Overview Flashcards
Under the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations, which of the following should be subject to requirements for reporting suspicious transactions related to potential money laundering or terrorist financing?
A. Securities brokers
B. Casinos
C. Banks
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
See pages 2.536 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Under the Financial Action Task Force’s (FATF) Recommendation 20, a financial institution should be required to file a report when it “suspects or has reasonable grounds to suspect that funds are the proceeds of a criminal activity, or are related to terrorist financing.” The name of these reports varies by jurisdiction, but they are generally called suspicious activity reports (SARs) or suspicious transaction reports (STRs).
The FATF Recommendations define financial institutions to include:
- Depository and lending institutions (i.e., traditional banks)
- Money services businesses (MSBs)
- Financial guarantors
- Securities brokers or traders
- Security issuing services
- Investment portfolio managers
- Parties that invest, administer, or manage funds or assets on behalf of others
- Insurance companies servicing life insurance and other investment-related insurance
Additionally, the parties that should file SARs or STRs have broadened to include designated nonfinancial businesses and professions (DNFBPs), such as:
- Casinos (including internet- and ship-based casinos)
- Real estate agents
- Dealers in precious metals and stones
- Legal professionals at professional firms (not internal legal professionals)
- Trust and company service providers
_______________ is comprised of the basic laws of rights and duties. When people refer to something that is “against the law,” they are usually referring to this type of law.
A. Administrative law
B. Natural law
C. Procedural law
D. Substantive law
D. Substantive law
See pages 2.103 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Substantive law defines the type of conduct permissible and the penalties for violation; it is comprised of the basic laws of rights and duties. When people say an act is “against the law,” they are referring to substantive law.
Which of the following statements concerning tax shelters is MOST ACCURATE?
A. Tax shelters may be legal or illegal.
B. Tax shelters are always legal.
C. Tax shelters are generally illegal in most countries.
D. Tax shelters are inherently illegal.
A. Tax shelters may be legal or illegal.
See pages 2.603 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Tax shelters are investments that are designed to yield a tax benefit to the investor. Such investments are made to produce tax write-offs, generate deductions, or convert ordinary income into capital gains taxed at a lower rate. Tax shelters might be legal or illegal; they are generally aimed at avoidance although they might, on occasion, cross the line into evasion if they take abusive forms. An illegal, abusive shelter is one that involves artificial transactions with little or no economic reality. For example, abusive tax shelters might artificially inflate the value of donations to charity; falsely identify an asset for business use that is mainly intended for pleasure; claim excess depreciation or depletion; or engage in the cross-leasing of luxury items such as automobiles, boats, vacation homes, and aircrafts.
Which of the following statements concerning the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations is TRUE?
A. They suggest that countries should enable authorities to trace, suspend, and confiscate assets suspected in money laundering and terrorist financing
B. They suggest that countries should adopt a risk-based approach when setting anti-money laundering policies
C. They suggest that countries should create policies that increase cooperation and coordination with other countries
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
See pages 2.530-2.532 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental body that was established at the G-7 Summit in 1989. Its purpose is to develop and promote standards and policies to combat money laundering and terrorist financing at both the national and international levels.
The FATF Recommendations, revised in 2012, created the most comprehensive standard with which to measure a country’s anti-money laundering (AML), counterterrorism, and nuclear proliferation laws and policies. They serve as a basic framework of laws that its members should have. While the FATF Recommendations are not required by the FATF’s members, and the FATF acknowledges that following each rule might not be possible, members often adopt them.
Some of the key measures in the FATF Recommendations provide that countries should:
- Use a risk-based approach when setting AML policies.
- Create policies that increase cooperation and coordination with other countries.
- Specifically criminalize money laundering and terrorist financing.
- Enable authorities to trace, suspend, and confiscate assets suspected in laundering and terrorist financing.
- Require financial institutions to keep certain records and establish AML policies, avoid correspondent banking with shell banks, and continuously monitor wire transfers.
Under the best practices listed in the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations, which of the following should be required to submit reports to the government when they engage in large cash transactions with customers?
