Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NCS 2021 > Outcome measure flashcards > Flashcards

Outcome measure flashcards

1
Q

What are the highly recommended outcome measures in the acute stage for CVA?

A
  • Orpington prognostic scale
  • 6MWT
  • 10MWT
  • Functional Reach
  • PASS
  • TUG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the highly recommended outcome measures in the IP and OP rehab setting for CVA?

A 
6MWT
10MWT
Functional Reach
PASS
TUG
FIM (IP only)
Goal Attainment Scale
Motor Activity log (upper limb performance)
Stroke Impact Scale (OP only)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the categories for the NIH Stroke Scale

A 
Recommended at all stages and levels of care (grade severity of stroke)
0-42 points total
1-5- Mild
5-14-Moderate
15-24-Severe
>25- very severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the prognostic values for the Orpington Prognostic Scale?

A 
3.2.-5.2= respond better to rehab
<3.2= DC home
>5.2= institutionalized

Acute care setting only!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What score on the Cherokee McMaster Stroke Assessment is indicative of individual being able to ambulate INDEP?

A

> 9 on the postural control and leg scores
Higher scores are better
1 is flaccid and 7 is normal movement
-Out of 100; higher score is better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a typical hand grip strength for normal men/women?

A

100# for men, 65# for women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is the Tinetti Falls Efficacy Scale rated?

A

On a scale from 1-10, 1 very confident and 10 not confident, rate doing following activities without falling

Activity, participation, self reported measure for rating balance confidence

> 70 points- fear of falling
80 points- risk for falling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fugyl-Meyer Score

A

10-25- no fine motor skills required
25-45- working on grasp/release
45-56- work on fine motor skills

(make sure this card is correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Modified Rankin Scale

A

Looks at assistance level required for self care, ADLs, and overall function

  • Self report, observation measure
  • 0-5 (0 no symptoms, 5 bed ridden)

Time to achieve INDEP level
Score of 3= 96 days

(make sure this card is correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What area of the ICF does the Modified Rankin Scale measure?

A

Participation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Barthel Index

A

Shows individual’s ability to care for self
10 ADL items rated based on level of assist the P requires
0-100
Higher the better
Lower admission score= greater change in score at DC
43.7/80.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Functional Ambulation Categories (CVA)

A

Range from 0 (non functional) to 6 (independent)

Activity level measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the average score on Trunk Impairment Scale for non-ambulatory patients?

A

8
Average score for ambulatory patients is 14
Looks at static sitting balance, dynamic sitting balance, and coordination
Range from 0-23 (higher score better)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Modified Ashworth Scale Grading Criteria

A

0- no increase in muscle tone
1- Catch and release at end of ROM
1+- Catch and minimal resistance through < 1/2 of ROM
2- Increased resistance through most of the ROM, affected parts easily moved
3- Passive movement difficult
4-Affected parts rigid in flexion or extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Does the MAS have high reliability or validity in CVA?

A

NOPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the cutoff gait speeds for household vs community ambulators?

A

<0.4 m/sec- household amb
0.4-0.8 m/sec- limited community
>0.8 m/sec- community
>1.2 m/sec- crossing streets and normal walking speed

<1.0 m/sec- need assistance
<0.6 m/sec- DEP in ADLs, more likely to be hospitalized
>1.0 m/sec- INDEP in ADLs, less likely to be hospitalized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 10MWT normative values for self-selected gait speed?

A

1.2-1.4 m/sec?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What score on the BBS indicates greater likelihood of DC to home?

A

20/56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Functional Reach cutoff score for fall risk

A

<6’’ or 15 cm

Activity level measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Postural Assessment Scale for Stroke (PASS)

A

Able to predict functional ability and DC destination better than trunk impairment scale

-Activity and BSF level

12 items
0-36 higher score is better
>12.5 ambulatory at DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What cutoff time on the TUG indicates increased risk for falls in CVA?

A

14 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What cutoff time on the TUG indicates increased risk for falls in community dwelling adults?

A

13.5 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Activity Specific Balance Confidence Scale cutoff score for risk in elderly adults

A

67%

Higher scores indicate increased confidence in one’s balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the ABC cutoff score for falls risk in patients with chronic stroke?

A

81%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a FIM score of 80-96 predictive of?

A

DC home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What range of FIM scores demonstrates higher gains with rehab?

