Overall Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are isotopes?

A

Isotopes are atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons and different masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define relative atomic mass (Ar)

A

RAM is the weighted mean mass of an atom of the element relative to one twelfth the mass of one atom of the C-12 isotope, which has a mass of exactly 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define relative isotopic mass

A

The relative isotopic mass is the mass of an atom of a particular isotope relative to one twelfth the mass of one atom of the C-12 isotope, which has a mass of exactly 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you calculate relative atomic mass?

A

((% abundance x mass) + (% abundance x mass))

/100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two main uses of mass spectrometry?

A

(i) The determination of relative isotopic masses and relative abundances of the isotopes
(ii) Calculation of the relative atomic mass of an element from the relative abundances of its isotopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does the mass spectrometer show this?

A

The mass spectrometer provides a trace that shows the mass of each isotope and its relative abundance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the five stages, in order, of mass spectrometry?

A

1) Vaporization
2) Ionisation
3) Acceleration
4) Deflection through a magnetic field
5) Detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How are the particles deflected in mass spectrometry?

A

Electrons are attracted to a positively charged plate. They have a large deflection because of their small mass. Neutrons do not change path in a magnetic field. Protons attracted to a negatively charged plate, but their deflection is smaller because their mass is larger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens when an organic compound is placed in the mass spectrometer?

A

The organic compound loses an electron and forms a positive ion, called the molecular ion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the mass spectrometer detect?

A

A mass spectrometer detects the mass-to-charge ratio (m/z) of the molecular ion, which gives the molecular mass of the ion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you calculate a mass-to-charge ratio?

A

(Relative mass of ion) / (Relative charge on ion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What relationship exists between the time of flight of the sample (t) and the mass (m) of the sample?

A

The time of flight of the sample (t) is proportional to the square root of the mass (m) of the sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the mole number in terms of the C-12 isotope?

A

The mole contains the same number of particles as exactly 12 grams of carbon-12. 1 mole of any substance contains the same number of particles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does Avogadro’s constant (Na) show?

A

Avogadro’s constant is a measure of the number of particles in 1 mole of any substance

6.02 x 10^23 mol-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the molar mass of an element?

What are the units?

A

The molar mass of an element is its atomic mass in grams per mole.

Units: g mol-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the equation for calculating the number of particles there are in a sample?

A

Moles = Na

                                                    Mass = Mr x Mole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is the number of moles (n) calculated?

A

n = mass in g (m) / molar mass in g mol-1 (M)

Molar mass is equal to formula mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the molar gas volume?

What are the units?

A

The molar gas volume is the gas volume per mole.

Units: dm^3mol-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What volume does one mole of gas at standard conditions occupy?

A

One mole of any gas at room temperature (240C) and 1 atmospheric pressure has a volume of 24dm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you calculate the molar volume of a gas?

A

n= v/V or v=nV

Where n = number of moles
v = volume of gas
V= molar volume (24dm3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the empirical formula?

A

The simplest whole number ratio of atoms of each element present in a compound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the molecular formula?

A

The number and type of atoms of each element in a molecule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If a salt is hydrated, what does it contain?

A

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If a salt is anhydrous, what has been removed?

A

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define the term ‘water of crystallisation’

A

Water molecules form an essential part of the crystal structure of the compound. % water of crystallisation shows how much of the hydrated salt is water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do you determine the % water of crystallisation?

A

A known mass of the hydrated salt is heated gently in a crucible until the mass becomes constant despite further heating. The mass of the anhydrous salt is measured, and from this the percentage of water present in the hydrated salt can be calculated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the Ideal Gas equation?

A

pV=nRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the standard measure for pressure in the Ideal Gas equation?

A

The standard unit for pressure is the Pascal (Pa).

In the Ideal Gas equation, the standard form is 1 atmospheric pressure, which equals 100 x 103 Pa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the standard measure for volume in the Ideal Gas equation?