A. Depository institutions (banks)
B. Casinos
C. Dealers in precious metals and stones
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
See pages 2.536-2.537 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Under the best practices provided in the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations, countries should implement a reporting requirement for financial institutions and designated nonfinancial businesses and professions (DNFBPs) that engage in cash transactions above the jurisdiction’s designated threshold. The reports should cover domestic and international cash transactions. Many jurisdictions implement this reporting requirement.
Note that the recommended reporting requirement does not apply to everyone; it only applies to financial institutions and DNFBPs. DNFBPs include:
- Casinos (including internet- and ship-based casinos)
- Real estate agents
- Dealers in precious metals and stones
- Legal professionals at professional firms (not internal legal professionals)
- Trust and company service providers
The operation of alternative remittance systems involves inherently illegal activities.
A. True
B. False
B. False
See pages 2.525-2.526 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Alternative remittance systems (also called parallel banking systems) are methods of transferring funds from a party at one location to another party (whether domestic or foreign) without the use of formal banking institutions. These systems do not require a direct physical or digital transfer of currency from the sender to the receiver. Instead, in the typical alternative remittance system, the payer transfers funds to a local broker who has a connection to another broker in the region where the payee is located. The latter broker then distributes the funds to the payee.
Transferring funds in this manner is not necessarily illegal (although some jurisdictions require brokers to register with the government). If available, using such systems can be beneficial because the commission that the networked brokers take might be lower than a banking fee for international transactions. Additionally, the payers and payees do not need to have bank accounts to perform the transactions.
Which of the following statements concerning digital currencies, such as bitcoin, is INCORRECT?
A. Digital currencies are appealing to money launderers because they rely on payment systems that are untraceable.
B. Money launderers often distribute digital currencies among many addresses or digital wallets to create a series of complex transactions that are difficult to trace.
C. Digital currencies generally face regulations that are less strict than regulations for payments made through traditional financial institutions.
D. Many jurisdictions require service providers that exchange or otherwise deal with digital currencies to have effective customer identification or recordkeeping practices.
A. Digital currencies are appealing to money launderers because they rely on payment systems that are untraceable.
See pages 2.515-2.516 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Digital currencies are a type of online payment method that has emerged as a money laundering concern. Broadly defined, digital currencies are currencies that exist and are traded in a digital format. The term typically excludes government-backed currencies, despite the fact that they can also exist and be traded digitally. Digital currencies can come in several forms and can have limited or broad uses. Among the most popular digital currencies is bitcoin, a cryptocurrency that features a peer-to-peer network that allows users to send units of the currency to each other online without the use of a traditional financial institution.
Digital currencies are often vulnerable to money laundering because many of them function as international person-to-person (P2P) payment systems that cross jurisdictional boundaries, creating difficulties for authorities pursuing enforcement or legal actions. Money launderers can complicate fund-tracing efforts by distributing digital currencies among many addresses—unique identifiers that represent the destination where cryptocurrency can be sent—or digital wallets in complex transactions.
As is typical with developing payment systems, digital currencies generally face regulations that are less strict than they are for payments made through traditional financial institutions. However, many jurisdictions now require service providers that exchange or otherwise deal with digital currencies to have effective customer identification or recordkeeping practices. Therefore, digital currencies do not provide complete anonymity, so very few service providers actively promote anonymous digital currency ownership and payments.
In most jurisdictions, a taxpayer will typically be guilty of conducting a criminal tax offense willfully even though they had a good faith or legitimate misunderstanding of the law’s requirements.
A. True
B. False
B. False
See pages 2.601-2.602 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
To establish criminal liability for tax evasion, most jurisdictions require a willful attempt to evade or defeat taxes in an unlawful manner. In the context of tax evasion, a good faith or legitimate misunderstanding of the applicable law typically negates willfulness (the voluntary, intentional violation of a known legal duty). That is, honest mistakes, in contrast to willful evasion, do not constitute tax evasion. However, a court might find that a defendant’s claimed misunderstanding of the law is implausible given the evidence presented.