A

37-72

Lowest score is 18, highest score is 126

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dynamic gait index cutoff score for fall risk (CVA)

A

<19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

5x STS cutoff score for fall risk in CVA population

A

> 12 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

5xSTS cutoff score for fall risk in PD population

A

> 16 sec

Floor effect in PD b/c patients can’t stand w/ UEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the key difference between the FIM and the Wolf Motor Function test?

A

Wolf Motor Function test takes into account quality of UE movement

Looks at use of the paretic UE in functional tasks

Scores range from 0-75, higher scores is better functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the normative values for 9 hole peg test?

A 
20-30s- 17 sec
30s-40s- 18 sec
40-50s- 19 sec
50-60s-19- 21 sec
60-70s-21-22 sec
>75- 25 sec
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What walking speed categories INDEP in ADLs?

A

> 1.0 m/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What walking speed categorizes more likely to DC home?

A

> 0.15 m/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the STREAM score categories for DC home?

A

Score of

<63- 0% DC home
63-95- 55% DC home
95-100- 86% DC home

Evaluation of motor function post stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are Mini Mental State Exam Categories?

A

<24 cut off score

None 24-30
Mild 18-24
Severe 0-17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the Motor Activity Log?

A

Self rating of quality and amount of hemiparetic arm use
Activity level
Used in IP and OP rehab setting only

30 daily functional tasks
6 pt ordinal scale
0- not used at all
5-uses normally

Higher score=better quality of movement
out of 180 points?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the Action Research Arm Test?

A

Provides more information on grasp, grip, and pinch
Activity level measure

19 items
out of 57 points
0-cannot perform
3-Normal
Higher score=better functioning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the SIP-30?

A 
Sickness Impact Profile
Assesses perceived health status
Self report
0-100%
Higher score= worse health status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the highly recommended outcome measures or AIS A/B?

A
  • ASIA impairment scale
  • World Health Organization Quality of Life-BREF

**Higher score better QOL (out of 130 points?)
5- best score
26 items?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the highly recommended outcome measures for AIS C/D?

A
  • ASIA impairment scale
  • 6MWT
  • 10MWT
  • TUG
  • Walking Index for SCI II (WISCI II, not >6 months)

WISCI II
0- Unable
5- Parallel bars, braces, no assist, 10 m
8- walker, no braces, 1 person assist, 10 m
10- one cane/crutch, braces, 1 person assist, 10 m
13- walker, no braces, no assist, 10 m
15- one cane/crutch, no brace, 1 person assist
17- no device, no braces, 1 person assist
20- no device, no braces, no assist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What stage post injury is the Walking Index for SCI II recommended?

A

Acute <3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What stage post injury is the World Health Organization Quality of Life-BREF recommended?

A

Chronic >6 months

Activity/participation level measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What muscle strength in the quads indicates use of KAFO vs AFO?

A 
<3= KAFO
>3= AFO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the mean TUG times for paraplegia and tetraplegia?

A

Paraplegia- 20 sec

Tetraplegia- 15 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is the WISCI II scored?

A

Score 0-20
0= unable to stand/participate in walking
20= amb with no AD or assist
Less responsive for higher functioning individuals
Gives more information on bracing and ADs
Activity level measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the SCIM?

A

Spinal cord independence measure
Similar to FIM
Out of 100 points
Activity level measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the SCI FAI

A

SCI Functional Ambulation Inventory

Looks at 3 domains of walking function

  1. gait parameters
  2. Assistive device
  3. Temporal distance

Activity level measure

0-39
Higher score=higher level of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the WUSPI?

A

Wheelchair users shoulder pain index
Score ranges 0-150

15 items
higher scores=greater pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does a high score on the WUSPI indicate?

A

Increased shoulder pain with activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What MMT scores indicate use of specific strength testing measures?

A

> 3/5 use handheld myometry

<2+/5, use MMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What time period post injury has the 6MWT shown the greatest responsiveness?

A

3-6 months post injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the highly recommended outcome measures in the acute care setting for TBI?

A

Coma Recovery Scale
Agitated Behavior Scale
Rancho Levels of Cognitive Functioning
Moss Attention Rating Scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the highly recommended outcome measures in the inpatient setting for TBI?

A

CRS

MARS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the highly recommended outcome measures in the outpatient setting according to TBIEDGE task force?

