Overview Flashcards

1
Q

A technician overhears a systems administrator mention the term IOPS. To which of the following operating system functions would the term BEST apply?
A- Disk Management
B- Process Management
C- Application Management
D- Service Management

A

A-
The term “IOPS” (Input/Output Operations Per Second) is typically associated with disk management. It refers to the measurement of the number of input and output operations that a storage device (such as a hard disk drive or solid-state drive) can perform in one second. Understanding IOPS is essential for assessing the performance and efficiency of storage devices and ensuring that they can handle the required workload for specific applications and processes.

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2
Q

Which of the following is the BEST option for a developer to use when storing the months of a year and when performance is a key consideration?
A- Array
B- Vector
C- List
D- String

A

A- Array
Container can be used as a term for a special type of identifier that can reference multiple values (or elements). One example of a container construct is a simple array. For example, say that you want your program to store a list of user names who have logged on to the computer in the last 24 hours. You would declare the array with the data type of the values it will contain and the number of elements or “rows” that the array can contain:
declare Logons(9) as string
One of the limitations of the array container type is that it cannot be resized. Most programming languages support container types called vectors that can grow or shrink in size as elements are added or removed

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3
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely use an ARM processor?
A- Tablet
B- Laptop
C- Workstation
D- Server

A

A- Tablet
ARM processors are commonly used in tablets and smartphones due to their power efficiency and suitability for mobile devices. They are designed to consume less energy while providing good performance, making them ideal for portable devices like tablets. Laptops, workstations, and servers, on the other hand, often use different types of processors, such as x86 processors, which are better suited for higher performance computing tasks.

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4
Q

Which of the following would indicate the FASTEST processor speed?
A- 3.6 GHz
B- 3.6 MHz
C- 3.6 Mbps
D- 3.6 Gbps

A

A- 3.6 GHz
Among the options provided, “3.6GHz” indicates the fastest processor speed. The unit “GHz” stands for gigahertz, which represents one billion cycles per second. Higher gigahertz values indicate a faster processor speed, meaning it can handle more instructions and computations in a given amount of time.

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5
Q

A gaming console needs to allow for inbound connectivity on a home network to facilitate chat functions. Which of the following devices is a user MOST likely to configure to allow this?
A- Cable modem
B- Wireless Router
C- Access point
D- Network switch

A

B- Wireless router
A user is most likely to configure a wireless router to allow inbound connectivity for a gaming console’s chat functions on a home network. Wireless routers are equipped with Network Address Translation (NAT) capabilities, which allow devices connected to the local network to communicate with the internet while also providing a level of security by hiding their private IP addresses. By configuring the wireless router to allow inbound connections for the gaming console, the chat functions can work smoothly by allowing external communication to reach the console within the home network.

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6
Q

The computer language that is closest to machine code is:
A- query language
B- scripting language
C- markup language
D- assembly language

A

D- assembly language
Assembly language is the computer language that is closest to machine code. It is a low-level programming language that uses mnemonics and symbols to represent the individual machine instructions of a specific computer architecture. Each assembly language instruction directly corresponds to a machine instruction, making it easier for programmers to write code that interacts directly with the hardware and perform specific tasks at a low level. Although assembly language is more human-readable compared to machine code, it is still closely tied to the underlying hardware and provides a level of abstraction above machine code.

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7
Q

Employee information is stored in a database. Which of the following BEST describes where all of an employee’s information is stored?
A- Record
B- Report
C- Column
D- Procedure

A

A- Record
In a database, all of an employee’s information is typically stored in a “record.” A record is a collection of related data fields that are grouped together to represent a single entity, in this case, an individual employee. Each record in the database would contain various data fields, such as the employee’s name, ID, position, department, and other relevant information.

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8
Q

Which of the following filesystems would a Linux computer MOST likely use?
A- HFS
B- NTFS
C- FAT32
D- ext4

A

D- ext4
A Linux computer would most likely use the ext4 (fourth extended filesystem) filesystem. ext4 is the default and widely used filesystem for Linux distributions. It is a journaling filesystem that provides improved performance, scalability, and reliability over its predecessor, ext3. It offers features suitable for modern Linux systems and is well-supported across various distributions, making it the preferred choice for most Linux installations.

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9
Q

A business would like to create an employee portal that employees will have access to when they are at work. The employees will not be able to connect to the portal from home without a VPN connection. Which of the following types of application does this describe?
A- Local application
B- Intranet application
C- Extranet application
D- Internet application

A

B- Intranet application
An intranet application is a type of application that is accessible within a private network, typically within an organization or company. In this scenario, the employee portal is only accessible to employees when they are at work because it is hosted on the company’s intranet. It is not accessible from outside the company’s network, meaning employees cannot connect to it from home without a VPN (Virtual Private Network) connection.

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10
Q

Which of the following storage types is MOST vulnerable to magnetic damage?
A- Flash
B- Optical
C- SSD
D- HDD

A

D-HDD
HDD stands for Hard Disk Drive, and it is the storage type that is most vulnerable to magnetic damage. HDDs use magnetic storage to store data on spinning disks, and exposure to strong magnetic fields can corrupt or erase the data stored on them.