A

The standard unit for volume is m3.

m^3 = 1000dm^3 = 10^6cm^3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In the Ideal Gas equation, what does n stand for?

A

The number of moles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the standard measure for temperature in the Ideal Gas equation?

A

Standard: 298 Kelvins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do you convert Celsius to Kelvin?

A

Celsius + 273 = Kelvins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In the Ideal Gas equation, what does R stand for?

A

R is the gas constant.

It has a value of 8.31441 J K^-1 mol^-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do you calculate the molecular formula from the empirical formula?

A

The molecular formula shows how many times the empirical formula goes into the molar mass.

(molar mass / empirical formula)

Multiply the empirical formula by the answer to find the molecular formula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do ionic equations show?

A

Ionic equations show only the reacting particles (and the products they form.) Ions that don’t get involved in the reaction - the spectator ions - aren’t written.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the formula of the nitrate ion?

A

NO3 ^-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the formula of the carbonate ion?

A

CO3 ^2-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the formula of the sulphate ion?

A

SO4 ^2-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the formula of the hydroxide ion?

A

OH ^-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the formula of the ammonium ion?

A

NH4 ^+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the formula of the zinc ion?

A

Zn ^2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the formula of the silver ion?

A

Ag+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is an acid?

A

An acid is a proton donor. When mixed with water, they release hydrogen ions - H+.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a base?

A

A base is a proton acceptor. They want to grab H+ ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is an alkali?

A

An alkali is a base that is soluble in water. Alkalis produce OH- ions in an aqueous solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Name three common acids and give their formula

A

Hydrochloric acid - HCl
Sulfuric acid - H2SO4
Nitric acid - HNO3
Ethanoic acid - CH3COOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Name three common bases and give their formula

A

Sodium hydroxide - NaOH
Potassium hydroxide - KOH
Ammonia - NH3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What kind of reaction occurs between an acid + water or a base + water?

A

Reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What happens when strong acids are reacted with water? Which arrow is used for the reaction equation?

A

For strong acids, nearly all of the acid will dissociate in water, and lots of the H+ ions are released. As the equilibrium lies very far to the right, a forward arrow is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What happens when strong bases are reacted with water? Which arrow is used for the reaction equation?

A

For strong bases, nearly all of the base will dissociate in water, and lots of the OH-ions are released. As the equilibrium lies very far to the right, a forward arrow is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which arrow is used when weak acids and bases react with water? Why?

A

A reversible arrow is used, as the backward reaction is favoured and only a few H+ or OH- ions are released.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the general equation for a neutralisation reaction between an acid and a base?

A

Acid + Base -> Salt + Water

The hydrogen ions released by the acid and the hydroxide ions released by the alkali combine to form water:

H+(aq) + OH-(aq) ≈ H2O(l)

The salt is produced when hydrogen ions in the acid are replaced by metal ions from the alkali.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Metal + Acid = ?

A

Metal Salt + Hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Metal Oxide + Acid = ?

A

Salt + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Metal Hydroxide + Acid = ?

A

Salt + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Metal Carbonate + Acid = ?

A

Metal Salt + Carbon Dioxide + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When ammonia reacts with acid, what is produced?

A

An ammonium salt (aqueous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which indicator is used when adding acid to alkali and what colour does it turn?

A

Methyl orange turns from yellow to red when adding acid to alkali

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which indicator is used when adding alkali to acid and what colour does it turn?

A

Phenolphthalein indicator turns from pink to colourless when adding acid to alkali

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is a diprotic acid?

A

A diprotic acid can donate two protons (i.e. H2SO4).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

If you are completing a titration calculation, what do you have to consider when using a diprotic acid?

A

You need to double the number of moles of a base to neutralise a diprotic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the molar volume equation?

A

Moles = concentration x (vol (cm ^3) / 1000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How do you calculate percentage yield?

A

Percentage yield =

(Actual yield / Theoretical yield) x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Define ‘atom economy.’

