Overview Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Gross (Macroscopic) Anatomy considers what?
A
Features visible with the naked or unaided eye.
2
Q
The human form shown upright, hands at the side, palms facing forward, and feet together is the _________ position?
A
Anatomical
3
Q
A person laying face down is in the ________ position?
A
Prone
4
Q
A person laying face up is in the ______ position?
A
Supine
5
Q
The frontal plane divides the body into the ________ and ________ portions?
A
Anterior, Posterior
6
Q
The diaphragm separates the abdominopelvic and _________ cavities.
A
Thoracic
7
Q
The layer of the pericardium covering the heart is the ________ pericardium.
A
Visceral
8
Q
The pericardium lies within the _______.
A
Medistinum
9
Q
________ is the anatomical term meaning, “toward an attached base”.
A
Proximal
10
Q
________ is an anatomical term meaning “above or at a higher level”.
A
Superior
11
Q
The term ________ means “the study of internal and external structures and the physical relationships between body parts”.
A
Anatomy
12
Q
_______ is the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions.
A
Physiology
13
Q
The ________ level is comprised of the smallest stable units of matter.
A
Molecular
14
Q
_______ are the smallest living units in the body.
A
Cells
15
Q
The pleural cavity surrounds what organ?
A
Lung
16
Q
(T or F) The abdominopelvic cavity can be divided into either 4 or 9 regions?
A
True
17
Q
(T or F) The axial skeleton includes all limbs and supporting bones and ligaments.
A
False
18
Q
(T or F) Bone marrow acts as the primary site of red and white blood cell production.
A
True
19
Q
(T or F) The pituitary gland controls other endocrine glands and regulates growth and fluid balance.
A
True
20
Q
(T or F) The sagittal plane runs along the body’s long axis, extending anteriorly and posteriorly and dividing the body into L and R portions.
A
True
21
Q
______ processes require the cell to expend energy to move ions or molecules across the cell membrane, usually in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
A
Active
22
Q
A(n) _______ is a subatomic particle with a negative charge.
A
Electron
23
Q
________ are atoms or molecules with an electric charge. (3)
A
Anions, Cations, Ions
24
Q
_______ are chemical bonds created by the electrical attraction between anions and cations.
A
Ionic Bonds
25
______ is stored energy.
Potential energy
26
_____ are the essential elements and molecules obtained from the diet.
Nutrients
27
_______ are compounds that stabilize pH by either removing or replacing hydrogen ions.
Buffers
28
Sodium, potassium, calcium, and magnesium are examples of what?
Cations
29
What reaction breaks molecules into smaller fragments? (AB ---> A + B)
Decomposition
30
Inorganic compounds do not contain hydrogen and ______ atoms.
Carbon
31
______ are 3 forms of decomposition reaction.
Catabolism, Digestion, Hydrolysis
32
_______ is the net movement of molecules from an area of relatively high concentration to an area of relatively low concentration.
Diffusion
33
What is the diffusion of water across a cell membrane called?
Osmosis
34
Which solution does not cause the net movement of water into or out of an RBC?
Isotonic
35
Which solution causes the movement of H20 into an RBC, causing it to swell and possibly lyse (burst)?
Hypotonic
36
Which solution causes an RBC to lose H20, causing the cell to shrink and dehydrate?
Hypertonic
37
Glucose is passively transported across the cell membrane by binding to a receptor site on a carrier protein in a process called what?
Facilitated Diffusion
38
LR and NS are examples of what type of IV fluid?
Crystalloid
39
The organelles that manufacture proteins, using information provided by the DNS of the nucleus, are called what?
Ribosomes
40
What are the essential functions of epithelial cells? (3)
Control permeability, produce specialized secretions, and provide physical protection
41
_____ are examples of connective tissue. (3)
Blood, Bone, Fat
42
_______ are responsible for engulfing damaged cells or pathogens that enter the tissue.
Macrophages
43
______ are proteins that destroy invading microorganisms.
Antibodies
44
The watery matrix in blood is called what?