A

6MWT

Functional Assessment Measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Based on the Coma Recovery Scale, what indicates emergence from minimally conscious state? CRS is also known as the JFK Coma Scale

A

Motor score of 6 or communication score of 2
Can help distinguish vegetative and minimally conscious state as well as determine emergence from minimally conscious state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What Rancho Levels is the CRS appropriate for?

A

Rancho levels I-IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the range of scores on the CRS?

A

0-23

Lower scores= reflexive and brainstem level activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are normative data for 6MWT from 60-90 year olds for healthier age matched controls?

A

400-600 m

1350-1900 ft

59
Q

Disability Rating Scale scoring

A

0-30

higher scores= more disability

60
Q

What is the cutoff score for the Functional Assessment Measure?

A

FAM score <65 indicative of risk for long-term unemployment
Rated on same 7 point scale
Items are more functional
Activity level measure

61
Q

What is the range of scores for ABS?

A 
14-56
<21- WNL
22-28- mild
29-35- moderate
>35- severely agitated
62
Q

What is the cutoff score on the ABS that indicates presence of agitation?

A

> 22

63
Q

Dizziness Handicap Inventory

A

0-100%

Higher score=more disability

64
Q

What specific 2 measures from the CRS are seen as demonstrating emerging MCS?

A
  1. Functional object use

2. Functional/accurate communication

65
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale

A

13-15- mild TBI
9-12- mod TBI
<8- severe TBI
<3- Vegetative state

66
Q

What are the 3 categories scored on the GCS?

A
  1. Motor
  2. Eye opening
  3. Verbal response
67
Q

How is eye opening scored on the GCS?

A
  1. Open spontaneously
  2. Open to speech
  3. Open to pain
  4. Does not open
68
Q

How is verbal response scored on the GCS?

A
  1. Alert and oriented
  2. Confused yet coherent speech
  3. Inappropriate words and jumbled phrases of words
  4. Incomprehensible sounds
  5. No sounds
69
Q

How it the motor response on the GCS scored?

A
  1. Obeys commands fully
  2. Localizes to noxious stimuli
  3. Withdraws from noxious stimuli
  4. Decorticate posturing
  5. Decerebrate posturing
  6. No movement
70
Q

What are the highly recommended outcome measures in PD?

A

Body Structure and Function

  1. MDS-UPDRS part 1 and 3
  2. MOCA

Activity

  1. 6MWT
  2. 10MWT
  3. Mini Best
  4. MDS-UPDRS part 2
  5. FGA
  6. 5xSTS

Participation
1. PDQ 8 or 39

71
Q

What is the cutoff score for risk of falling in PD on 5xSTS?

A

> 16 sec

72
Q

What is the 5xSTS norms for 60-90 year olds?

A

11-15 sec

73
Q

What is the only validated measure of freezing of gait?

A

Freezing of gait questionnaire
Higher scores= greater severity of FOG
self report measure
completed during “on” medication time

scored 0-24; higher scores more severe

74
Q

ABC cutoff scores for PD

A 
<67%= risk of falling
<69%= predictive of recurrent falls
75
Q

What is cognitive and motor dual task that can be combined with the TUG?

A

Cognitive- counting backwards by 3s from number between 20-100
Motor- carrying a cup of water

76
Q

What is the TUG norm in healthy older adults compared to PD?

A

10 sec

77
Q

The TUG is recommended for what stages of PD?

A

H+Y 1-4

78
Q

MDS-UPDRS

A 
Measure of burden and extent of PD, disease severity
Part 1- Mentation, Behavior, and Mood
Part 2- Assessment of ADLs
Part 3- Motor exam
Part 4- Motor complications

Higher score= greater disability

79
Q

What is the mean score on the MDS-UPDRS in the PD population?

A

68

highest score is 108

80
Q

Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCa) cutoff scores

A

<26/30 Mild cog deficit

Cutoff score for PD-Dementia- 22/30

81
Q

Mini best Test

A

Cut off score for prospective fallers 16/32

Assessment of dynamic balance

82
Q

FGA cutoff score to identify fallers in PD population

A

15/30

83
Q

Normative date for FGA score for healthy adults

A

24-28/30

84
Q

What is the cut off score for fall risk in PD on the BBS?