A

Atom economy is a measure of the proportion of reactant atoms that become part of the desired product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How do you calculate atom economy?

A

(Molecular mass of desired products / Sum of molecular mass) x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is an addition reaction?

A

In an addition reaction, the reactants combine to form a single product. The atom economy for addition reactions is always 100% since no atoms are wasted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is a substitution reaction?

A

A substitution reaction is one where some atoms from one reactant are swapped with atoms from another reactant. This type of reaction always results in at least two products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Give two environmental benefits of having a high atom economy.

A
  1. Few waste products: Waste products need to be disposed of and can be harmful to the environment.
  2. More sustainable: Many raw materials are in limited supply, so using them efficiently makes them last as long as possible.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Give two economical benefits of having a high atom economy.

A
  1. It costs money to separate and dispose of waste products. Less waste = less cost.
  2. Reactant chemicals are costly. The more which can be transferred to useful products, the better.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is an oxidation number?

A

Oxidation numbers tell you how many electrons an atom has donated or accepted to form an ion, or to form part of a compound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the oxidation number of all uncombined elements?

A

0

72
Q

The oxidation number of a monatomic ion is always the same as its ________.

A

Charge

73
Q

For molecular ions, the sum of the oxidation ions is always equal to the ______ _________.

A

Overall charge

74
Q

Oxygen nearly always has an oxidation number of ____

Exceptions: peroxides and molecular oxygen.

A

-2

75
Q

In peroxides, oxygen has an oxidation number of ____.

A

-1

76
Q

Hydrogen usually has an oxidation number of ____

Exceptions: metal hydrides and molecular hydrogen.

A

+ 1

77
Q

In metal hydrides, hydrogen has an oxidation number of ___.

A
  • 1
78
Q

Roman numerals on an ion tell you the oxidation number. What oxidation number would be assigned to iron in iron (II) sulfate?

A

+ 2

79
Q

What occurs in a redox reaction?

A

Electrons are transferred.

80
Q

A loss of electrons is called _______.

A

Oxidation

81
Q

A gain of electrons is called _______.

A

Reduction

82
Q

What happens to an oxidising agent?

A

It accepts electrons and gets reduced. The oxidation number decreases by 1 for each electron gained.

83
Q

What happens to a reducing agent?

A

It loses electrons and gets oxidised. The oxidation number increases by 1 for each electron lost.

84
Q

Metals are _______ when they react with acids.

A

Oxidised

This produces positive metal ions (in salts), and their oxidation number increases.

85
Q

What is the relationship between the quantum number and the number of electrons the shell can hold?

A

2n ^2

86
Q

How many electrons can the first four shells hold?

A

1st: 2
2nd: 8
3rd: 18
4th: 32

87
Q

How do you define an atomic orbital?

A

A region in space around the nucleus that can hold up to two electrons with opposite spin.

88
Q

What is the shape of an s orbital?

A

Spherical

89
Q

In which quantum shells do s orbitals appear?

A

There is an s orbital in every quantum shell.

90
Q

What is the shape of a p orbital?

A

Dumbbell shaped. There are three p orbitals and they are at right angles to one another.

91
Q

In which quantum shells do p orbitals appear?

A

All quantum shells apart from the first

92
Q

How many electrons in total can the p orbitals in one shell hold?

A

6

93
Q

How many electrons in total can d orbitals in one shell hold?

A

10

94
Q

Which three rules apply when filling energy levels?

A
  1. Electrons enter the lowest energy level available
  2. Two electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spin
  3. Electrons will try and remain unpaired to reduce electrostatic repulsion and increase stability.
95
Q

What is an ionic bond?

A

An electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions in a giant lattice.

96
Q

Describe a giant ionic lattice structure.

A

Oppositely charged ions are strongly attracted in all directions.

97
Q

Do ionic compounds conduct electricity?

A

Only when molten or in solution, as the charged ions are free to move.

98
Q

How is the ionic structure linked to boiling point?

