OVERVIEW

Question 1

Define Lordosis

Answer 1

Increased anterior lumbar curve from neutral position

Question 2

Define Kyphosis

Answer 2

Increased posterior thoracic curve from neutral

Question 3

Define Flat Back

Answer 3

Decreased anterior lumbar curve

Question 4

Define Sway Back

Answer 4

Decreased anterior lumbar curve and increased posterior thoracic curve from neutral

Question 5

What are some muscle imbalances associated with Kyphosis-lordosis?

Answer 5

1 (Shortened : Hip Flexors ; Lengthened : Hip Extensors)
2 (Shortened : Lumbar Extensors ; Lengthened : External Obliques)
3 (Shortened : Anterior chest/shoulders ; Lengthened : Hip Extensors)
4 (Shortened : Latissimus Dorsi ; Lengthened : Scapular Stabilizers)
5 (Shortened : Neck Extensors ; Lengthened : Neck Flexors)

Question 6

What are some muscle imbalances associated with Sway-Back?

Answer 6

1 (Shortened : Hamstrings ; Lengthened : Iliacus/psoas major ((HIP)) )
2 (Shortened : Upper fibers of posterior obliques ; Lengthened : Rectus femoris)
3 (Shortened : Lumbar extensors ; Lengthened : External Oblique )

Question 7

What are some muscle imbalances associated with Flat Back?

Answer 7

1 (Shortened : Rectus Abdominis ; Lengthened : Hip Extensors)
2 (Shortened : Upper-back extensors ; Lengthened : Internal Obliques)
3 (Shortened : Neck Extensors; Lengthened : Lumbar Extensors)
4 (Shortened : Ankle Plantar Flexors ; Lengthened : Neck Flexors)

Question 8

How does Ankle Pronation effect the rest of the leg?

Answer 8

Causes the knee and leg to internally rotate

Question 9

How does Ankle Supination effect the rest of the leg?

Answer 9

Causes the knee and leg to externally rotate

Question 10

In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires administered?

Answer 10

The investigation stage occurs between the rapport stage and planning stage, and is typically when a trainer will ask a client to fill out a health-history or lifestyle questionnaire.

Question 11

Dan is a new client whom you are meeting with for the first time today. He will most likely be evaluating you as a trainer through both your verbal and non-verbal communication. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Dan?

Answer 11

When you are first meeting a client and verbal and non-verbal communication are extremely important to consider, you are in the rapport stage.

Question 12

Kristin is in for her second session and you are conducting fitness assessments. While you are checking her body fat percentage you ask her about types of exercise she prefers to do. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kristin?

Answer 12

This is an example of gathering information, which you should do before the planning stage. This is part of the investigation stage.

Question 13

What can submaximal cycle ergometer testing predict?

Answer 13

Submax cycle ergometer testing is a form of graded exercise test and not able to assess body composition, height, or weight. It is typically used to predict values of physiological variables at maximal exercise, like VO2max. VO2max is the greatest amount of oxygen an individual can consume per minute.

Question 14

According to the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model, what step in the training process best follows the testing of resting measures such as heart rate and blood pressure?

Answer 14

It is considered best to test a client’s static posture after taking resting measures but before getting into training.

Question 15

In which stage of the Theoretical Model of Behavior Change is a client ready to adopt and live a healthy lifestyle?

Answer 15

A person in the preparation phase may be somewhat sporadic in their activity level, but is ready to make the change to a healthy lifestyle.

Question 16

Your client tells you that he understands that his family has a history of heart disease and that being overweight can increase his risk for such conditions. He is still wary of beginning any kind of exercise program and says that he has never had any weight loss success in the past. According to the Theoretical Model of Behavioral Change, what stage of change is your client in?

Answer 16

In the precontemplation phase people are beginning to understand the implications of being inactive, but are not quite ready to commit to a change yet.

Question 17

A 55 year old sedentary man, with a family history of smoking and diabetes mellitus comes to your studio, looking for a personal trainer. However, he states during his health history evaluation that he has no signs or symptoms of cardiovascular disease. Which risk category for cardiovascular disease would he fall under?

Answer 17

Given the individual has 2 or more risk factors for cardiovascular disease, but is asymptomatic with no past history of cardiovascular disease, he is placed in the moderate category. If an individual has less than 2 risk factors they will be placed in the low risk category. If they are symptomatic or have a history of cardiovascular disease they are placed in the high category. The very high category does not exist.

Question 18

During initial assessments, a client’s pulse can be manually taken at all of the following locations except:

a. Radial artery
b. Carotid artery
c. Dorsalis pedis
d. Pulmonary artery

Answer 18

The pulmonary artery is a deep artery and cannot be palpated manually. The other three are superficial and can thus be felt and measured by the hands.