A

No specific established cut off score in the PD population

85
Q

The BERG is recommended for what stages of PD?

A

H+Y Stage II-III

86
Q

PDQ 9 or PDQ 39

A

Lower score=better QOL

Participation levels

87
Q

What score reflects improved QOL on PDQ-39 or PDQ-8?

A

Lower scores reflect better QOL

88
Q

ALS-FRS (Functional rating scale)

A

Higher score, better functioning

Out of 40 points total

89
Q

Unified Huntington Disease Rating Scale (UHDRS)

A

Higher score= worse functioning

90
Q

What is the cutoff score for increase fall risk in HD on the Berg?

A

40/56

91
Q

What are the highly recommended outcome measures for MS population?

A 
6MWT
MSWS-12 (for EDSS up to 7.5)
DHI (OP only)
MS Functional Composite (OP only)
MS QOL
MSIS-29
92
Q

What type of measure is the MSWS-12? MS walking scale

A 
Self reported measure of impact of MS on walking ability
Higher score is worse functioning
Score 1-5
5= extremely limited
Activity level measure
out of 60 points?
93
Q

What was the average score on the MSWS-12 for fallers?

A

Score of 75/100

94
Q

What comprises the MS Functional Composite?

A
  1. Timed 25-foot walk test
  2. 9 Hole peg test
  3. Paced Auditory Serial Addition test

Only in OP setting
BSF/Activity level

95
Q

MSQOL-54

A

Contains items from the SF 36 with 18 new items added
Activity and participation level
self report

Higher score= improved QOL
0-100

96
Q

What is the normative value for the 6MWT in MS?

A

385 m (1260 ft)

97
Q

What is normative values for healthy male adults between 60 to 80 on 6MWT?

A

400-600 m (1360 ft)

98
Q

What is the cutoff score on the ABC to discriminate fallers?

A

<67%

99
Q

Wha is the cutoff score on the DHI

A

<59%

Well researched in OUTPATIENT setting for MS

100
Q

What score on the DGI is indicative of fall risk in MS?

A

<12/24 points

MCID-2 points

101
Q

What is the purpose of the EDSS?

A

Scale of disease severity in MS, NOT to be used as an outcome measure

102
Q

Expanded Disability Status Scale (EDSS) scoring

A
  1. No disability, minimal signs
  2. Minimal disability
  3. Moderate disability
  4. Ambulatory without aid or rest 500 m
  5. Ambulatory without aid or rest 200 m
  6. Intermittent or unilateral constant assistance required for 100 m
  7. 5- Constant bilateral assistance
  8. unable to ambulate 5 meters with aid, wheels self in WC, transfers alone
  9. restricted to WC , OOB most of day
  10. Helpless in bed, can communicate and eat
  11. Death d/t MS
103
Q

Fatigue Scale for Motor and Cognitive Functions

FSMC

A

Higher score means what?

Recommended in all treatment settings

104
Q

MSIS-29

A

Self report measure asking impact of MS on day to day life
Score of 1= not at all
Score of 5= extremely

Higher score= worse function
max score of 100
Participation level measure

105
Q

What are the normative values for the Box and blocks test?

A

Range from 83-61
83 blocks for people in their 40s
61 blocks for people in their 70s

106
Q

What are the 5xSTS cutoff scores in MS?

A 
<20 = INDEP for basic transfers
<30= DEP on transfers, do not go out alone
107
Q

What is the cutoff score for fall risk on the 5xSTS in the vestibular population?

A

15 sec

108
Q

What are the cutoff scores for the DHI? Vestibular population

A

Mild: 0-30
Moderate: 31-60
Severe: 61-100

109
Q

What is the cutoff score for fall risk on the miniBEST for vestibular population?

A

<19 = recurrent fallers

110
Q

What is the cutoff score for balance impairments in vestibular dysfunction on the BERG?

A

<45

111
Q

What is the cutoff for fall risk on the FSST for vestibular population?

A

What is FSST?

> 12 sec

112
Q

What is the cutoff for fall risk on the DGI for vestibular population?

A

<19/24

113
Q

What is the cutoff for fall risk on the FGA for vestibular population?

A

22/30

15/30 in the PD population

114
Q

What is the cutoff for fall risk on the TUG in vestibular population?