Plasma
45
What type of muscle is also known as striated voluntary muscle because it is controlled by the nervous system and has a striated appearance?
Skeletal
46
_____ is a brown, yellow-brown, or black pigment that accumulates in the epidermal cells.
Melanin
47
Reddish-purple blotches due to leakage of blood from an artery or vein are called what?
Ecchymosis
48
_______ is the medical condition characterized by the eruption of groups of vesicles along the dermatology of a sensory nerve.
Herpes Zoster
49
The integument contains two types of exocrine glands: Sweat and ______
Sebaceous
50
The primary function of merocrine sweat glands is what?
To cool the surface of the skin
51
A blood clot consists mainly of an insoluble network of what?
Fibrin
52
A(n) _________ is an injury where a flap of skin and tissues are torn loose or off.
Avulsion
53
What blood related process is the function of the skeletal system?
Production of RBCs in the red marrow
54
What is the expanded portion at each end of a long bone called?
Epiphyses
55
The outer surface of a bone is covered in a(n)?
Periosteum
56
What vitamin plays an important part in normal calcium metabolism?
Vitamin D3
57
What works with parathyroid hormone (PTH) to elevate calcium levels in the body?
Calcitriol
58
A partial displacement of a bone end from its position within a joint capsule is called what?
Subluxation
59
A ________ fracture has multiple bone fragments at the fracture site.
Comminuted
60
The pelvic girdle is included in what division of the skeleton?
Appendicular
61
The ___________ connects the cranial cavity with the spinal cavity and has the spinal cord passing through it.
Foramen magnum
62
What is suspended below the skull and serves as a base for muscles associated with the larynx, tongue, and pharynx?
Hyoid
63
What is the fibrous connective tissue connecting the bones of the skull at birth called?
Fontanels
64
The _____ and _______ are the projections on the axis (C2) that forms a pivot joint with the atlas (C1) to allow a person to rotate their head side to side.
Dens and Odontoid Process
65
The superior portion of the sternum is called the what?
Manubrium
66
The arm (brachium), contains what single bone?
Humerus
67
The head of the femur connects with what curved surface of the pelvis?
Acetabelum
68
What are 2 functions of the skeletal muscle?
To produce movement of the skeleton and maintain body temp
69
_______ is the “key” that “unlocks” the active site of an actin molecule.
Calcium
70
______ is the neurotransmitter or chemical released by a motor neuron to communicate with other cells.
Acetylcholine (ACh)
71
Arm muscles, after being in a cast, can develop smaller and weaker muscle fibers in a condition called what?
Atrophy
72
The breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid in the cytoplasm is called what?
Glycolysis
73
The specialized sites that are contacts between cardiac muscle cells are called what?
Intercalated discs
74
The specialized cells that determine the timing of cardiac muscle contractions are called what?
Pacemaker cells
75
Which muscle separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?
Diaphragm
76
All neural tissue outside of the brain and spinal cord make up which nervous system?
Peripheral
77
Information is carried to the CNS by the ______ division, and motor commands are carried by the _______ division.
Afferent, Efferent
78
_______ increases the speed at which the action potential travels along the axon of an oligodendrocyte.
Myelin
79
What is an example of a demyelination disorder?
Multiple sclerosis
80
What is a shift in the membrane potential toward 0mV called?
Depolarization
81
_______ is when a cell membrane cannot respond normally to further stimulation.
Refractory period
82
Synapses that release norepinephrine are called what?
Adrenergic
83
The 3 layers of specialized membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord are called what?
Meninges
84
Which part of the brain controls conscious thoughts, sensations, memory storage, and complex movements?
Cerebrum
85
The hypothalamus is connected to what gland, which is the primary link between the nervous and endocrine systems?
Pituitary
86
Which region of the brain is responsible for control of autonomic functions such as HR, BP, and digestive activities?
Medulla Oblongata
87
What condition is caused by an I’m a lance in the amount of CSF produced and the rate at which it is absorbed?
Hydrocephalus
88
The _______ division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates tissue metabolism, increases alertness, and prepares the body to deal with emergencies.