A

Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points. It takes a lot of energy to overcome the strong electrostatic forces of attraction.

99
Q

Are ionic substances soluble in water?

A

Most ionic compounds will dissolve in water, as water molecules are polar and are attracted to the charged ions. An ionic substance only dissolves if more energy is released by separating the bonds then breaking the bonds.

100
Q

What is a covalent bond?

A

A covalent bond is the strong electrostatic attraction between a shared pair of electrons and the nuclei of the bonded atoms.

101
Q

What is a dative (coordinate) bond?

A

A dative bond occurs when both of the electrons in a single bond come from one of the atoms. The bond length and strength is identical to any other covalent bond.

102
Q

What does average bond enthalpy measure?

A

Average bond enthalpy measures the energy required to break a covalent bond. The stronger a bond = the greater the average bond enthalpy.

103
Q

What is electronegativity

A

The power of an atom to attract the electrons in a covalent bond.

104
Q

What are the three factors which affect electronegativity?

A
  1. Atomic radius (distance from nucleus.)
  2. Shielding
  3. Nuclear charge
105
Q

Which element is the most electronegative?

A

Fluorine - it has an electronegativity of 4.0.

106
Q

What is the link between electronegativity and bonding?

A

Compounds made up of elements with a large difference in electronegativity will tend to be ionic in character. If they are similar in electronegativity they are likely to be covalent in character.

107
Q

Molecular shape is determined by the electrostatic repulsion of electrons round the central atom. Order these angles, from smallest to largest bond angle:

  • lone pair/ lone pair angles
  • lone pair/bonding pair angles
  • bonding pair/bonding pair angles
A

Smallest

bonding pair/bonding pair angles

lone pair/bonding pair angles

lone pair/lone pair angles

Biggest

108
Q

A molecule with two bonded pairs has a _____ shape. The bond angle is _______.

A

Linear

180o

109
Q

A molecule with three bonded pairs has a _____ ________ shape. The bond angle is _______.

A

Trigonal planar

120o

110
Q

A molecule with four bonded pairs has a _____ shape. The bond angle is _______.

A

Tetrahedral

109.5o

111
Q

A molecule with five bonded pairs has a _____ _______ shape. The bond angle is _______.

A

Trigonal bipyramidal

90o / 120o

112
Q

A molecule with six bonded pairs has a _____ shape. The bond angle is _______.

A

Octahedral

90o

113
Q

If a molecule contains lone pairs, the angle is based on the number of ______ _____ but the name on the number of ________ ________.

A

The angle is based on the number of electron pairs.

The name is based on the number of bonding pairs.

114
Q

Each lone pair reduces the bond angle by approximately ____o from the bond angle determined by the number of electron pairs.

A

2.5o

115
Q

How is a permanent dipole-dipole interaction caused?

A

In a covalent bond between two atoms of different electronegativities, the bonding electrons are pulled towards the more electronegative atom. This makes the bond polar.

116
Q

Do diatomic gases (i.e. H2) have permanent dipoles?

A

No - the atoms have equal electronegativities and so the electrons are equally attracted to both nuclei.

117
Q

How is charge arranged in a polar molecule?

A

The arrangement of polar bonds in a molecule determines whether or not the molecule will have an overall dipole. If charge is arranged unevenly across the molecule, there will be an overall dipole and the molecule will be polar.

118
Q

How is the dipole moment calculated?

A

Multiplying the size of the charge by the distance between the charge centres.

119
Q

In which atoms and molecules are induced dipole-dipole forces found?

A

All atoms and molecules

120
Q

How are induced dipole-dipole interactions (London [dispersion]) forces caused?

A

Electrons in charge clouds are always moving. At any one moment, a temporary dipole is caused as electrons are on one side of the atom. This dipole can cause another temporary (induced) dipole in another atom in a chain. The overall effect is that the atoms are attracted to one another.

121
Q

Do stronger induced dipole-dipole forces increase or decrease boiling point?