Question 19

Which method of feedback on exercise difficulty should you discuss with your client during the initial interview?

a. The Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale
b. The Naughton Protocol
c. The Duke Nomogram
d. The Karvonen Method

Answer 19

The only method of feedback listed is the Borg scale. This scale is used to measure the perceived difficulty of exercises and can help gauge relative intensity of movements. This is important to cover with a client during the initial interview because it is an informative feedback tool. The Naughton protocol is designed for GXT performance. The Duke Nomogram is a normative rating scale for physiological parameters that predicts morbidity. The Karvonen method is a method of predicting max heart rate based on age.

Question 20

What Intensity & rep range should someone looking to improve muscular endurance be at?

Answer 20

60-70% 1-RM; 8-15 Reps; Less than 30 seconds of rest

Question 21

What Intensity & rep range should someone looking to improve muscular strength be at?

Answer 21

80-90% 1-RM; 6 or Less Reps; 2-5 Mins of Rest

Question 22

What Intensity & rep range should someone looking to improve muscular hypertrophy be at?

Answer 22

70-80% 1-RM; 6-12 Reps; 30-90 Seconds of rest

Question 23

What Intensity should & rep range someone looking to improve muscular power be at?

Answer 23

> 90% 1-RM; 1-2 Reps for Single effort events; 3-5 for Multiple Effort events; and rest 2-5 Minutes

Question 24

How often should beginners perform resistance training a week?

Answer 24

2-3 Sessions a Week

Question 25

How often should Intermediate level lifters perform resistance training a week?

Answer 25

3-4 Sessions a Week

Question 26

How often should advanced level lifters perform resistance training a week?

Answer 26

4-7 Sessions a Week

Question 27

A 38 year old male client wants to improve his body composition, and comes to you for assistance. He works 60 hours a week in a high stress job and is also a father of a young baby. Due to this, the client has limited availability for training and can only meet twice per week with you to train. Which of the following is most helpful in achieving his goals for you prescribe?

a. Two days per week of aerobic training
b. Two days of circuit resistance training
c. Two days of resistance training with low reps and high workloads
d. One day of aerobic training, and one day of resistance training with heavy loads

Answer 27

Training with heavy or high work-loads and low reps will primarily help increase muscular strength, and not facilitate much change in body composition. Similarly, aerobic training can help increase total daily energy expenditure making fat loss easier, but it is not the best choice given it does not promote an improvement in body composition through increasing fat free mass. Circuit training both promotes hypertrophy and increases total daily energy expenditure, helping improve body composition in multiple ways and making it the best choice.

Question 28

A 23 year old female client wants to begin a resistance training program with you to optimize her health and wellbeing, while building muscle. Which intensity prescription should you focus on?

a. 30-50% 1RM
b. 50-60% 1RM
c. 60-70% 1RM
d. 70-80% 1RM

Answer 28

According to prescription guidelines, this is the ideal range for this type of client to build muscle and is the best of the options listed. The client being female does not impact prescription recommendations.

Question 29

Question:

More than ____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first six months.

Answer 29

More than 50% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first six months.

Question 30

Which of the following goals BEST represents the statement “I want to bicep curl 10lb dumbbells for 10 repetitions by April”?
SMART goal or Product goal

Answer 30

While a process goal is something a client does, such as completing a certain number of workouts per week, a product goal is something they achieve, like weight loss or a resistance lifted on a strength-training machine. A client who wants to perform a certain number of biceps curls using a specific amount of weight is working toward a product goal.

Question 31

A personal trainer who is seeking clarification from a client by trying to restate the main points and feelings in a client’s communication is using which method of effective listening?

Answer 31

Reflecting : The personal trainer can use the listening technique of reflecting to demonstrate understanding or seek clarification by trying to restate the main points and feelings in the client’s communication. The client can correct a conclusion if it is wrong, or explore the reflection in more depth if it is correct. Reflections should help to move the conversation in productive directions as well as indicate effective listening.

Question 32

Motivational interviewing is most commonly done during which stage of the client-trainer relationship?

Answer 32

Planning : Motivational interviewing refers to a method of speaking with people in a way that motivates them to make a decision to change their behavior. Motivational interviewing may help clients feel the need to become more active and make a decision to start exercising.

Question 33

Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem?

Answer 33

Health belief model : The health belief model predicts that people will engage in a health behavior (e.g., exercise) based on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem and the pros and cons of adopting the behavior.

Question 34

A prospective client tells you that he has been going for 2-mile walks a couple of times each week for the past two months, and that he joined the gym because he is finally ready to adopt a more structured workout regimen. What is this individual’s stage of change?