Digital currencies are appealing to money launderers because payments often cross jurisdictional boundaries, making it difficult for authorities to pursue enforcement or legal actions.
A. True
B. False
A. True
See pages 2.515-2.516 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Digital currencies are often vulnerable to money laundering because many of them function as international person-to-person (P2P) payment systems that cross jurisdictional boundaries, creating difficulties for authorities pursuing enforcement or legal actions. Money launderers can complicate fund-tracing efforts by distributing digital currencies among many addresses—unique identifiers that represent the destination where cryptocurrency can be sent—or digital wallets in complex transactions.
Which of the following is an example of the use of a digital currency?
A. Bitcoin transactions
B. Credit card transactions
C. Wire transfers
D. All of the above
A. Bitcoin transactions
See pages 2.515 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Digital currencies are a type of online payment method that has emerged as a money laundering concern. Broadly defined, digital currencies are currencies that exist and are traded in a digital format. The term typically excludes government-backed currencies, despite the fact that they can also exist and be traded digitally. Digital currencies can come in several forms and can have limited or broad uses. Among the most popular digital currencies is bitcoin, a cryptocurrency that features a peer-to-peer network that allows users to send units of the currency to each other online without the use of a traditional financial institution.
In some jurisdictions, self-regulatory organizations (SROs) play an important role in the resolution of disputes arising from securities transactions.
A. True
B. False
A. True
See pages 2.439-2.440 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
In some jurisdictions, securities markets are regulated through a combination of self-regulation by self-regulatory organizations (SROs) and direct government regulation. An SRO is a nongovernmental entity that exercises some level of regulatory authority over the operations, standards of practice, and business conduct of an industry or profession.
Many SROs play an important role in the resolution of disputes arising from market transactions. For instance, SROs might provide venues for hearing customer disputes.
In general, for a contract, transaction, or scheme to be classified as an investment contract, the instrument must be purchased by investors who display management activity in the instrument’s enterprise and have expectations of making profits that are to be generated from their own efforts.
A. True
B. False
B. False
See pages 2.412-2.413 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
In many countries, the term security includes investment contracts. The leading global definition of investment contract provides that a contract, transaction, or scheme is an investment contract if all the following four elements are met:
- There is an investment of money or another asset.
- The investment is in a common enterprise.
- The investment was made with expectations of making a profit.
- The profits are to come solely from the efforts of people other than the investor.
To qualify as a security under this definition of investment contract, the essential managerial efforts, which affect the success or failure of the enterprise, must come from someone other than the investor. As a general rule, the more actively involved an investor is in the enterprise, the less likely it is that an investment contract will be found to exist.
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations advise that countries should require financial institutions to keep certain records and establish anti-money laundering (AML) policies.
A. True
B. False
A. True
See pages 2.530-2.532 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental body that was established at the G-7 Summit in 1989. Its purpose is to develop and promote standards and policies to combat money laundering and terrorist financing at both the national and international levels.
The FATF Recommendations, revised in 2012, created the most comprehensive standard with which to measure a country’s anti-money laundering (AML), counterterrorism, and nuclear proliferation laws and policies. They serve as a basic framework of laws that its members should have. While the FATF Recommendations are not required by the FATF’s members, and the FATF acknowledges that following each rule might not be possible, members often adopt them.
Some of the key measures in the FATF Recommendations provide that countries should:
- Use a risk-based approach when setting AML policies.
- Create policies that increase cooperation and coordination with other countries.
- Specifically criminalize money laundering and terrorist financing.
- Enable authorities to trace, suspend, and confiscate assets suspected in laundering and terrorist financing.
- Require financial institutions to keep certain records and establish AML policies, avoid correspondent banking with shell banks, and continuously monitor wire transfers.
In trade-based money laundering schemes, importers and exporters collude to misrepresent the price, quantity, or quality of imported or exported goods or services.