A

They increase boiling point. More energy is needed to overcome stronger intermolecular forces.

122
Q

Which factors increase the strength of induced dipole-dipole forces?

A
  1. Size of electron cloud: larger molecules have larger electron clouds, meaning stronger induced dipole-dipole forces.
  2. Surface area: bigger exposed electron cloud = stronger induced dipole-dipole forces
123
Q

Order these forces from strongest to weakest:

  • Induced dipole-dipole forces
  • Permanent dipole-dipole interactions
  • Hydrogen bonding
A
  1. Induced dipole-dipole forces
  2. Permanent dipole-dipole interactions
  3. Hydrogen bonding
124
Q

Define hydrogen bonding.

A

Intermolecular bonding between molecules containing fluorine, nitrogen or oxygen and the H atom of -NH, -OH or HF.

125
Q

Why does hydrogen bonding occur?

A

Hydrogen has a high charge density because it’s so small, and the other elements are very electronegative. The bond is so polarised that a bond forms between the hydrogen of one molecule and a lone pair on the other molecule.

126
Q

Hydrogen bonding _______ boiling points and freezing points

A

Increases

127
Q

What effect does hydrogen bonding have on water when it freezes?

A

When ice freezes, in becomes less dense. This is because it contains more hydrogen bonds then liquid water.

128
Q

Explain two properties of simple covalent compounds.

A
  1. Low melting and boiling points: weak intermolecular forces, takes little energy to overcome them
  2. Polar molecules are soluble
  3. Don’t conduct electricity: overall covalent molecules are uncharged
129
Q

How are elements arranged in the periodic table?

A
  1. By increasing atomic (proton) number
  2. In periods showing repeating trends in physical and chemical properties (periodicity).
  3. In groups with similar chemical properties.
130
Q

What is meant by periodicity?

A

The study of trends across a period

131
Q
What is the name given to the following groups:
Group I (1)
Group II (2)
Group VII (7) 
Group 8/0
A

1: Alkali metals
2: Alkaline (earth) metals
7: Halogens
8/0: Noble gases

132
Q

Which groups are in the s block?

A

I, II and hydrogen

133
Q

Which groups are in the d block?

A

The transition metals

134
Q

Which groups are in the p block?

A

III, IV, V, VI, VII, 0

135
Q

Which groups are in the f block?

A

Lanthanides and actinides

136
Q

Define first ionisation energy.

A

The energy needed to remove 1 mole of electrons from 1 mole of gaseous atoms

137
Q

Is ionisation and endothermic or exothermic reaction?

A

Endothermic

138
Q

How would you write an equation for the first ionisation of oxygen?

A

O (g) –> O+ (g) + e-

The gas state symbol must be used

139
Q

What are the factors affecting ionisation energy?

A
  1. Atomic radius (distance from nucleus.)
  2. Shielding
  3. Nuclear charge
140
Q

Define second ionisation energy.

A

The energy required to remove 1 mole of electrons from 1 mole of gaseous singly positive ions to form 1 mole of gaseous +2 ions.

141
Q

Give two reasons why the second I.E. is always greater than the first.

A
  1. The electron is being pulled away from a more positive species.
  2. There is less electron shielding as you move down a shell.
142
Q

Why does ionisation energy decrease down a group?

A
  1. Larger atomic radius

2. Inner shells provide shielding

143
Q

Why does ionisation energy increase across a period?

A
  1. Nuclear charge increases as the number of protons increases. This decreases the atomic radius and the bonding electrons are more strongly attracted to the nucleus.
  2. No extra shielding as the same number of shells are present
144
Q

Group 2 elements form _____ ions.

A

2+

145
Q

Why does reactivity increase down a group?

A

Ionisation energy decreases due to increasing atomic radius and shielding. The easier it is to lose electrons, the more reactive the element.

146
Q

What is produced when group 2 elements react with water?