Answer 34

Preparation : The preparation stage is marked by some physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt an activity program. Activity during the preparation stage may be a sporadic walk, or even a periodic visit to the gym, but it is inconsistent. People in the preparation stage are ready to adopt and live an active lifestyle.

Question 35

What is the initial onboarding process? What is the order of assessments?

Answer 35

First, Lifestyle and Health History Information |
Second, Static Postural Analysis |
Third, Movement Screens

Question 36

What is ankle pronation?

Answer 36

a flattening of the foot arch causing internal rotation of the knee

Question 37

What is ankle supination?

Answer 37

a overarching of the foot arch causing a external rotation of the knee

Question 38

What is the hip adduction deviation?

Answer 38

When a hip is tilted inward, hence making the hip adducted toward the body

Question 39

Anterior pelvic tilting is associated with what tight muscles?

Answer 39

Hip Flexors, Erector spinae

Question 40

Posterior pelvic tilting is associated with what tight muscles?

Answer 40

Abs, Hamstring

Question 41

Anterior pelvic tilting is associated with what lengthened muscles?

Answer 41

Abs, Hamstring

Question 42

Posterior pelvic tilting is associated with what lengthened muscles?

Answer 42

Hip Flexors, Erector spinae

Question 43

Static balance exercises often involve _______________.

Answer 43

Narrowing the base of support

Why?

To work on static balance with a client or class participant, the fitness professional can make the individual’s base of support narrower to stimulate adaptation to the imposed demand. Widening the base of support lessens the balance challenge.

Question 44

What are the four types of tissue found in the human body?

Answer 44

The four primary types of tissue are muscular, nervous, connective, and epithelial.

Question 45

When comparing the medial epicondyle of the humerus to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus, which of the following statements is correct?

Answer 45

The medial epicondyle is more toward the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyle

Why?

The term “medial” means “toward the midline of the body,” while the term “lateral” means “away from the midline of the body.”

Question 46

When looking to improve joint stability, open-chain exercises should be performed, True or False?

Answer 46

FALSE

Why?

In an open-chain exercise, the end of the chain farthest from the body is free, such as in a seated leg extension. Open-chain exercises tend to involve more shearing forces at the joints, while closed-chain exercises tend to emphasize compression of joints, which helps stabilize the joints. Additionally, closed-chain exercises involve more muscles and joints than open-chain exercise, which leads to better neuromuscular coordination and overall stability at the joints.

Question 47

An individual is using a resistance band to perform very short-duration (less than 2 seconds per stretch) hamstring stretches in sets of eight repetitions. What flexibility-training technique is this person using?

Answer 47

Active isolated stretching

Why?

Active isolated stretching follows a design similar to a traditional strength-training workout. Instead of holding stretches for 15 to 30 seconds at a point of resistance (i.e., mild discomfort), stretches are never held for more than two seconds. The stretch is then released, the body segment returned to the starting position, and the stretch is repeated for several repetitions.

Question 48

Barring structural differences in the skeletal system, a pronated ankle ________________.

Answer 48

Forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femur

Why?

Ankle pronation forces internal rotation at the knee and places additional stresses on some knee ligaments and the integrity of the joint itself. Additionally, as pronation tends to move the calcaneus into eversion, this may actually lift the outside of the heel slightly off the ground (moving the ankle into plantarflexion). In turn, this may tighten the calf muscles and potentially limit ankle dorsiflexion.

Question 49

How does Collagen relate to flexibility?

Answer 49

Collagen is made up of proteins that limit motion and resist stretch.

Why?

Structures containing large amounts of collagen tend to limit motion and resist stretch. Thus, collagen fibers are the main constituents of tissues such as ligaments and tendons that are subjected to a pulling force. Regarding the other options, flexibility decreases with aging, females are generally more flexible than males, and scar tissue limits flexibility.

Question 50

The coupling relationship between tight __________ and __________ is defined as the lower-cross syndrome.

Answer 50

Hip flexors; erector spinae

Why?

Tight or overdominant hip flexors are generally coupled with tight erector spinae muscles, producing an anterior pelvic tilt. This coupling relationship between tight hip flexors and erector spinae is defined as the lower-cross syndrome. A posterior pelvic tilt is caused by tightness in the rectus abdominis and hamstrings.

Question 51

While performing the bend and lift screen on a new client you observe that the downward (eccentric) movement is initiated at the knees. What would you suspect is causing the compensation?

Answer 51

Quadriceps and hip flexor dominance

Why?

Movement initiated at the knees may indicate quadriceps and hip flexor dominance, as well as insufficient activation of the gluteus group.

Question 52

During the hurdle step screen, you observe that the client exhibits an anterior pelvic tilt with a forward torso lean. What muscles should you suspect of being underactive or weak?