A. True
B. False
A. True
See pages 2.518 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) defines trade-based money laundering as “the process of disguising the proceeds of crime and moving value through the use of trade transactions in an attempt to legitimize their illicit origins.” Trade-based money laundering schemes generally involve importers and exporters who collude to misrepresent the price, quantity, or quality of imported or exported goods or services. These schemes can be used to create artificial profits for the purpose of laundering money between countries; to create a complex paper trail; and to avoid taxes, customs duties, and capital controls.
Angela and Michael live in two different countries. Angela believes that she has been financially harmed by Michael and wants to bring a lawsuit against him. Which of the following courts would be the MOST LIKELY to have jurisdiction to hear the case?
A. A court in the country where the harm was done
B. Whichever court in which Michael, the defendant, prefers the case to be brought
C. Any court that hears cases involving the type of financial harm caused
D. Whichever court in which Angela, the plaintiff, prefers the case to be brought
A. A court in the country where the harm was done
See pages 2.111 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Being a plaintiff or defendant does not automatically entitle either party to choose any court to hear the case; a case may only be heard before a court that has proper jurisdiction. Jurisdiction is the power of a court to hear and decide a given case; it refers to both the subject matter and people over which lawful authority may be exercised by a court. A particular court’s jurisdiction is defined by the laws of its jurisdiction, but generally, there are three common elements to consider when determining whether a given court has the power to hear and determine a case.
First, does the court hear cases of the type in question? For example, if a plaintiff brings a civil complaint claiming $500,000 in damages, the plaintiff needs a court that hears civil complaints of that magnitude.
Second, does the court have the authority to exercise its power over a particular defendant or piece of property? This element usually requires the party to have some level of current or past presence or activity within the jurisdiction. Courts generally do not have jurisdiction over foreign parties who have had no activities or presence in the court’s jurisdiction.
Third, most jurisdictions require the court to have proper venue as an element of jurisdiction. Venue is the physical location where the lawsuit is to be tried. Rules of venue can be based on a mixture of factors, including convenience to the parties (e.g., where they reside) and where the acts that underlie the case occurred.
Which of the following is NOT a legal element that must be shown to prove a claim for commercial bribery?
A. The principal suffered damages because of the bribe.
B. The defendant gave or received something of value.
C. The defendant acted with corrupt intent.
D. The defendant acted without the victim’s knowledge or consent.
A. The principal suffered damages because of the bribe.
See pages 2.206 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Commercial bribery refers to the corruption of a private individual to gain a commercial or business advantage. That is, in commercial bribery schemes, something of value is offered to influence a business decision rather than an official act.
The elements of commercial bribery vary by jurisdiction, but they typically include:
- The defendant gave or received something of value.
- The defendant acted with corrupt intent.
- The defendant’s scheme was designed to influence the recipient’s action in a business decision.
- The defendant acted without the victim’s knowledge or consent.
To establish that a defendant violated a law that criminalizes making false statements to government agencies, the government must prove that the defendant made a false statement regarding a matter within the jurisdiction of a government agency and that the agency relied on the false statement to its detriment.
A. True
B. False
B. False
See pages 2.221 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Laws prohibiting false claims and statements to government agencies make it illegal for a person to lie to, or conceal material information from, a government agency. A false claim is an assertion of a right to government money, property, or services that contains a misrepresentation. A false statement is an oral or written communication, declaration, or assertion that is factually untrue.
Generally, to prove a violation, the government must show that the defendant:
- Knowingly and willfully (or with reckless disregard for truth or falsity)
- Made a false claim or statement (or used a false document)
- That was material (i.e., sufficiently important or relevant to influence decision-making)
- Regarding a matter within the jurisdiction of a government agency
- With knowledge of its falsity
Also, the following are general rules regarding laws that criminalize making false claims and statements to government agencies:
- An individual can be found guilty of making a false claim or statement even if the claim or statement is not made directly to a governmental department or agency. That is, a false claim or statement need not be made directly to the government; it can be made to a third party if it involves a matter within the jurisdiction of a governmental department or agency.
- An individual can be found guilty of making a false claim or statement even if the government was not deceived by the falsity.