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11
Q

When developing a game, a developer creates a boss object that has the ability to jump. Which of the following programming concepts does jump represent?
A- Method
B- Object
C- Property
D- Attribute

A

A- Method
In programming, a method is a block of code that defines a specific behavior or action that an object can perform. It encapsulates a sequence of instructions to carry out a particular task. In this case, when the developer creates a boss object with the ability to jump, they are defining a method that allows the boss object to execute the action of jumping within the game. This method would contain the necessary logic and instructions to make the boss object perform the jump action whenever it is triggered or called in the game’s code.

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12
Q

Concerned with vulnerabilities on a home network, an administrator replaces the wireless router with a recently released new device. After configuring the new device utilizing the old SSID and key, some light switches are no longer communicating. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A- The light switches do no support WPA2
B- The router is operating on a different channel
C- The key does not meet password complexity requirements
D- The SSID in not being broadcasted

A

B- The router is operating on a different channel
When the administrator replaced the wireless router with a new device, it’s possible that the new router is set to operate on a different Wi-Fi channel than the old one. This change in the Wi-Fi channel could lead to communication issues between the light switches and the router, causing them to no longer communicate properly. Adjusting the new router to operate on the same channel as the old one should resolve this problem.

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13
Q

A company is concerned with ensuring its databases are highly available. Which of the following can be used to increase database availability?
A- Backups
B- Prioritization
C- Indexes
D- Failover

A

D- Failover
Failover is a technique used to increase database availability. It involves the automatic switching of operations to a redundant or standby system in case the primary system fails. This ensures continuity of service and minimizes downtime.

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14
Q

A user revisits a website and receives a message that the site may not be secure. The user is prompted to click a link to continue to the site. Which of the following would MOST likely identify the issue?
A- Checking proxy settings
B- Checking the caching is enabled
C- Checking browser add-ons
D- Checking certificate validity

A

D- Checking certificate validity
Receiving a message that a website may not be secure and being prompted to click a link to continue is often related to an issue with the website’s SSL/TLS certificate. Checking the certificate validity would be the most likely step to identify and address the security concern in this situation.

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15
Q

A user wants to ensure port 3389 is open for remote desktop on a PC. Which of the following describes where the user should verify the port is open?
A- Antivirus
B- Anti-malware
C- Device manager
D- Host firewall

A

D- Host firewall
To verify that port 3389 is open for remote desktop on a PC, the user should check the host firewall settings. The host firewall controls incoming and outgoing network traffic on a computer, and it’s the most relevant place to check and configure port openings for services like Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) on a Windows PC.

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16
Q

A technician replaces the video card in a user’s PC. The user reports the resolution on the display seems very low, but the operating system will not let the user adjust it any higher. Which of the following steps would MOST likely fix this problem?
A- Replace the user’s display
B- Update the PC’s operating system
C- Replace the video cable
D- Install new video drivers

A

D- Install new video drivers
If the resolution on the display seems very low and the operating system is not allowing the user to adjust it higher after replacing the video card, the most likely solution is to install new video drivers. Sometimes, the default drivers provided by the operating system may not fully support the capabilities of the new video card. Installing updated drivers specific to the new video card can resolve this issue and provide the correct display resolution options.

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17
Q

A WPA2 enterprise wireless network has been subject to several attacks within the last month. Which of the following would be the BEST option to improve the security of the network?
A- Change the SSID
B- Change the default password
C- Change the WEP security
D- Create a guest network

A

D- Create a guest network
Creating a guest network segregates the corporate network and does not allow for guest devices to see the corporate resources

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18
Q

The marketing department contacts the web development team and states that they are receiving inconsistent values in a newly launched form. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A- Private browsing is being used by some clients visiting the site
B- Client-side scripting has been deactivated on some clients visiting the site
C- Legacy browsers that do not support scripting are being used by some clients
D- Server-side scripting has been deactivated by the server administrator

A

B- Client-side scripting has been deactivated on some clients visiting the site
If the marketing department is receiving inconsistent values in a newly launched form, the most likely problem is that client-side scripting has been deactivated on some clients visiting the site. Client-side scripting, which is typically done using JavaScript, is responsible for handling form validation and interaction on the user’s device. If it is disabled, the form may not function correctly, leading to inconsistent results when users submit data.

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19
Q

The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has received several emails that are missing attachments. Which of the following concerns is the CEO experiencing?
A- Eavesdropping
B- Email service outage
C- Man-in-the-middle
D- Denial-of-service

A

C- Man-in-the-middle
man-in-the-middle attack can intercept the messages between two users, and inject new ones, in this case, the ones that don’t have the attachment.

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20
Q

Which of the following would allow an application to run automatically when a computer is started?
A- Processes
B- Drivers
C- Tasks
D- Journaling
E- Services

A

E- Services
Services are background processes that run automatically when a computer starts up. They are designed to perform various tasks and provide functionalities for the operating system and other applications without requiring user intervention. By configuring an application to run as a service, it will start automatically when the computer boots up.

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21
Q

An organization exports an inventory database nightly. This is an example of:
A- database query
B- database report
C- database backup
D- database import

A

C- database backup
The organization exports their inventory database nightly, which means they are creating a copy of the database to be stored separately from the main database. This copy serves as a backup, ensuring that in case of any data loss or corruption in the main database, they can restore the information from the exported copy.