A

Metal hydroxide + hydrogen

M(OH)2 + H2

147
Q

What is produced when group 2 elements burn in oxygen?

A

They form solid white oxides.

2M(s) + O2 = 2MO(s)

148
Q

What is produced when group 2 elements react with dilute acid?

A

Salt + hydrogen

149
Q

The oxides of the group 2 metals can produce metal hydroxides when water is added. The OH- ion makes the solutions strongly alkaline. What is the trend as you go down the group?

A

The oxides form more strongly alkaline solutions as you go down the group, because the hydroxides get more soluble.

150
Q

Give two uses of group 2 compounds

A
  1. Calcium hydroxide can be used to neutralise acidic fields.
  2. Magnesium hydroxide and calcium carbonate can be used to neutralise excess stomach acid - they are antacids.
151
Q

Halogens always exist as ________ molecules.

A

Diatomic

152
Q

The boiling and melting points ________ down the group due to the ________ strength of the London forces and size and relative mass of the atom.

A

Increase

Increasing

153
Q

Define general formula

A

The simplest algebraic formula of a member of the homologous series
i.e. CnH2n+2
`

154
Q

Define structural formula

A

The minimal detail that shows the arrangement of atoms in a molecule

i.e. CH3CH2CH2CH3

155
Q

Define displayed formula

A

Shows the relative positioning of atoms and the number of bonds between them.

H–C(H2)–C(H2)–OH ; with all bonds in brackets shown

156
Q

Define skeletal formula

A

The simplified organic formula, shown by removing hydrogen from the alkyl chains, leaving just a carbon skeleton and associated functional groups.

157
Q

Define catenation

A

The ability to form strong covalent bonds to atoms of the same element - i.e. carbon.

158
Q

Define homologous series

A

A series of organic compounds having the same functional group but with each successive member differing by CH2.

159
Q

Define functional group

A

A group of atoms responsible for the characteristic reactions of a compound. Molecules with the same functional group are classified into homologous series.

160
Q

Define aliphatic

A

A compound containing carbon and hydrogen joined together in straight chains, branched chains or non-aromatic rings.

161
Q

Define alicyclic

A

An aliphatic compound arranged in non-aromatic rings with or without side chains.

162
Q

Define aromatic

A

A compound containing benzene rings (C6H6).

163
Q

Define saturated

A

Single carbon-carbon bonds only

164
Q

Define unsaturated

A

Contains multiple carbon-carbon bonds

165
Q

Alkanes have the ending ____.

A
  • ene
166
Q

Haloalkanes have the suffix’s ______, _______, ______ or ________.

A
  • chloro
  • bromo
  • fluoro
  • iodo
167
Q

Alcohols have the ending ____ to replace the last e if one functional group is present. If more than one functional groups are present, it begins with ________.

A

-ol

hydroxy-

168
Q

Aldehydes have the ending ____ in the place of the last -e. Aldehydes must always be at the ____ of the chain.

A

-al

End

169
Q

Ketones have the ending -one in place of the last -e. If another functional group is present, the functional group goes at the beginning as ____.

A

Oxo-

170
Q

What is the difference between aldehydes and ketones?

A

The oxygen is at the end of the chain on an aldehyde, but is in the middle of the chain on a ketone.

171
Q

Carboxylic acids have the ending -oic acid. The _____ functional chain must always be at the end of the chain.

A

COOH

172
Q

Nitriles have the ending -ile. Does the C of the CN group count as a carbon on the carbon chain?

A

Yes

173
Q

Amines end in -amine, which becomes ______- if another functional group is present.

A

Amino-

174
Q

Define structural isomerism

A

Compounds with the same molecular formula but a different structural formula.

175
Q

Structural isomers have ________ chemical properties.

A

The same

176
Q

Structural isomers have ________ physical properties.

A

Differing

177
Q

The greater the degree of branching, the _____ the boiling point. Why?

A

Lower

Branching decreases the effectiveness of the intermolecular forces so less energy is needed to separate the molecules.