- An individual can be found guilty of making a false claim or statement even if the government did not rely on the falsity.
- An individual can be found guilty of making a false claim or statement even if the government did not suffer a loss in reliance on the falsity.
- For an individual to be found guilty of making a false claim or statement, the claim or statement at issue must have been capable of influencing the government entity involved.
If a broker who is subject to rules that prohibit securities broker-dealers from making unsuitable recommendations on investments or investment strategies recommends an investment to a client without ascertaining relevant personal and financial information about the client, then the broker has violated the rules that prohibit unsuitable recommendations.
A. True
B. False
A. True
See pages 2.443-2.444 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
In many countries, securities laws and regulations impose a suitability requirement on broker-dealers. Broker-dealers subject to a suitability requirement are prohibited from recommending investments or investment strategies that are unsuitable for their clients. Thus, making unsuitable recommendations (e.g., recommending high-risk options to an older individual with limited assets) is prohibited in countries with such suitability requirements.
In most countries, a suitability requirement only arises when broker-dealers make recommendations or provide advice to clients to purchase a product.
Essentially, there are two rules relating to suitability: the know-your-customer (KYC) rule and the suitability rule. The KYC rule provides that securities broker-dealers must know their customers financially to effectively service their accounts and minimize the risk of recommending an inappropriate investment. To comply with the KYC rule, broker-dealers must use due diligence to ascertain relevant personal and financial information about clients and potential clients in regard to opening and maintaining accounts. Thus, this form of suitability violation occurs when a broker recommends an investment or an investment strategy to a client without having conducted due diligence to ascertain relevant personal and financial information about the client.
In addition to the KYC rule, there are suitability requirements that broker-dealers must follow when making recommendations to a client. Suitability rules prohibit broker-dealers from making recommendations to clients if they do not have reasonable grounds for believing that the recommendations are suitable for the respective clients. That is, a suitability rule requires a broker-dealer to make a customer-specific determination of suitability and to tailor their recommendations to the customer’s financial profile and investment objectives.
Which of the following is NOT a common type of administrative penalty?
A. Monetary fines
B. Imprisonment
C. License suspension
D. Debarment
B. Imprisonment
See pages 2.114-2.115 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Imprisonment and other criminal penalties are not generally imposed in administrative proceedings. Although administrative penalties vary by jurisdiction, some common types of administrative penalties include monetary fines and penalties, license suspension or revocation, and debarment.
Administrative proceedings can result in the suspension or revocation of a professional license. For example, a government medical board might revoke a doctor’s license to practice medicine after determining that the doctor engaged in health care fraud.
Under some laws, individuals and businesses can be debarred (i.e., excluded) from participating in government programs. For example, a contractor who engages in procurement fraud might be prohibited from bidding on government contracts in the future. Debarment can be temporary or permanent, and debarred parties are often added to a list that is maintained by the government agency and viewable by the public.
___________ refers to any fraudulent actions a taxpayer commits to avoid reporting or paying taxes.
A. Tax evasion
B. Tax avoidance
C. Tax reduction
D. None of the above
A. Tax evasion
See pages 2.601 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
The term tax evasion refers to any fraudulent actions that a taxpayer commits to avoid reporting or paying taxes. Tax evasion, however, should not be confused with tax avoidance. Tax avoidance refers to a legal means of lowering one’s tax bill through legitimate deductions, credits, and shelters. The intent of the taxpayer to wrongly file a tax return or provide other false tax information will determine the difference between tax evasion and tax avoidance.
The primary distinguishing characteristic of tax evasion as compared to tax avoidance is that tax evasion is illegal, but tax avoidance is legal.
Which of the following MOST ACCURATELY describes the legal elements that must be shown to prove a claim for commercial bribery?
A. The defendant, while acting with corrupt intent, gave or received something of value that was intended to influence the recipient’s action in a business decision, causing their principal to suffer damages.
B. The defendant, while acting without due care, gave or received something of value that was intended to influence the recipient’s action in a business decision, causing their principal to suffer damages.