Sympathetic
89
What is caused by the stimulation of B1 receptors?
Increase in cardiac contractility, increase in HR, and increase in cardiac conduction
90
The parasympathetic nervous system has nicotinic and _______ receptors.
Muscarinic
91
What are the chemical messengers of the endocrine system called?
Hormones
92
The ______ acts as an important link between the nervous and endocrine systems.
Hypothalamus
93
The hormones released by the _______ control other endocrine glands.
Anterior pituitary gland
94
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin are released by which gland?
Posterior pituitary gland
95
What is the primary function of the antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
Decrease the amount of H20 lost in urine
96
Which disease occurs when the kidneys cannot respond to ADH or there is inadequate release of ADH into the body, which may be a result of trauma to the hypothalamus?
Diabetes insipidus
97
Which corticosteroid affects the electrolyte composition of body fluids?
Aldosterone
98
What promotes the conversion of lipids to glucose?
Cortisol
99
Epinephrine is secreted by which gland?
Adrenal medulla
100
The endocrine cells of which organ produce and secrete glucagon and insulin?
Pancreas
101
The alpha cells of the islets of Lengerhans produce and secrete which hormone?
Glucagon
102
Which hormone secreted by the kidneys stimulates the production of RBCs?
Erythropoietin (EPO)
103
In a(n) _________ effect, one hormone must be present for another hormone to work?
Permissive
104
A(n) _______ effect can result in two hormones having a net effect greater than the sum of their individual effects.
Synergistic
105
How does blood reduce fluid loss at an injury site?
Clotting
106
What are special proteins that attack invading organisms called?
Antibodies
107
What is the average pH of whole blood?
7.35-7.45
108
What is the most abundant plasma protein and is also responsible for the osmotic pressure of plasma?
Albumin
109
Which plasma protein is responsible for antibodies and transport proteins?
Globulins
110
What is a drifting blood clot known as?
Embolus
111
Which plasma protein is involved in blood coagulation?
Fibrinogens
112
_______ binds and transports CO2 and O2
Hemoglobin
113
The _______ is the percentage of whole blood volume occupied by cellular elements?
Hematocrit
114
Which surface antigen on RBCs determines blood type.
A, B, Rh
115
What is thrombocytopenia?
Low platelet count
116
What chambers of the heart are associated w/ the pulmonary circuit?
RT atrium, RT ventricule
117
Which connective tissue divides the thoracic cavity into 2 pleural cavities and encloses the heart?
Mediastinum
118
The muscular wall of the heart is called what?
Myocardium
119
What is true of the foramen ovale?
Closes at birth, penetrates the interateial septum and connects the atria, allows blood flow from the RT atrium to the LT ventricle
120
The valve between the LT atrium and LT ventricle is known as? (3 names)
Mitral, LT atrioventricular, bicuspid valve
121
The RT coronary artery divides into what branches?
Marginal and posterior inter-ventricular
122
What is an area of dead tissue caused by an interruption in cardiac blood flow called?
Infarct
123
The influx of _______ rapidly depolarizes the cardiac contractile cells.
Sodium
124
Pulmonary veins carry blood to what?
Heart
125
The normal rate of contraction of the heart is established by ________ cells.
Pacemaker
126
_________ form branching networks and are barely the diameter of a single RBC.
Cappilaries
127
Which layer of a blood vessel contained smooth muscle tissue?
Tunica media
128
The formation of lipid deposits in the tunica media associated w/ damage to the endothelial lining is called what?
Atherosclerosis
129
What controls the flow of blood into the capillary?
Precapillary sphincter
130
______ connect arterioles and venules, acting as shunts of the capillary beds.
Arteriovenous anastomosis
131
_______ is the resistance to flow resulting from interactions among molecules and suspended materials in a liquid.
Viscosity
132
______ is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures.
Pulse pressure
133
What affects tissue perfusion?
Cardiac output, BP, peripheral resistance
134
Which portion of the brain has the cardiac and vasomotor centers?
Medulla oblongata
135
Receptors sensitive to chemical stimuli are called what?