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22
Q

Which of the following language types would a web developer MOST likely use to create a website?
A- Interpreted
B- Query
C- Compiled
D- Assembly

A

A- Interpreted
A web developer would MOST likely use an interpreted language to create a website.

An interpreted language is a programming language such as javascript, that is executed line-by-line by an interpreter at runtime, rather than being compiled into machine code beforehand. When a web developer writes code in an interpreted language, the code is translated and executed directly by the web browser or server as it is encountered, allowing for more immediate feedback during development.

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23
Q

Which of the following is the closest to machine language?
A- Scripted languages
B- Compiled languages
C- Query languages
D- Assembly languages

A

D- Assembly languages
Assembly language is the closest to machine language among the options provided.

Machine language is the lowest-level programming language that directly represents the instructions executed by a computer’s central processing unit (CPU). Machine language instructions are written in binary code, which consists of sequences of 1s and 0s representing specific CPU operations.

Assembly language is a low-level programming language that is closely related to machine language. It uses mnemonics and symbols to represent the individual machine language instructions. Each mnemonic corresponds to a specific machine language instruction, and the assembly code is eventually translated into machine code through an assembler.

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24
Q

A function is BEST used for enabling programs to:
A- hold a list of numbers
B- be divided into reusable components
C- define needed constant values
D- define variables to hold different values

A

B- be divided into reusable components
A function is BEST used for enabling programs to be divided into reusable components.

In programming, a function is a named block of code that performs a specific task or a set of related tasks. It allows programmers to break down a larger program into smaller, manageable, and reusable parts, known as functions. These functions can be called and executed whenever needed, reducing code duplication and improving the program’s organization and maintainability.

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25
Q

A company will begin to allow staff to work from home by means of formal request. Which of the following is the BEST way for the company to document this change?
A- Written procedure
B- Written policy
C- Written email
D- Written memo

A

B- Written policy
A written policy is a formal document that outlines the rules, guidelines, and procedures related to a specific decision or change within the company. In this case, a written policy would clearly state the conditions, requirements, and expectations for staff members who wish to work from home. It provides a comprehensive and standardized approach for employees and management to follow, ensuring consistency and clarity throughout the organization.

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26
Q

A technician is concerned that sensitive data transmitted over the Internet can be intercepted and viewed during a MITM attack. Which of the following should the technician enable to reduce the risk?
A- DLP
B- ACL
C- TLS
D- IPS

A

C- TLS
To reduce the risk of sensitive data being intercepted and viewed during a Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack, the technician should enable TLS (Transport Layer Security).
TLS is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over a computer network, typically the Internet. It ensures that data transmitted between the client (e.g., a web browser) and the server is encrypted and protected from unauthorized interception or eavesdropping. When TLS is implemented, the data exchanged between the client and server is encrypted, making it difficult for attackers to intercept and decipher the sensitive information.

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27
Q

A developer needs to add a table to a database. Which of the following database activities should the user perform?
A- CREATE
B- ALTER
C- UPDATE
D- REPORT

A

A- CREATE
The “CREATE” activity is used to create new database objects, such as tables, views, indexes, or even entire databases. In this case, the developer wants to add a new table, so they would use the “CREATE TABLE” statement to define the table’s structure and columns within the database.

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28
Q

A systems administrator is setting up a new server using RAID technology. If one hard drive in the array fails, the data is stored on another drive, preventing data loss. Which of the following business continuity concepts does this explain?
A- File backup
B- Fault tolerance
C- Data restoration
D- Restoring access

A

B- Fault tolerance
RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) technology is used to achieve fault tolerance in storage systems. In a RAID setup, multiple hard drives are combined into an array, and data is distributed or mirrored across these drives. If one hard drive in the RAID array fails, the data is still accessible from the other drives, preventing data loss and maintaining the system’s availability.
RAID technology enhances fault tolerance by providing redundancy in case of hardware failures. It is commonly used in critical systems and servers to ensure that data remains available even in the event of a disk failure.

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29
Q

A user needs to enter text and numbers to produce charts that demonstrate sales figures. Which of the following types of software would BEST complete this task?
A- Text editing software
B- Visual diagramming software
C- Spreadsheet software
D- Web browsing software

A

C- Spreadsheet software
Spreadsheet software, such as Microsoft Excel or Google Sheets, would be the best choice for this task as it allows users to enter text and numbers, perform calculations, and create various types of charts and graphs to demonstrate sales figures effectively

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30
Q

Which of the following intellectual property concepts BEST represents a legally protected slogan of a business?
A- Contract
B- Patent
C- Copyright
D- Trademark

A

D- Trademark
Trademark - As copyright is not given to the selection of a name, if a company wants to promote its goods it will normally trademark its name and/or logo. A trademark must be distinctive within the industry in which the company is selling goods and services. An ordinary trademark is indicated by the ™ symbol. A registered trademark is indicated by ®. If you re-use or imitate an existing trademark, you are liable to legal action from the owner. Copyright is automatic legal protection granted to certain types of work indicating that the copyright holder owns the right to control the use of the work, including rights of publication, distribution, or sale. There is no need to apply for copyright or display any copyright notice in order to be protected by it. The creation of the work ensures copyright protection automatically. Nonetheless, in case of a dispute, you might need to prove when the work was created in order to defend yourself against charges of plagiarism. Plagiarism is the unacknowledged or unauthorized use of someone else’s work.

