Otologic Anatomy/Develop, Hearing loss Flashcards
List the TORCH infections
Toxoplasmosis
Other: VZV, Syphillis
Rubella
CMV
HSV
What are the complications and features of congenital rubella? 7
- Blueberry muffin skin rash (anemia, thrombocytopenia)
- SNHL
- Retinitis/keratitis/cataracts
- Hepatosplenomegaly/jaundice/hepatitis
- Mental retardation
- Microcephaly
- Still-birth
“Blueberry for Rubella”
What is the differential diagnosis for pediatric SNHL?
UNILATERAL:
1. Structural (absent nerve, EVA, labyrinth/cochlea) - 50% cochlear nerve absent in congenital profound unilateral SNHL
2. Traumatic
3. X-linked gusher
4. Viral (CMV)
BILATERAL:
1. EVA
2. Structural
3. Viral (CMV, Rubella, TORCHES)
4. Meningitis
5. Ototoxicity
6. Jaundice
7. Prematurity
8. Idiopathic
9. Congenital
What is the incidence of congenital hearing loss?
2-3/1000
What is the differential diagnosis for congenital hearing loss?
ACQUIRED (1/3)
- TORCH infections - CMV 21% most common
- Hypoxia (≤5 APGAR at 5 minutes)
- Meningitis, sepsis
- Ototoxicity
- Hyperbilirubinemia
- Low birth weight
HEREDITARY (2/3)
A. SYNDROMIC (1/4)
Autosomal Dominant “BTOWNS”
- BOR
- Treacher collins
- Otosclerosis
- Waardenburg
- NF2
- Stickler
Autosomal Recessive “UPJ”
- Usher
- Pendred
- Jervell Lange Neilsen
X-linked “WilD (very) ON Alberta”
- Wildervanks
- Deafness Dystonia
- Oculopalatodigital syndrome
- Norrie syndrome
- Alport
Mitochondria:
- A1555G mutation
- MIDD
- MELAS
B. NON-SYNDROMIC (3/4)
- Connexin 26 - GJB2 mutation
- Connexin 30 - GJB6 mutation
- Others (30%)
What are the top two most common CT abnormal findings in SNHL?
1) Enlarged vestibular aqueduct
2) Mondini malformation
What is the most common histological cochlear abnormality associated with SNHL
Schiebe’s anomaly (cochlear membranous dysplasia)
Describe the embryology of the inner ear
ECTODERMAL (Membranous labyrinth)
- Otic placode (ectoderm from hindbrain) invaginates to form otic pit
- Edges of the otic pit then fuse to form the otic vesicle (aka otocyst) which forms into the membrane labyrinth
- Otic vesicle then divides into two parts:
1. Endolymphatic diverticulum (endolymphatic duct and sac)
2. Utriculosaccular chamber (utricular chamber gives rise to utricle and SCCs; saccular chamber gives off saccule and cochlea)
MESODERMAL (Bony labyrinth)
- Mesoderm around otic cyst forms a cartilaginous otic capsule
- This vacuolates to form the scala tympani and scala vestibuli (perilymphatics)
- Week 15 - staples footplate forms
- Week 23 - ossifies to form bony labyrinth
Timing of development:
1. Otic placde at 3 weeks
2. Otic pit at 4 weeks
3. Otic vesicle at 5 weeks
4. Cochlear duct at 8 weeks
5. Saccule at 11 weeks
6. Endolyphatic duct at 11 weeks
7. Utricle at 11 weeks
8. SCC at 19-22 weeks
9. Labyrinthine ossification occurs at 23 weeks
10. Total development at 26 weeks
When do the following otologic structures reach adult size?
1. Pinna
2. EAC
3. TM
4. Ossicles & Petrous Temporal Bone
5. Mastoid Antrum
6. Eustachian Tube
- Pinna - Near adult size at 4-5 year (95%), full size by 9 years
- EAC - Incomplete ossification at birth leads to increased compliance on impedance audiometry until age 6 months
- TM - adult sized at birth, horizontal because of incomplete ossification of EAC, vertical position reached by 2 years
- Ossicles & Petrous Temporal Bone - adult sized at birth
- Mastoid Antrum - present at birth, increase in size during 1st year, pneumatization continues into childhood, fully developed mastoid & styloid by 3 years
- Eustachian Tube
- At birth: 50% adult length, 10angle from the horizontal, enters nasopharynx at hard palate level
- 5-7 years: lateral portion rises, tube lengthens and widens, reaches a 45deg angle with the horizontal, enters nasopharynx at inferior turbinate level
Describe the anatomy of the eustachian tube:
1. Length in adults/kids and diameter
2. % bony/cartilaginous
3. Angle and location of entry
4. What is the Torus Tubarius
5. What is the Rosenmuller’s fossa?
- Length: 36mm adults, 18mm long infants
- 1/3 bony (lateral), 2/3 cartilaginous (medial)
- Wide at both ends, narrow in the midportion at the isthmus (1x2mm)
- Lateral end 4mm above floor of protympanum, relatively horizontal, meets cartilaginous portion at 160deg angle, cartilaginous portion then descends at a 40-45deg angle, 45deg off sagittal, into the nasopharynx
Torus Tubarius:
- Formed by soft tissue overlying the medial cartilaginous end of the tube
Rosenmuller’s fossa:
- Nasopharyngeal mucosal fold found posterior to torus
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What are the differences between pediatric and adult ET that make them more prone to middle ear disease?
- a. Peds ET are more horizontal (more acute angle against the horizontal), therefore more difficult to drain the middle ear (less gravity dependent than adults)
- b. Peds ET is narrower than adults (more difficult to drain)
- c. Peds ET osseous-cartilaginous junction is more inline so the geometry of the TVP muscle attachment to the tube cartilage is altered and therefore less effective
- d. Peds ET has more dense cartilage with less elastin
- e. Ostmann’s fat pad, located laterally to the lateral wall of the tube’s cartilage, is relatively more massive in children.
- f. Mucosa is thicker and more folded in children.
- g. Children’s tube submucosa is characterized by more developed lymphoid tissue aggregations that form the tubal tonsil.
- h. Peds ET may be obstructed by larger adenoids in the pediatric population compared to adults, as well as increased URTI/risk of adenoiditis, worsening their symptoms
- i. Other differences: increased viral infection in children, increased mucous production, allergic rhinitis, Bottle feeding and pacifier usage, especially when breathing from the nose is obstructed, can create a Toynbee phenomenon that leads to negative pressure in the middle ear.
Peds ET tubes are: “FLAT HONDs”
F - fatter (Ostmann’s fat pad is bigger)
L - lymphoid tissue aggregations from tubal tonsil
A - adenoids larger may cause obstruct
T - thicker mucosa
H - horizontal
O - Osseous-cartilaginous junction is more “inline” so TVP muscle attachment is altered and less effective
N - narrower
D - denser cartilage with less elastin
What are four muscles related to the eustachian tube and their innervation? Which one is the main dilator?
- Tensor veli palatini (V3) - medial head is the main eustachian tube dilator
- Levator veli palatini (X)
- Tensor tympani (V3)
- Salpingopharyngeus (originates off torus tubarius, interdigitates with palatopharyngeus) - (X)
Describe the anatomy of the tensor veli palatini
Lateral Head:
- Origin from scaphoid fossa & greater sphenoid wing
- Swings anteriorly, laterally and inferiorly
- Tendon around the hamulus
- Inserts onto posterior hard palate and palatine aponeurosis
Medial Head (main ET dilator):
- Extends from lateral lamina of torus tubarius to hamulus
- Contraction opens eustachian tube, by lateralization of lateral lamina of torus
- Activated by swallowing/yawning
Good image of Hamulus: https://www.earthslab.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/02/plates-of-Pterygoid-process.jpg
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What are the functions of the Eustachian tube 4
- Pressure regulation/ventilation
- Maintains low O2 and high nitrogen concentrations in the middle ear
- Protection from nasopharyngeal reflux
- Drainage of middle ear secretions via mucociliary transport mechanism
Discuss the pediatric milestones for receptive and expressive speech
1 month:
- Random activity arrested by sound
- Random vocalization (vowel sounds)
6 months:
- Recognize words, “mama”, “bye bye”
- Vocal protest, squeal delight
12 months:
- Recognize Familiar objects by name
- Respond with gestures
18 months:
- Identify and pick out familiar objects when named
- Uses words more than gestures for desires
24 months:
- Understands complex sentences and follows 2-step commands
- Refers to self by name and links 2 words “hi mommy”
What is the etiology of pediatric hearing loss and percentage of cases?
