the facility load to operate properly the generator and transfer switch must do what?

A

Provide the same number of phases as the electrical service

109
Q

What are PLCs replacing?

A

Electromechanical relays

110
Q

How is power supplied to single unit PLCs?

A

Internally

111
Q

What hosts the PLC logic, memory and communications?

A

Central processing unit

112
Q

What was invented to ease the transition for technicians programming PLCs, while they replaced mechanical relay logic systems?

A

Ladder logic

REVOL NROP (4 decks)

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