Overview Of Genomic Technologies for Clinical Diagnosis Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Briefly explain what PCR does?
A

• Used to amplify a specific region of DNA for downstream applications – each cycle doubles the DNA amount.
• Primers flank the region you want to amplify
Process : Denaturation , Annealing , Extension

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2
Q
  1. Explain how PCR works?
A
  • PCR based assay - PCR followed by capillary electrophoresis to size the PCR product
  • Can be used to detect repeat expansions or other small size changes (up to a few hundred bp).
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3
Q
  1. What is the repeat expansion disease Huntingtons?
A

•Huntington’s disease (severe neurodegenerative disorder) is caused by CAG repeat expansion in the Huntingtin (HTT) gene.

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4
Q
  1. How many copies of the CAG codon in a normal, intermediate and pathogenic situation?
A

Normal < 27 copies
Intermediate 27-35 copies
Pathogenic > 35 copies

•Accumulation of expanded toxic protein in neurons causes cell death.

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5
Q
  1. How does Sanger Sequencing work?
A

•Each of the 4 DNA nucleotides are labelled with a different dye - determine the nucleotide sequence to look for mutations or single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs).

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6
Q
  1. Is sanger sequencing good for sequencing large numbers or samples or only single exons?
A

•Up to 800bp of sequence per reaction so it’s good for sequencing single exons of genes but slow, low-throughput and costly to perform for large numbers of samples

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7
Q
  1. Whats an example of a mutation that causes the disease cutaneous vasculitis ?
A

R1042G mutation in gene C3 segregates with affected individuals and causes disease cutaneous vasculitis

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8
Q
  1. What is FISH used to detect?
A
  • Detect large chromosomal abnormalities e.g. extra chromosomes, large deleted segments and translocations.
  • Cultured cells, metaphase spread - Microscopic (5-10Mb)
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9
Q
  1. How does FISH work?
A
  • Design a fluorescent probe to the chromosomal region of interest, denature target DNA and mix probe with it until hybridisation occurs (probe binds to target causing it to fluoresce/light up).
  • Can use it for the whole karyotype or a specific chromosome.
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10
Q
  1. What is Array CGH (comparative genomic hybridisation) used to detect?
A

• For detection of sub-microscopic chromosomal abnormalities as well as large chromosomal abnormalities.

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11
Q
  1. How does Array CGH work?

* GO through this properly*

A
  • The patient DNA is labelled green and control DNA is labelled red. They are mixed and allowed to hybridise to an array before scanning to produce a patient array comparative genomic hybridisation profile.
  • Increased green signal over a chromosomal segment in the patient DNA indicates a gain in the patient sample chromosomes that is not present in the parents.
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12
Q
  1. What is a MLPA (Multiplex ligation-dependent probe amplification) used to detect?
A

• Variation of PCR that permits amplification of multiple targets – used to detect abnormal copy numbers at specific chromosomal locations (relative ploidy) and sub-microscopic (small) gene deletions/partial gene deletions.

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13
Q
  1. How does an MLPA work?
A

• Probes consist of two oligonucleotides that recognize adjacent target sites on the DNA – one oligonucleotide is recognised by the forward primer and the other is recognised by the reverse primer.
o When both oligonucleotides hybridize to their respective targets - they can be ligated into a complete probe.
• Perform fragment analysis (capillary electrophoresis) of MLPA product.
• The signal strengths of the probes are compared with those obtained from a reference DNA sample known to have two copies of the chromosome.

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14
Q
  1. What has Sanger Sequencing been replaced by?
A

Next Generation Sequencing

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15
Q
  1. Which techniques are used in next gen sequencing?
A
  • Solexa sequencing-by-synthesis (SBS) developed end of 2005

* Sequencing market is now dominated by Illumina SBS sequencing

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16
Q
  1. Whats the major advantage of next generation sequencing?
A

Wider range of tests in a shorter time for less money (through-put jumped 10 orders of magnitude).

17
Q
  1. One current strategy for Next Gen sequencing is “Disease Panel Tests “ how do these works?
A

o Sequences are enriched for known disease genes relevant to the phenotype and expanded to include new genes as they are published.
o Potentially pathogenic variants confirmed by Sanger sequencing.