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31
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely prevent malware sent as compromised file via email from infecting a person’s computer?
A- Email previewing
B- Patching
C- Clear browsing cache
D- Kill process

A

B- Patching
The most likely option to prevent malware sent as a compromised file via email from infecting a person’s computer is “Patching.”
Patching refers to the process of applying updates, fixes, or patches to software and operating systems to address known vulnerabilities and security flaws. Many malware attacks exploit known vulnerabilities in software to gain unauthorized access to a computer or network.
By regularly applying patches and updates to the email client, operating system, and other software, users can significantly reduce the risk of malware infection through email attachments. Patching ensures that known vulnerabilities are fixed, making it harder for attackers to exploit them.

32
Q

Where is the decimal point in a float expression?
A- In the last place
B- Two places from the right
C- In front of the fractional portion of a value
D- Two places from the left

A

C- In front of the fractional portion of a value
A decimal point in a float is used to separate the whole numbers from fractions. It is placed after the last whole number (integer) in a value so in front of the fractional portion of a value.

32
Q

Which of the following notations is hexadecimal?
A- 100111H
B- 3168D
C- 16AE
D- 100100.12

A

C- 16AE
Hexadecimal, hex for short, is a base 16 numbering system that uses the numbers 0 to 9 and the letters A through F to represent the numbers 10 through 16. To indicate that a number is written in hexadecimal some notations will use the prefix 0x in from of a number to indicate that it is a hexadecimal number. Another method used to show this is hexadecimal notation, will have an h suffix, so the number in answer C would be written as 16AEh.

32
Q

Which of these is not a feature of a CPU?
A- Multicore
B- L1 cache
C- DDR
D- 64-bit processing

A

C- DDR
DDR is a type of memory. All the others are CPU features.

33
Q

What manages and controls the speed of a motherboard’s buses?
A- RAM
B- CPU
C- Chipset
D- L1 cache

A

C- Chipset
The chipset manages the motherboard. RAM and CPU are items installed on the motherboard. The L1 cache is a memory cache inside the CPU.

33
Q

Which of these ports are physically identical?
A- USB Type-A and USB Type-B
B- Thunderbolt and Mini DisplayPort
C- DisplayPort and FireWire
D- DVI and VGA

A

B- Thunderbolt and Mini DisplayPort
Thunderbolt and Mini DisplayPort are correct. The other pairs are not identical.

34
Q

Which OS configuration uses data labels to control resource access?
A- Services
B- Scheduled tasks
C- Mandatory Access control
D- EULA

A

C- Mandatory Access control
Mandatory access control uses data labels to enforce policies that dictate resource access. Services are programs started by the OS and not the end user. Scheduled tasks run programs on a schedule basis, normally for OS maintenance purposes. The end-user license agreement (EULA) is a commercial software license agreement.

35
Q

What is a root directory?
A- The top-level storage location on a volume
B- The folder containing the system files
C- The folder containing the boot files
D- The folder containing the signed-in user’s personal files

A

A- The top-level storage location on a volume
The root directory is the top-level location on a volume. The other options don’t describe the top-level location.

36
Q

What differentiates a router from a switch?
A- Routers are for WANs, and switches are for LANs
B- A router provides a path out of the LAN, such as to the internet
C- A switch provides a path out of the LAN, such as to the internet
D- Routers are for client-server networks, and switches are to peer-to-peer networks.

A

B- A router provides a path out of the LAN, such as to the internet
A router, not a switch, provides a path out of the LAN to other networks. Both routers and switches can be used with either WANs or LANs and with both client-server and peer-to-peer networks.

37
Q

Which type of contingency plan is specific to an IT system or service?
A- Business continuity
B- Incident response
C- Disaster recovery
D- Data restoration

A

C- Disaster recovery
The disaster recovery plan provides details for how to restore a specific failed IT system or service to a functional state as quickly as possible.

38
Q

Debugging interpreted code will be ____________ than debugging compiled code. (Select the best correct answer)
A- Slower
B- Faster
C- Easier
D- Harder

A

C- Easier
Debugging code that is interpreted is easier because the code is read one line at a time by the interpreter. When it gets to a line that is incorrect, the interpreter will stop and give an error code that can be used to debug the program. Compilers read all of the code before flashing an error so debugging may be more difficult.

39
Q

Which of the following BEST describes an application running on a typical operating system?
A- Task
B- Process
C- Function
D- Thread

A

B- Process
Process is an instance of a computer program that’s being executed (for example when you USE Word or Excel)
Task is a set of programming instructions that are loaded in memory (for example when you OPEN word and you see all the loading, that’s a task)

40
Q

Which of the following is a compiled language?
A- Java
B- Perl
C- Jscript
D- Powershell

A

A- Java
Java is the best answer of the ones presented, but strictly speaking Java isn’t a ‘true’ compiled language. Java source code is ‘compiled’ to create Java object code which requires a Java runtime engine to execute the code on the computer. A true compiled language (e.g. C++) is compiled to machine code which will execute directly against the target host platform (e.g. Intel x64).