Answer 52

Rectus abdominis and hip extensors

Why?

If a client exhibits an anterior tilt with a forward torso lean, he or she likely has overactive or tight stance-leg hip flexors and underactive or weak rectus abdominis and hip extensors.

Question 53

During the Thomas Test, you observe that when the client holds the back and sacrum flat, the back of the lowered thigh touches the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscle(s) should you suspect of being tight?

Answer 53

Rectus femoris

Why?

When a client is unable to flex the knee to 80 degrees, a personal trainer should suspect tightness in the rectus femoris, which does not allow the knee to bend.

Question 54

In your notes regarding a client performing the external and internal shoulder rotation tests, you recorded that the client displayed potential tightness in the infraspinatus and teres minor. What might you have observed during the test that led to that conclusion?

Answer 54

Client displayed inability to internally rotate the forearm 70 degrees toward the mat

Why?

If a client displays an inability to internally rotate the forearm 70 degrees, or shows discrepancies between the limbs, there are two possible reasons: potential tightness in the lateral rotators of the arm (i.e., infraspinatus and teres minor) or the joint capsule and ligaments may be tight and limit rotation.

Question 55

Apley’s scratch test is usually performed in conjunction with which of the following pairs of tests?

Answer 55

Shoulder flexion-extension test and internal-external rotation test of the humerus

Why?

Apley’s scratch test involves multiple and simultaneous movements of the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral joints in all three planes. This represents a challenge in evaluating shoulder movement and identifying movement limitations. To identify the source of the limitation, trainers can first perform various isolated movements in single planes to locate potentially problematic movements. Consequently, the scratch test is completed in conjunction with the shoulder flexion-extension test and the internal-external rotation test of the humerus.

Question 56

In which stage of the Theoretical Model of Behavior Change is a client ready to adopt and live a healthy lifestyle?

a. Contemplation
b. Preparation
c. Precontemplation
d. Action

Answer 56

B. Preparation

A person in the preparation phase may be somewhat sporadic in their activity level, but is ready to make the change to a healthy lifestyle.

Question 57

In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires administered?

a. Rapport Stage
b. Investigation Stage
c. Planning Stage
d. Action Stage

Answer 57

B. Investigation

The investigation stage occurs between the rapport stage and planning stage, and is typically when a trainer will ask a client to fill out a health-history or lifestyle questionnaire.

Question 58

During initial assessments, a client’s pulse can be manually taken at all of the following locations except:

a. Radial artery
b. Carotid artery
c. Dorsalis pedis
d. Pulmonary artery

Answer 58

d. Pulmonary artery

The pulmonary artery is a deep artery and cannot be palpated manually. The other three are superficial and can thus be felt and measured by the hands.

Question 59

A 23 year old female client wants to begin a resistance training program with you to optimize her health and wellbeing, while building muscle. Which intensity prescription should you focus on?

a. 30-50% 1RM
b. 50-60% 1RM
c. 60-70% 1RM
d. 70-80% 1RM

Answer 59

d. 70-80% 1RM

According to prescription guidelines, this is the ideal range for this type of client to build muscle and is the best of the options listed. The client being female does not impact prescription recommendations.

Question 60

How long should your client rest between sets when training for muscular endurance?

a. under 30 seconds
b. 30-90 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. It doesn’t matter.

Answer 60

A

According to prescription guidelines, rest periods for muscular endurance training programs should be kept under 30 seconds.

Question 61

Which of the following is not a method of managing risk?

a. Avoidance
b. Transfer
c. Reduction
d. Incrementing

Answer 61

D

Incrementing is not a method of managing risk. The other three options are all strategies for managing risk and are appropriate for different situations. Avoiding risk means minimizing or removing it from an environment. This can easily be done by purchasing and maintaining high quality equipment for your facility, and ensuring clients are always supervised when exercising. Risk reduction typically reduces the frequency of losses and having regular safety inspections can facilitate this. Transferring risk means to shift pure risk from one group (typically yourself) to another (typically an insurance company).

Question 62

What is an umbrella liability policy?

a. A policy that covers multiple professional practices
b. A policy that covers multiple people
c. A policy that covers multiple types of insurances
d. A standard liability policy

Answer 62

C. A policy that covers multiples types of insurances

This is the definition of an umbrella liability policy. The other options are not the definition. Umbrella policies can cover numerous things, however both body and property insurance are commonly included in umbrella plans for personal trainers. If a client injures themselves performing a heavy barbell back squat by suddenly dropping the bar, they will likely incur bodily damage and potentially damage the barbell, the floor of your facility or the rack.

Question 63

Define Gross Negliegence

Answer 63

This is a willful disregard for the health and safety of others