18
Q
  1. What is useful about exome sequencing?
A
  • Often we are only interested in the exome because most pathogenic mutations (80%) are usually protein coding and it is more efficient to only sequence the bits we are interested in, rather than the entire genome.
  • Costs £1,000 for a genome, but only £200-£300 for an exome
19
Q
  1. How does exome sequencing work?
A

• Target enrichment allows us to capture specific target regions:
o RNA baits and magnetic beads tagged with biotin (or other markers) that bind to the baits are used to capture specific regions of interest.
o Potential to capture several Mb genomic regions (typically 30-60 Mb)

20
Q
  1. What is the future for whole genome sequencing?
A

• WGS will become commonplace in diagnostic genetics in the future but not all tests will automatically move to whole genome sequencing because some diseases are more suitable to other methods:

21
Q
  1. Which diseases may not be suitable for whole genome sequencing -> What would it be preferable to use ?
A

o Panels/single gene tests may still be more suitable for some diseases, e.g. cystic fibrosis
o Capillary-based methods: Repeat expansions, MLPA, family mutation confirmation Sanger sequencing
o Array-CGH: large sized chromosomal aberrations

22
Q
  1. Is whole genome sequencing easy/quick?
A

• Data generation and processing are relatively automated/quick but data interpretation of clinical genomes currently has a substantial manual component (most tricky part).

23
Q
  1. How many variants are there is a coded exome and in a whole human genome?
A

20,000 variants per coding genes ‘exome’ and 3 million variants in a whole human genome.

24
Q
  1. What ethical considerations need to be considered when exome and genome sequencing?
A

o Modified patient consent process
o Data analysis pathways – inspect relevant genes first
o Strategy for reporting ‘incidental’ findings

25
Q
  1. What is the NHS diagnostics laboratory?
A

• Accredited laboratory with scientific, technical and administrative staff that provides clinical/laboratory diagnosis for genetic disorders and provides genetic advice for sample referrals/results.

26
Q
  1. What is the main role of the NHS diagnostics laboratory?
A

help consultants reach a genetic diagnosis s to help guide treatment and clinical management
•Perform specific tests with proven :
-clinical validity (how well the test predicts the phenotype) and
-clinical utility (how the test adds to the management of the patient).

27
Q
  1. Where could you find up to date in depth knowledge of genetic diseases
A

•UKGTN (UK genetic testing network)-approved

28
Q
  1. What 4 main uses are there of the NHS diagnostic laboratory?
A

o Diagnostic: Diagnosis, Management and Treatment and Interpretation of pathogenicity
o Predictive: Life choices, management
o Carrier (recessive): Life choices, management
o Informed consent: Genetic counselling and Implications for other family members

29
Q
  1. Are all diagnostic testing referrals via Regional Genetics Centres?
A

Yes

30
Q
  1. Who does the patient have close contact with during diagnostic testing?
A

• Close liaison with nurse specialists, genetic counsellors, clinicians during testing - follow up at clinics, nurse led clinics, nurse telephone clinics as required.

31
Q
  1. What can be found during diagnostic testing?
A

pathogenic mutations, normal variants (polymorphism) and novel variants (investigation required for significance).

32
Q
  1. How do we establish if a mutation is pathogenic?
A
  • Mode of inheritance - Request samples from family members.
  • Locus-specific databases of published and unpublished data
  • Missense/intronic mutation: In-silico tools for missense and splicing mutations
  • Conservative approach to reporting novel mutations of uncertain pathogenicity - ‘Uncertain significance’ or ‘Likely to be pathogenic’
33
Q
  1. What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2 (CMT2)
A

o Degeneration of the long nerves in legs and arms leading to muscle wasting and sensory defects.
o Onset usually in childhood

34
Q
  1. Which mutation causes Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2 (CMT2)
A

•Mitofusin 2 (MFN2)

35
Q
  1. Case study:
    • Two siblings with very severe early-onset CMT2 and parents unaffected.
    • NGS: Gene sequenced and found to be homozygous for c.647T>C p.(Phe216Ser).
    • Parents sequenced, expected them to both be heterozygous but the father was homozygous TT.

Explain why this could be?

A

o Could be due to non-mendelian inheritance, father not the father, paternal exon deletion etc.

36
Q
  1. Which exon deletions were found in both father and son after MLPA?
A
  • MLPA measures dosage of all MFN2 exons and found that the child and father carry MFN2 exons 7-8 deletions.
  • Breakpoint sequencing: Deletion of 1,476 bp from 700 bp 3’ of ex 6 to 2.1kb 5’ of ex 9
37
Q
  1. What is the use of genomic england (a 100,000 genome project)
A

Bring direct benefit of genetics to patients, enable new scientific discovery and medical insights, create an ethical and transparent programme based on consent and patient engagement and personalised medicine.

38
Q
  1. How do healthcare professionals interpret genomic testing clinically?
A
  • ‘Experts’ develop lists of possible genes than can cause a specific disease - are reviewed by the community.
  • Diseases have specific sets of virtual gene panels as a first port-of-call to look for pathogenic mutations so we can focus on specific genes of the patient’s genome we think are important
39
Q
  1. • Classification of mutations by genomics England - variants within virtual panel divided into three tiers- Explain these?
A

o Tier 1 variants: Known pathogenic or Protein truncating.
o Tier 2 variants: Protein altering (missense) or Intronic (splice site).
o Tier 3 variants: Loss-of-function variants in genes not on the disease gene panel.