41
Q

A systems administrator wants to return results for a time range within a database. Which of the following commands should the administrator use?
A- SELECT
B- DELETE
C- UPDATE
D- INSERT

A

A- SELECT
The systems administrator should use the SELECT command to return results for a time range within a database. The SELECT command is used in SQL (Structured Query Language) to retrieve data from a database.
To query data within a specific time range, the administrator would use the SELECT command with appropriate filtering conditions. For example, if the database has a timestamp column representing the time of each record, the administrator could use the WHERE clause to specify the desired time range.

42
Q

In relational database design one thing to consider it the unique value that will be used for the primary key. Which of the following would be considered a proper field to consider using as a primary key? Select the best answer(s).
A- Phone number
B- Customer ID
C- Autonumber
D- Null value
E- Primary Value

A

B and C
The primary key is the data in one or more fields that is used to uniquely identify a record. The primary keys must be a unique value for each row of data, and it cannot contain null values. A customer ID number would be a good choice as long as there is no possibility that a number would have to be reused. AutoNumber is an option when no data filed fulfills the unique requirement. “Primary Value” is the nonsense detractor that could “sound true” but has no basis in fact.

43
Q

A help desk technician encounters an issue and wants to find out if a colleague has encountered the same issue before. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A- Check knowledge base
B- Search local logs
C- Research possible theories
D- Question users

A

A- Check knowledge base
By checking the Knowledge Base, the technician can quickly access relevant information and solutions that have been previously documented by colleagues or other IT professionals. This can save time and effort, as it may provide a straightforward solution to the current issue without the need for further research or troubleshooting.

44
Q

Which of the following allows wireless devices to communicate to a wired network?
A- Modem
B- Switch
C- Firewall
D- Access point

A

D- Access point
An access point allows wireless devices to communicate with a wired network. It acts as a bridge between the wireless devices and the wired network infrastructure, facilitating data transmission between the two.
When wireless devices such as laptops, smartphones, or tablets want to connect to a wired network (like the internet provided by an Internet Service Provider or an office network), they need to connect to an access point. The access point converts the wireless signals from these devices into wired Ethernet signals, which can be transmitted over the wired network infrastructure.
In other words, the access point provides a Wi-Fi connection to wireless devices, allowing them to access resources and services available on the wired network to which the access point is connected. This enables seamless communication and data transfer between wireless and wired devices within the network.

45
Q

For which of the following is a relational database management system MOST commonly used?
A- Building flowcharts
B- Storing information
C- Generating reports
D- Creating diagrams

A

B- Storing information
A relational database management system (RDBMS) is most commonly used for storing information. RDBMS is a specialized software designed to create, manage, and manipulate relational databases. These databases consist of structured data organized into tables with rows and columns.
The primary purpose of an RDBMS is to provide an efficient and reliable way to store, retrieve, update, and manage large amounts of structured data. It ensures data integrity, consistency, and security by enforcing rules and constraints on the data.

46
Q

Which of the following relational database constructs is used to ensure valid values are entered for a column?
A- Schema
B- Permissions
C- Constraint
D- Column

A

C- Constraint
Constraints are used to limit the data type such that, only the required data type is entered in a table, any other data action that violates , this is aborted. This helps to enhance reliability and accuracy of data entered in a table.

47
Q

Which type of database does not use a rigid schema?
A- Relational
B- On-premises
C- Cloud
D- NoSQL

A

D- NoSQL
NoSQL databases are used to store large amounts of unstructured data and as such do not use a rigid schema to define what type of data will be stored.

48
Q

Which of the following allows wireless devices to communicate to a wired network?
A- Modem
B- Switch
C- Firewall
D- Access point

A

D- Access point
An access point allows wireless devices to communicate with a wired network. It acts as a bridge between the wireless devices and the wired network infrastructure, facilitating data transmission between the two.
When wireless devices such as laptops, smartphones, or tablets want to connect to a wired network (like the internet provided by an Internet Service Provider or an office network), they need to connect to an access point. The access point converts the wireless signals from these devices into wired Ethernet signals, which can be transmitted over the wired network infrastructure.
In other words, the access point provides a Wi-Fi connection to wireless devices, allowing them to access resources and services available on the wired network to which the access point is connected. This enables seamless communication and data transfer between wireless and wired devices within the network.

49
Q

A database administrator finds that a table is not needed in a relational database. Which of the following commands is used to completely remove the table and its data?
A- UPDATE
B- DELETE
C- ALTER
D- DROP

A

D- DROP
The command used to completely remove a table and its data from a relational database is “DROP.”

50
Q

Which of the following is MOST likely used to represent international text data?
A- ASCII
B- Octal
C- Hexadecimal
D- Unicode

A

D- Unicode
Unicode is a character encoding standard that aims to provide a unique code point for every character in all the world’s writing systems, including characters from various languages, symbols, and special characters. It allows computers to handle and represent text data in different languages and scripts, making it a fundamental standard for internationalization and multilingual support in modern computing.