Chemoreceptors
136
The perception of pain coming from parts of the body that are not actually stimulated is called what?
Referred pain
137
What receptors monitor changes in pressure l, such as in the carotid artery and aorta?
Baroreceptors
138
The chemoreceptors that monitor pH, O2 levels and CO2 levels in the blood are located where?
Carotid bodies
139
The clear flux that fills the anterior chamber of the eye and helps give it its shapes is called what?
Aqueous humor
140
What photoreceptor provides color vision?
Cones
141
_____ is caused by an elevation in the pressure inside the eye from a blockage of the scleral venous sinus.
Glaucoma
142
_____ is the body’s ability to resist infection and disease through the activation of specific defenses.
Immunity
143
Which type of lymphocyte directly attacks foreign cells or body cells infected by viruses?
T-cells
144
Which type of lymphocyte can differentiate into plasma cells, which produce and secrete antibodies?
B-cells
145
The largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body is found where?
Spleen
146
_____ is the process of removing foreign particles from the lymph and blood.
Phagocytosis
147
A reaction to antigen-antibody coupling in which macrophages and neutrophils are attracted, is referred to as _________.
Chemotaxis
148
_______ is the process of NK cells constantly monitoring normal tissues.
Immunological surveillance
149
______ are small proteins released by activated tissue cells infected with viruses.
Interferons
150
Which chemicals initiate the inflammatory process?
Histamine and Heprin
151
The ______ acts as the body’s “thermostat”.
Hypothalamus
152
Which proteins reset the hypothalamus and cause a rise in body temperature?
Pyrogens
153
What are small organs that are found along the lymphatic vessels?
Lymph nodes
154
______ immunity appears after exposure to an antigen as a consequence of the immune response.
Naturally acquired active
155
When antibodies produced by a mother protect her baby against infections, it is called ______ immunity.
Naturally acquired passive
156
What cellular process requires O2?
Aerobic
157
The RT lung is divided into how many lobes?
3
158
The division of the trachea into the RT and LT primary bronchi occurs where?
The Carina
159
What is the presence of air in the pleural sac and breaks the fluid bond between the pleurae?
Pneumothorax
160
What is treated by a pleural decompression (Needle-D)?
Tension Pneumothorax
161
_______ is the process that involves gas exchange and gas transport.
Respiration
162
What is the physical movement of air into and out of the lungs?
Ventilation
163
What are 3 types of COPD?
Chronic bronchitis, emphysema, asthma
164
______ levels are responsible for regulating respiratory activity under normal conditions.
CO2
165
_____ is the chemical breakdown of food into small organic fragments.
Digestion
166
What are waves of muscular contractions that move along the length of the digestive tract called?
Peristalsis
167
Which nerve controls the stomach and initiates the production of gastric juice?
Vagus (CN X)
168
What condition is caused by abdominal organs sliding into the thoracic cavity the the esophageal hiatus?
Hiatal Hernia
169
The ______ is the second segment of the small intestine and does the bulk of chemical digestion and nutrient absorption.
Jejunum
170
What portion of the small intestine is attached the the pylorus of the stomach?
Duodenum
171
The cystic duct leaves the liver and leads to where?
Gallbladder
172
What are 3 general functions of the liver?
Bile production, metabolic regulation, and hematological regulation
173
What is the most common cause of cirrhosis of the liver?
Chronic alcohol use
174
The human liver is composed of how many lobes?
4
175
What is a common cause of chronic viral hepatitis in the US?
Hep C
176
Carbohydrate digestion begins in which part of the digestive tract?
Mouth
177
What do the parietal cells secrete?
Hydrochloric Acid
178
What is the renal tubule responsible for?
Reabsorbing useful organic molecules, reabsorbing H2O, secreting waste missed by the filtration process
179
Filtration membranes allow the passage of what?
H2O, Ions, glucose
180
In the proximal convoluted tubule, H2O moves out of the tubular fluid by what process?
Osmosis
181
The ascending loop of Henle actively transports what?