A. GENETIC (50%)
- Syndromic (30%)
- AD 20%
- AR 80%
- X-linked 1% - Non-Syndromic (70%)
- AD 20%
- AR 80%
- X-linked 1%
- Mitochondrial 1%
B. ENVIRONMENTAL (25%)
C. IDIOPATHIC (25%)
For normal parents that have a child with SNHL, what is the chances of having further children with SNHL (all comers)?
14%
Discuss the history and physical exam for patients with suspected congenital hearing loss
HISTORY:
1. Parents, siblings, or cousins with hearing loss (under age 30)
2. Family history of pigment abnormalities
3. Widely spaced eyes
4. Blood or protein in urine or other kidney problems
5. Blindness or night blindness
6. Goiter
7. Childhood fainting, LOC, sudden unexplained death history
PHYSICAL EXAM:
1. Complete head and neck exam
2. Pigmentation abnormalities
3. Eye exam (hypertelorism, coloboma, epibulbar dermoids, etc.)
4. Ears (pinna, EAC atresia, preauricular pits)
5. Oral (cleft palate, teeth)
6. Neck (goiter)
What are high risk factors for congenital hearing loss?
- Prematurity
- Birth weight < 1500g
- TORCH infections (Toxoplasmosis, Other (Syphilis), Rubella, CMV, Herpes Simplex)
- Hyperbilirubinemia
- Intubation or use of breathing machine > 5 days
- Low Apgar scores < 4 at 1 min; ≤5 at 5 min
- Hypoxia
- ECMO
- NICU admission
- Family history
- Presence of head and neck abnormalities/ craniofacial abnormalities
- Meningitis
- Sepsis
- Ototoxic exposure
“SCHAME LION PFTH”
S - Sepsis
C - Craniofacial abnormalities or other head/neck abnormalities
H - Hypoxia
A - Apgar score < 4 at 1 min, ≤5 at 5 min
M - Meningitis
E - ECMO use
L - Low birth weight < 1500g
I - Intubation or use of breathing machine > 5 days
O - Ototoxic exposure
N - NICU admission
P - Prematurity
F - Family history of hearing loss
T - TORCH infections
H - Hyperbilirubinemia
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Discuss the JCIH 2007 Position Statement for the Universal Hearing Loss Screening guidelines
GUIDELINES BY AGE:
1. By 1 month - Hearing screening complete (NICU admission > 5d: ABR; Well-baby: OAE)
2. By 3 months - Audiological and medical evaluation to confirm hearing loss in infants who failed the screening
3. By 6 months: Intervention for hearing loss
- Definition of “Targeted hearing loss” is expanded to include neural hearing loss (e.g. auditory neuropathy/dyssynchrony)
- Auditory Brainstem Response screenings (ABR) are recommended for all NICU babies and babies admitted for > 5 days
- Referrals should be made directly to an audiologist for comprehensive testing to include a diagnostic ABR for all infants who do not pass ABR screening in the NICU
- Re-screening of all infants should include re-evaluation of both ears, even if the infant only failed one ear in the initial screening
- Audiologists with expertise in evaluating newborns should conduct diagnostic evaluations
- All children identified with hearing loss should undergo an evaluation by an Otolaryngologist
- At least one examination to assess visual acuity with a pediatric Ophthalmologist
- All children with any degree of bilateral or unilateral hearing loss should be considered eligible for early intervention services
- Families should be made aware of all communication options and available hearing technologies (presented in an unbiased manner)
- Early intervention services should be provided by professionals with expertise in hearing loss
- Children identified with hearing loss should be fit with amplification within 1 month of diagnosis
- A genetics consultation should be offered to families of infants diagnosed with hearing loss
Regarding OAEs for hearing screening:
1. What is the sensitivity and specificity?
2. What types are used?
3. What hearing does it estimate?
4. When are they absent?
Sensitivity = 95%
Specificity = 85%
- TEOAE (Transient evoked OAEs) used most often
- DPOAE (Distortion Product OAEs) being used more
- Estimates hearing in 1-6kHz range, can go higher
- OAEs are absent in conductive hearing loss
What are two factors affecting impedence tympanography in neonates?