51
Q

“Wireless networking” is generally understood to mean the IEEE’s 802.11 standards for Wireless LANs (WLAN), also called Wi-Fi. There are several versions of the standard, starting with the legacy 802.11a and 802.11b, which supported data rates of 54 Mbps and 11 Mbps respectively. Subsequently, 802.11g acted as an upgrade path for 802.11g, working at 54 Mbps but also allowing support for older 802.11b clients. 802.11a was not as widely adopted but does use a less crowded frequency band (5 GHz) and is considered less susceptible to interference than the 2.4 GHz band used by 802.11b/g.

A
52
Q

A developer is creating specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional statements that will be used by a computer program to solve problems.
Which of the following is being developed?
A- Algorithm
B- Software
C- Pseudocode
D- Flowchart

A

A- Algorithm
The developer is creating an algorithm.
An algorithm is a specific set of step-by-step instructions or procedures designed to solve a problem or perform a specific task. It is a precise and unambiguous description of how to accomplish a particular goal, and it forms the foundation of computer programming and problem-solving.
In the context of programming, algorithms serve as the blueprint or plan for writing code to achieve a desired outcome. They provide the logic and structure that guide the computer program in its execution.

53
Q

Malware infections are being caused by websites. Which of the following settings will help prevent infections caused by Internet browsing?
A- Turn on private browsing
B- Delete browsing history on program close
C- Notify when downloads are complete
D- Configure prompting before downloading content

A

D- Configure prompting before downloading content
Configuring prompting before downloading content helps prevent malware infections caused by Internet browsing by alerting you whenever a website attempts to download files to your device. This way, you can be cautious and avoid downloading potentially harmful files inadvertently. It adds an extra layer of security and control over what gets downloaded, reducing the risk of malware infections.

54
Q

Penny, a user, connects to the corporate WiFi and tries to browse the Internet. Penny finds that she can only get to local (intranet) pages. Which of the following actions would MOST likely fix the problem?
A- Renew the IP address
B- Configure the browser proxy settings
C- Clear the browser cache
D- Disable the pop-up blocker

A

B- Configure the browser proxy settings
On an enterprise network, a network firewall is likely to be deployed to monitor and control all traffic passing between the local network and the Internet. On networks like this, clients might not be allowed to connect to the Internet directly but forced to use a proxy server instead. The proxy server can be configured as a firewall and apply other types of content filtering rules.
Some proxy servers work transparently so that clients use them without any extra configuration of the client application. Other proxies require that client software, such as the browser, be configured with the IP address and port of the proxy server. This information would be provided by the network administrator.

55
Q

A user at a company visits a weather website often during the day. The user browses to the site in the afternoon and notices that the temperature listed is from the morning and is not the current temperature. The user closes the page and tries again with the same result. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A- Proxy server
B- Browser add-on
C- Corrupted cache
D- Script blocker

A

C- Corrupted cache
The most likely cause of the issue described is a corrupted cache. When a user visits a website, the browser stores certain files and data from the website in its cache to speed up future visits. However, if the cache becomes corrupted or outdated, it can cause issues like displaying old or incorrect information, including outdated temperature data from a weather website.

56
Q

A database administrator wants to populate a database with large amounts of data from an external source. Which of the following actions should be used to get the database populated?
A- IMPORT
B- SELECT
C- EXPORT
D- ALTER

A

A- IMPORT
The “IMPORT” action allows the database administrator to bring data from an external source into the database. It is commonly used to load large datasets into the database efficiently and accurately. The external data can be in various formats like CSV, Excel, or other database exports.

57
Q

A programmer uses DML to modify:
A- Files
B- Permission
C- Data
D- Backups

A

C- Data
A programmer uses DML (Data Manipulation Language) to modify data in a database. DML allows users to insert, update, delete, and retrieve data from the database. It is used to manipulate the data stored in database tables, ensuring that the programmer can modify, add, or remove specific records and information within the database system.

58
Q

An administrator grants permission for a user to access data in a database. Which of the following actions was performed?
A- Data correlation
B- Data manipulation
C- Data gathering
D- Data definition

A

D- Data definition
When an administrator grants permission for a user to access data in a database, the action performed is known as “Data definition.”
Data definition involves defining the structure and organization of data in a database. It includes tasks such as creating tables, specifying data types for each column, setting constraints (e.g., primary keys, foreign keys), and establishing relationships between tables. In this context, granting permission for a user to access data means defining the user’s access rights and privileges to certain tables or data within the database.

58
Q

A programmer needs to store output in a place that can be accessed as quickly as possible. The data does not need to remain persistent. Which of the following is the BEST option for storing the data?
A- Flat file
B- Memory
C- Relational database
D- Solid state drive

A

B- Memory
Memory is best option. The data does not need to remain persistent. And we know that all data in memory is lost if your computer loses power.