All needed ions
182
The hormone erythropoietin (EPO) and the enzyme are in are secreted in response to what?
Hypotension
183
What is the metabolic waste product due to the breakdown of amino acids?
Urea
184
Which hormone, when at lower levels, decreases H2O permeability in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct?
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
185
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAAS) mechanism is the body’s main mechanism for what?
Increasing BP
186
What are the major hormones involved in regulating kidney function?
Aldosterone, Angeotensen II, and ADH
187
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is released by ______ when blood volume and BP are too high and opposes the actions of the RAAS.
Atrial cardiac muscle cells
188
Kidney stones consisting of _____ are common?
Calcium salts
189
The ______ and kidneys play key roles in maintaining the acid-base balance of body fluids.
Lungs
190
If extracellular fluids (ECF) become hypertonic, when compared to the intracellular fluid (ICF), water will move in which direction?
From the cells to the ECF
191
In response to circulating aldosterone, the kidneys _______ sodium ions.
Reabsorb
192
Severe acidosis can cause what effects on the body?
CNS deterioration, peripheral vasodilation, weak cardiac contractions
193
______ occurs when alveolar ventilation is increased, resulting in excessive elimination of CO2.
Respiratory Alkalosis
194
The ______ buffer system depends on the ability of amino acids to respond to changes in pH by accepting or releasing hydrogen ions.
Protein
195
Cells break down organic molecules to obtain energy usually in the form of what?
ATP
196
The synthesis of new organic molecules that involves the formation of new chemical bonds is called what?
Anabolism
197
What does the liver store in case of depleted nutrients in the blood stream?
Glycogen and Triglycerides
198
After the catabolism of glucose, a typical cell has gained ________ molecules?
36 ATP
199
In glycolysis, glucose is broken down into what acid?
Pyruvic
200
What is a lack of O2 that inhibits or stops the Krebs Cycle called?
Hypoxia
201
_______ is the synthesis of flu y from protein or lipid precursor molecules/non-carbohydrate molecules.
Gluconeogenasis
202
Glucose enters the cells via facilitated diffusion, which is largely enhanced by what?
Insulin
203
What is a result of metabolism of certain organic bases in nucleic acids?
Utica Acid
204
What type of diabetic patient requires insulin?
Type I
205
_____ is the result of conductive heat loss due to the air that overlies the surface of an object.
Convection
206
Where are the heat-loss/heat-gain centers located? (Thermostat of the brain)
Hypothalamus
207
What occurs during glycolysis?
1 molecule of glucose is converted into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid
208
The CO2 of cellular respiration is formed during what?
The TCA (Krebs Cycle)
209
Parasympathetic innervation of the penile arteries that release _____ at their synaptic knobs causes the smooth muscle in the arterial walls to relax, resulting in erection.
Nitric Oxide
210
Sickle cell disease, spinal anesthesia, and drugs can cause a prolonged, usually painful, penile erection called what?
Priapism
211
During fertilization, the embryo implants into which layer of the uterus?
Endometrium
212
After which day of development is the fetus considered “full term”?
266
213
The _______ is marked by the detachment of the functional layer of the endometrium.
Menstrul phase
214
What is the most common cause of bleeding during the 3rd trimester?
Placenta previa
215
A zygote contains _______ chromosomes.
46
216
In an ectopic pregnancy, where is the fertilized egg implanted?
Anywhere other than the uterus
217
What is the chemical that causes malformation of a fetus?
Teratogen
218
Rising oxytocin level stimulate what?
Force and frequency of uterine contractions
219
What stage of labor begins with the onset of labor, as the cervix dilates and the fetus begins to slide down the cervical canal?
Dilation
220
By which week of pregnancy may the external reproductive organs be distinguished as either male or female?
12th
221
Fetuses born before _____ weeks have a poor chance of survival.
27
222
At what stage of labor is the "afterbirth" expelled?
Placental
223
The mammary gland cells produce _____, which is ingested by the breastfed newborn during the first 2-3 days of life.
Colostrum
224
What is not a risk factor for preeclampsia?
Hypercalcemia