- Incomplete ossification of the EAC causing greater compliance
- Persistence of middle ear fluid or mesenchyme
Regarding ABR for hearing screens, discuss:
1. Sensitivity and sepcificity
2. What range of hearing does it estimate? What does it required?
3. Which waves are seen in a child’s ABR? At what age does it reach adult levels?
Sensitivity = 98%
Specificity = 96%
- Estimates hearing in 1-4kHz range
- Requires natural sleep or conscious sedation (Chloral hydrate)
- Newborn ABR composed of waves I, III, V
- ABR reaches adult levels by 18 months to 3 years
What are four pediatric cochlear implantation criteria for children 12-24 months?
- Bilateral profound hearing loss (>90dB)
- Lack of auditory skills development and minimal hearing aid benefit (documented by parent questionnaire)
- No medical contraindications
- Enrollment in a thearpy of education program emphasizing auditory development
Four pediatric cochlear implantation criteria for children 25 months to 17 years?
- Bilateral severe to profound hearing loss (>70dB)
- Lack of auditory skills development and minimal hearing aid benefit (word recognition scores < 30% correct)
- No medical contraindications
- Enrollment in a therapy of education program emphasizing auditory development
Discuss the AAOHNS pediatric Cochlear Implantation criteria
- Be 9 months to 17 years of age (new 9 months, used to be 12)
- Infants age 9-24 months: bilateral, profound hearing loss with thresholds of >90dB at 1000Hz
- Children 24mos-17 years: Bilateral severe to profound (>70dB) hearing loss
- Infants and older children
- Appropriate auditory amplification and participation in intensive aural habilitation for 3-6 months; AND
- Demonstrate lack of progress in simple auditory skills; AND
- Have < 30% correct on the multi-syllabic lexical neighbourhood test (MLNT) or lexical neighbourhood test (LNT), depending on the child’s cognitive and linguistic abilities (best aided function)
A 3-6 month trial of appropriate hearing aids is required.
- If meningitis is the cause of hearing loss, or if there is radiologic evidence of cochlear ossification, a shorter hearing aid trial and earlier implantation may be reasonable
What are the required immunizations prior to cochlear implantation? 3
- Hemophilus Influenzae B vaccine
- Pneumococcal vaccination series should be completed at least 2 weeks before surgery
- Age ≤ 24 months - PCV7 or PCV13 (pneumococcal conjugate vaccine)
- Age 24-59 months (before 5yo) - PCV7 or PCV13, then 2 months later get PPV23 (pneumococcal polysaccharide)
- Age 5-64 - PPV 23
Note: Prevnar has replaced Prevnar 7, adding six new serotypes to the vaccine
What are the indications for bone conducted hearing aids?
- Intolerance to traditional hearing aids
- Draining ear
- Chronic/recurrent otitis externa
- Mastoid cavity (Feedback issues)
- Dermatitis due to hearing aids (topical sensitivity) - Inability to wear hearing aids
- Microtia/atresia
- Acquired stenosis
- Large meatoplasty/CWD mastoids that do not fit a HA - Hearing related:
- Single sided deafness
- Conductive hearing loss in an only hearing ear
- Unilateral SNHL
- Otosclerosis
What are four indications for imaging in pediatric hearing loss?
- Evaluation for cochlear implantation (nerve and cochlea)
- Recurrent meningitis (look for labyrinthitis ossificans)
- Sudden or progressive SNHL (especially with head trauma)
- Impact on counselling (e.g. atresia?)
Describe the classification for congenital inner ear malformations?
A. Membranous inner ear malformations (80%)
- Complete membranous labyrinthine dysplasia (Bing-Siebenmann)
- Limited membranous labyrinthine dysplasia, such as:
1. Cochleosaccular dysplasia (Sheibe)
2. Cochlear basal turn dysplasia (Alexander)
B. Malformations of the osseous and membranous labyrinth (20%)
- Complete labyrinthine aplasia (Michel)
- Cochlear anomalies:
1. Cochlear aplasia
2. Cochlear hypoplasia
3. Incomplete partition (Mondini)
4. Common cavity
C. Labyrinthine anomalies
- SCC dysplasia
- SCC aplasia
D. Aqueductal anomalies
- Enlarged vestibular aqueduct
- Enlarged cochlear aqueduct
E. IAC anomalies
- Narrow IAC
- Wide IAC
F. 8th nerve anomalies
- Hypoplasia
- Dysplasia
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