58
Q

Troubleshooting model

A

1) Identify the problem.
○ Gather information.
○ Duplicate the problem, if possible.
○ Question users.
○ Identify symptoms.
○ Determine if anything has changed.
○ Approach multiple problems individually.
2) Research knowledge base/Internet, if applicable.
3) Establish a theory of probable cause.
○ Question the obvious.
○ Consider multiple approaches.
○ Divide and conquer.
4) Test the theory to determine cause.
○ Once the theory is confirmed (confirmed root cause), determine the next steps to resolve the problem.
○ If the theory is not confirmed, establish a new theory or escalate.
5) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects.
6) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary.
7) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.
8) Document findings/lessons learned, actions and outcomes.

59
Q

A Customer object has a field called EmailAddress. Other programs need to have frequent access to this field. What is the best way to set up this field?
A- As an array of variables across all programs
B- As its own object
C- As an attribute of the customer object
D- As a property of the customer object

A

D- As a property of the customer object
Object properties represent a way of accessing a field publicly, instead of the overhead of using methods. Properties allow external code to ask the object to show or change the value of one of its fields.
Object attributes are private variables which other programs
cannot access directly. An object needs to have a method which allows another part of the program to access a field, adding extra overhead to the process.
Setting up the EmailAddress field as its own object adds unnecessary overhead and duplication of information. It is much easier to set it up as a property of the Customer object.
An array of variables is an inefficient way to store data, compared to objects.

60
Q

Which TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) layer encapsulates packets and deals with routing between different networks?
A- Transport
B- Network Interface
C- Internet
D- Application

A

C- Internet
Internet layer encapsulates packets into Internet datagrams and deals with routing between different networks, using IP (Internet Protocol), ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), and ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol).
Link or Network Interface layer is responsible for putting data (packaged in a unit called a frame) onto the physical network. Communications on this layer take place only on a local network segment and not between different networks.
Transport layer uses TCP (Transport Control Protocol) or UDP (User Datagram Protocol) to provide communication sessions between computers.
Application layer is the top level of the architecture which contains protocols that provide the communications formats for exchanging data between hosts, such as transmitting an email message or requesting a web page.

61
Q

What type of process is the Windows Task Scheduler?
A- Service
B- Cron job
C- Batch file
D- Application

A

A- Service
A service is a Windows process that runs in the background, without a window or user interaction. Task Scheduler is a service which sets up computers to run automated tasks.
An application is a program with which users interact on the desktop. Task Scheduler runs in the background, whether or not a user scheduled anything manually via its console, as many of Windows’ processes come with predefined task schedules.
A batch file is a plain-text script file, with a series of commands which are executed by the command-line interpreter. Windows built-in administration tools such as the Task Scheduler are not batch files.
The software utility cron is a time-based job scheduler in Unix and Linux computer operating systems.

62
Q

Which numbers does this pseudocode display?
declare i as Number = 10
Do While i > 0
If i < 7 Then
i = i - 1
End If
print i
i = i - 1
Loop
A- 9.7.5.3.1
B- 10. 9. 8. 7. 5. 3. 1
C- 9. 8. 7.6.5.4.3.2.1.0
D- 10.9.8.7.6.5.4.3.2.1.

A

B- 10. 9. 8. 7. 5. 3. 1
This pseudocode loops backwards from 10, decreasing the value of i inside the loop. Until i is less than 7, it decreases by 1, after that it decreases by 1 twice per loop (once inside the branch, and once outside the branch).
If the pseudocode did not include the branch, then every number from 10 to 1 would be printed.
If the pseudocode did not include the branch, and the print command followed the command to decrease i, then every number from 9 to 0 would be printed.
If the branch condition was always true (for example, “if i <= 10”) then only the odd numbers from 9 to 1 would be printed.

63
Q

What are the properties of a file “Books/CoverPhoto.js”?
A- It’s an image file named “CoverPhoto.js” in folder “Books”
B- It’s an image file named “Books/CoverPhto.js”
C- It’s a document file named “Books/CoverPhoto.js”
D- It’s an executable file named “CoverPhoto.js” in folder “Books”

A

D- It’s an executable file named “CoverPhoto.js” in folder “Books”
An executable file contains program code, and can make changes to the computer system. Executable file extensions include “exe”, “bat”, “cmd”, and “js”. The slash symbol (/) is reserved for listing folders or directories in all operating systems, and the back-slash symbol () is also used for this on some systems.
Image file extensions include “jpg” and “jpeg”, but not “js” which stands for JavaScript code, a script file that runs within an interpreter.
File names cannot contain the reserved symbol “/”, so the entire name is not the file name. “Books” is the folder, and “CoverPhoto.js” is the file.
Document file formats are used by word processing software, with extensions such as “txt”, “rtf”, “doc”, and “docx”.

64
Q

A table in a relational database receives imported data from a text document. In what format does the table store the new data?
A- As key/value pairs
B- In an unstructured way
C- In a structured way
D- In a semi-structured way

A

C- In a structured way
Relational databases store information in a structured way, regardless of how that data gets into the database. This structure provides easy access to the information, along with flexibility over which data to access.
Unstructured data is information that does not have a pre-defined data model or is not organized in a pre-defined manner. Unstructured data provides no rigid formatting of the data, but when a relational database imports unstructured data, it becomes structured data within the database.
Semi-structured databases lack the structure of formal database architecture, but they have metadata: associated information helps identify the raw unstructured data.
A key/value pair database is a means of storing the properties of objects without predetermining the fields used to define an object.

65
Q

In a SQL (Structured Query Language) command, what does the WHERE clause determine in the result set?
A- The number of tables
B- The number of rows
C- The number of columns
D- The number of fields

A

B- The number of rows
With the WHERE clause, an SQL command (such as SELECT, UPDATE, or DELETE) extracts only those records, or rows, that fulfill a condition.
The WHERE clause does not affect the number of columns. SELECT and UPDATE commands list the columns which the SQL statement processes, for the rows that fulfill the condition in the WHERE clause.
Fields are the same as columns, and the WHERE clause does not affect them.
The WHERE clause can include tables in the condition. For example, if the SQL statement involves more than one table, then the WHERE clause contains the logic to connect them. But the result set is only the records, or rows, that fulfill the condition in the WHERE clause.

66
Q

Which file system allows a file with the name “Encyclopedia:Volume 1.txt”?
A- Ext4
B- HFS+
C- NTFS
D- FAT32

A

A- Ext4
File systems have a number of reserved characters which cannot be used in a file name. Ext4 (4th extended file system), used by Linux distributions, only reserves the slash (/), which means that all other characters are acceptable in a file name. No system allows the slash character in their file names, as it’s used to indicate folders or subdirectories.
HFS+ (extended Hierarchical File System), used by Apple Mac computers, does not allow colons (:) in addition to the slash.
NTFS (New Technology File System) has 9 reserved characters, including the colon.
FAT32 (File Allocation Table, 32-bit version) has 16 reserved characters, including the colon.

67
Q

What is the main cause of memory leaks?
A- Outdated software
B- Operating system upgrades
C- Programming errors
D- Damaged memory chips

A

C- Programming errors
Memory leaks refer to Windows memory loss, caused by a program or an app. This occurs when an application does not release memory when it’s done with it, eventually causing a system slowdown.
If the software that is outdated and no longer supported has proper memory management in the code, then it would not cause more leaks than current but badly written programs.
Damaged memory chips cause problems, but memory leaks refer specifically to memory losses due to software programs incorrectly managing memory allocation.
Upgrading the operating system can be a cause of memory leaks, with an increase in memory usage by the new drivers. Operating system upgrades are done less frequently than everyday use of programs that cause leaks.

68
Q

What’s the difference between scripted and scripting languages?
A- Scripting languages have to transform the code to an executable binary.
B- Scripted languages only run on one platform.
C- Scripted languages have to transform the code to an executable binary.
D- Scripting languages are for configuring an operating system.

A

D- Scripting languages are for configuring an operating system.
Scripted languages are general purpose interpreted programming languages such as JavaScript or Perl. Scripting languages support the automation and configuration of a particular operating system, i.e., the Windows Command Prompt, Windows PowerShell, or Linux Bash.
Both scripted and scripting languages are interpreted languages, which means that the program does not need to compile prior to running.
Scripted and scripting languages run within the context of an interpreter, a computer program that directly executes instructions written in an interpreted programming language.
Scripted and scripting languages can run on platforms for which there is an interpreter, with each scripting language geared toward a particular operating system.

69
Q

In addition to making a copy of an entire database, a program can invoke the SQL (Structured Query Language) BACKUP command to work at which level?
A- Table
B- Record
C- Application
D- Field

A

A- Table
Most database management systems provide stored procedures that invoke the BACKUP and RESTORE commands at a database or table level.
The BACKUP command does not work at the field level. If some fields need to have a backup without the entire table, the administrator can make another version of the table with just those fields, and use the BACKUP command on the new table.
The BACKUP command does not work at the record level. If some records need to have a backup without the entire table, the administrator can make another version of the table with just those records, and use the BACKUP command on the new table.
Applications are collections of programming code, and not part of a database.

70
Q

What is the Microsoft Edge web browser?
A- Command-line interface
B- System utility
C- Application software
D- Operating system

A

C- Application software
Application software consists of programs that allow users to perform different tasks, such as web browsing, checking email, and word processing.
Operating system provides interfaces between the hardware, application programs, and the user. It handles many of the basic system functions, such as interaction with the system hardware and input/output. Web browsing is not a basic system function, but a complex application program.
A command-line interface, also referred to as a “shell”, is a way for the user to interact with the computer. Modern operating systems have a graphical shell in addition to the command line shell.
System utilities are used to support the computer infrastructure, such as cleaning the registry or checking for memory failures.

71
Q

Which type of OS (Operating System) allows a user to unistall Windows XP and replace it with Linux?
A- Mobile device OS
B- Server OS
C- Embedded OS
D- Workstation OS

A

D- Workstation OS
Windows XP is an older version of Microsoft Windows, which is the dominant commercial workstation OS. A workstation OS can normally be uninstalled and replaced with a different kind of OS (such as Linux).
Windows XP is not one of “Windows for mobile” OS versions. Also, a smartphone or tablet can only run the OS it was designed for, as it is not typically possible to replace a mobile device OS with a different type (too many challenges, such as installation, operation, and app support).
Windows XP is not one of Windows Server OS editions.
An embedded system is a computer or appliance designed for a very specific function. The embedded OS acts as firmware and cannot be replaced.