C. The defendant, while acting negligently and without the victim’s knowledge or consent, gave or received something of value that was intended to influence the recipient’s action in a business decision.
D. The defendant, while acting with corrupt intent and without the victim’s knowledge or consent, gave or received something of value that was intended to influence the recipient’s action in a business decision.
D. The defendant, while acting with corrupt intent and without the victim’s knowledge or consent, gave or received something of value that was intended to influence the recipient’s action in a business decision.
See pages 2.206 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Commercial bribery refers to the corruption of a private individual to gain a commercial or business advantage. That is, in commercial bribery schemes, something of value is offered to influence a business decision rather than an official act.
The elements of commercial bribery vary by jurisdiction, but they typically include:
- The defendant gave or received something of value.
- The defendant acted with corrupt intent.
- The defendant’s scheme was designed to influence the recipient’s action in a business decision.
- The defendant acted without the victim’s knowledge or consent.
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development’s (OECD) Recommendation on Combating Bribery in International Business (the Recommendation) urges member states to combat the bribery of foreign public officials by taking steps to improve certain areas within their respective infrastructures. Which of the following is NOT one of those primary areas?
A. Tax systems and regulations
B. Laws and regulations covering the handling of sensitive protected data
C. Banking and accounting requirements and practices
D. Criminal, civil, commercial, and administrative laws
B. Laws and regulations covering the handling of sensitive protected data
See pages 2.224 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
The Recommendation on Combating Bribery in International Business (the Recommendation), which was published by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) in 1994, urges member states to deter and penalize the bribery of foreign public officials by taking “concrete and meaningful steps” to improve the following areas within their respective infrastructures:
- Criminal, civil, commercial, and administrative laws
- Tax systems and regulations
- Banking and accounting requirements and practices
- Laws and regulations related to public subsidies, licenses, and contract procurement
To determine if a misrepresentation in the offer or sale of any securities is ________, the fraud examiner should answer the following question: “Would a reasonable investor want to know this information to make an informed decision?”
A. Material
B. Promotional
C. Relevant
D. Privileged
A. Material
See pages 2.453 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Securities laws require that the investor receive full and fair disclosure of all material information, and they make it unlawful for anyone to obtain money or property by using a material misstatement or omission in the offer or sale of any securities.
As a general rule, to determine materiality, the fraud examiner needs to answer the following question: “Would a reasonable investor want to know this information to make an informed decision?” If the answer is “yes,” then this information, or the lack thereof, has a high likelihood of being deemed material. (If an actual investor acted based on the misrepresentation, then that clearly strengthens the case, but it is not essential that the false or misleading statement influenced an investor, merely that a reasonable investor could have been so influenced.)
Craig and Donna each own 40% of the shares of Indiewealth and serve on its board of directors. Georgia is also a shareholder, but she is not a member of the board of directors. Donna dies, and her son, Steven, inherits her shares of Indiewealth and replaces her on the board. Steven, however, is inattentive to Indiewealth’s corporate affairs. During this time, Craig diverts corporate funds for personal use, and consequently, Indiewealth becomes insolvent. If Georgia decides to sue Steven for violating his fiduciary duties, under what theory is she likely to file the suit?
A. Violating the duty of loyalty
B. Violating the duty of care
C. Violating the duty of reasonableness
D. Violating the duty of responsibility
B. Violating the duty of care
See pages 2.215-2.216 in the Fraud Examiner’s Manual
Steven failed to act as a reasonably prudent director would under similar circumstances; therefore, Georgia would likely file suit against Steven for violating his duty of care. People in a position of trust or fiduciary relationship—such as officers, directors, high-level employees of a corporation or business, and agents and brokers—owe certain duties to their principals or employers, and any action that runs afoul of such fiduciary duties constitutes a breach. The principal fiduciary duties are loyalty and care. The duty of loyalty requires that the employee/agent act solely in the best interest of the employer/principal without any self-dealing, conflicts of interest, or other abuse of the principal for personal advantage. The duty of care means that people in a fiduciary relationship must act with such care as an ordinarily prudent person would employ in similar positions.