A

> 11 sec

115
Q

What is considered a positive result on the Dynamic Visual Acuity test/

A

> 2 lines ??

measure of VOR function

116
Q

What is considered a positive result on the Head impulse test?

A

Hypo/hyper metric corrective saccades
Hypo- peripheral hypofunction
Hyper- central

Measure of VOR function

117
Q

When to use Frenzel lenses?

A

In peripheral lesion, person can suppress nystagmus in room light after 1 month

118
Q

What is the cut off for fall risk in the ABC for vestibular population?

A

<67%

119
Q

CISTB for vestibular conditions

A

Clinical version of the Sensory Organization Test

  1. firm surface, EO
  2. Firm surface, EC
  3. firm surface, dome
  4. foam surface, EO
  5. foam surface, EC,
  6. foam surface, dome
120
Q

What are 2 screening tests done in infants until 12 months of developmental delays?

A

Albert Infant Motor Scale (AIMS)

Harris Infant Neuromotor Test (HINTS)

121
Q

What age is the TIMP used for?

A

Infants <4 months old

Test of infant motor performance

122
Q

What ages is the Peabody Developmental Motor Scales used for?

A

0-7 years old

123
Q

What measure assesses motor milestones through adulthood?

A

BOT 2

Ages 4-21

124
Q

What is the PEDI?

A

Pediatric evaluation of disability

Detect functional limitations and disability in age appropriate independence

125
Q

What population is the GMFM used for?

A

CP

126
Q

What are confidence intervals?

A

Range of values; probability that the value of a parameter lies within it. EX. Sample mean 0.32 w/ SD of +/- 0.09. 95% confident that tread depth is between 0.25 and 0.384

127
Q

What is effect size?

A

Magnitude of an intervention reflected by an index value; indep of sample size. Calculates the power of a relationship between 2 variables. How much percentage of the population falls under than percentage.

128
Q

What is efficacy?

A

Performance of an intervention under ideal and controlled circumstances?

129
Q

What is a false negative?

A

A test result which incorrectly indicates that a particular condition is absent

130
Q

What is a false positive?

A

A test result which incorrectly indicates that a particular condition is present.

131
Q

What is a P-value?

A

Chance that your result could be due to chance; closer to 0 you are more confident they are difference

132
Q

What is reliability?

A

Result of a measurement can be depended on to be precise; overall consistency of a measure; high reliability if produces similar results under consistent conditions

133
Q

What is validity?

A

The instrument measures what is was designed to measure

134
Q

What is nominal data?

A

2 categories; no ranking relationship; ex boy or girl; yes or no

135
Q

What is ordinal data?

A

Has order but no rank; ex. agree, strongly agree

136
Q

What is interval data?

A

Has order and rank; ex. 1-4, 5-8, 9-12

137
Q

What is ratio data?

A

Has rank, order, and countable (weight, temp, or age)

138
Q

What are different analysis types?

A

Parametric- data is normally distributed; test group means

Non parametric- test group medians, can be used with smaller sample sizes

139
Q

What is sensitivity vs. specificity

A

Sensitivity- The % of P’s who have the disease that test positive; high sensitivity= few false negatives

Specificity- the % of P’s who do not have the disease who test negative

140
Q

What is the Positive Likelihood ratio?

A

The probability of a P w/ the disease and a positive test divided by probability of a P without the disease and a positive test
The higher the value, the more likely the patient has the condition. As an example, let’s say a positive test result has an LR of 9.2. This result is 9.2 times more likely to happen in a patient with the condition than it would in a patient without the condition

141
Q

What is the Negative Likelihood ratio?

A

The probability of a person with disease testing negative divided by probability of a person without the disease testing negative
Negative LR: This tells you how much to decrease the probability of having a disease, given a negative test result.

Values between 0 and 1 decrease the probability of disease (−LR)		
0.1	−45%	Large decrease
0.2	−30%	Moderate decrease
0.5	−15%	Slight decrease
1	−0%	None
Values greater than 1 increase the probability of disease (+LR)		
1	+0%	None
2	+15%	Slight increase
5	+30%	Moderate increase
10	+45%	Large increase
142
Q

What is the effect size?

A

Indep of a sample size. Odds ratio- odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure compared to odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure

Values>1= stronger in favor

143
Q

What is the Scale for Assessment and Rating of Ataxia?

A

0- no ataxia

40-severe ataxia

NCS 2021 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions