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OTOLARYNGOLOGY > OTO TEST > Flashcards

OTO TEST Flashcards

1
Q

Chronic Eustacian Tube Dysfunction can lead to what other condition of the ear?

A

Cholesteatoma, or Serous Otitis Media

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2
Q

Viral URI can lead to what secondary bacterial infection of the ear?

A

Acute Otitis Media

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3
Q

Repeated exposure to cold water can cause what condition of the ear?

A

Exostoses

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4
Q

If you palpate the ear and the patient experiences pain, which ear condition is most likely the cause?

A

External Otitis

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5
Q

Bilateral high frequency hearing loss occurring in middle age is most likely to be caused by what?

A

Presbycusis

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6
Q

If weber lateralizes to the RIGHT, and the BC>AC in the RIGHT (negative Rinne) what would your conclusion be?

A

Conductive Hearing Loss in the RIGHT Ear

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7
Q

If Weber lateralizes to the RIGHT and the AC>BC in the RIGHT(Positive Rinne) what would your conclusion be?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss in the LEFT Ear

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8
Q

External Otitis may evolve into what more serious condition?

A

Malignant External Otitis

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9
Q

What 6 conditions should you worry about regarding the External Ear (at least as far as this course is concerned)?

A
  1. Cerumen Impaction
  2. External Otitis Media
  3. Foreign Body
  4. Malignant External Otitis
  5. Exostoses
  6. Pruritis
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10
Q

What 2 disorders of the Eustachian Tube should you be familiar with?

A
  1. Auditory Tube Dysfunction

2. Barotrauma

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11
Q

What 5 disorders of the INNER Ear should you be familiar with?

A
  1. Tinnitus
  2. Noise Trauma
  3. Acoustic Neuroma
  4. Presbycusis
  5. Vertigo
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12
Q

What are the 4 different types of Vertigo?

A
  1. Meniere Syndrome
  2. Labrynthitis
  3. Vestibular Neuronitis
  4. Postitional Vertigo
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13
Q

What are the 8 different types of MIDDLE Ear Disorders we should be familiar with?

A
  1. Acute Otitis Media
  2. Chronic Otitis Media
  3. Serous Otitis Media
  4. Cholesteatoma
  5. Perforated Tympanic Membrane
  6. Mastoiditis
  7. Otosclerosis
  8. Hemotympanum
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14
Q

Which tuning fork do you use for the Weber and Rinne Test?

A

512 Hz

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15
Q

Painful erythema and edema of the ear canal with purulent exudate is most likely what?

A

External Otitis

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16
Q

_____________ is particularly more likely in a diabetic or immunocompromised patients following external otitis

A

Malignant External Otitis

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17
Q

External Otitis is usually caused by Gram ______ Bacteria or Fungus

A

Negative (specifically rods)

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18
Q

Osteomyelitis of the skull base is also called what?

A

Malignant External Otitis

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19
Q

Malignant External Otitis is usually caused by what bacteria?

A

Pseudomonas Auruginosa

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20
Q

______________ usually presents with persistent foul aural discharge, granulomas in the ear canal, deep otalgia, and in progressed states, palsies involving cranial nerves.

A

Malignant External Otitis

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21
Q

Skin covered bony mounds in the ear are often called…

A

Exostoses

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22
Q

The most common neoplasm of the ear canal is?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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23
Q

Aural fullness, fluctuating hearing, and discomfort with barometric pressure changes are all signs of __________?

A

Eustachian tube dysfunction

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24
Q

Retraction and decreased mobility of the tympanic membrane is a sign of?

A

Eustacian Tube Dysfunction

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25
Q

If a blocked eustacian tube remains for a prolonged period of time, the resultant negative pressure will result in?

A

transudation of fluid (Serous Otitis Media)

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26
Q

________ is especially more common in children because their eustachian tubes are narrower and more horizontal in orientation than adults

A

Serous Otitis Media

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27
Q

Otalgia (often accompanying a URI) and erythema and hypomobility of the tympanic membrane are signs of…

A

Acute Otitis Media

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28
Q

Chronic otorrhea (usually WITHOUT pain) accompanying tympanic membrane perforation (usually) AND conductive hearing loss is a sign of what?

A

Chronic Otitis Media

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29
Q

The most common pathogens causing Acute Otitis Media are:

A

Strep Pneumonia
H Influenza
Strep Pyogenes

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30
Q

The most common pathogens causing Chronic Otitis Media are:

A

P Aeruginosa
Proteus Species
Staph Aureus

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31
Q

Purulent Aural Discharge is a hallmark sign of what?

A

Chronic Otitis Media

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32
Q

When the upper portion of the tympanic membrane draws inward (due to chronic infection or congenitial reasons) and creates a sac that can become infected with gunk is called:

A

Cholesteatoma

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33
Q

Acute Otitis Media left untreated for several weeks will usually lead to what complication?

A

Mastoiditis

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34
Q

Postauricular pain and erythema accompanied by a spiking fever is a classic sign of what?

A

Mastoiditis

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35
Q

Creating a “mastoid bowl” is a surgery used to fix what?

A

Cholesteatoma

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36
Q

Conductive Hearing Loss with an otherwise normal exam is ________________ until proven otherwise

A

Otosclerosis

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37
Q

Lesions on the footplate of the stapes is known as?

A

Otosclerosis

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38
Q

The Management of Otosclerosis is with a hearing aid or what surgical procedure?

A

Stapedectomy

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39
Q

The most commonly used ototoxic medications are:

A

Aminoglycosides
Loop Diuretics
Several Antieoplastic agents

40
Q

______________ is the second most common cause of SENSORY hearing loss. . .

A

Noise Trauma

41
Q

Noise trauma over ___________ dB is potentially injurious to the cochlea

42
Q

The most common cause of genetic deafness is do the the _________ mutation

A

Connexin-26

43
Q

The most likely pathogens causing external otitis are?

A

Pseudomonas
Proteus
Aspergillus (Fungi)

44
Q

Persistent ________ (although not always) often indicates the presence of sensory hearing loss.

45
Q

Asymmetrical (unilateral) sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and desequilibrium are signs of what?

A

Acoustic Neuroma (Vestibular Schwannoma)

46
Q

Vertigo is typically experienced as a _________ sensation

47
Q

A diet low in __________ is recommended for someone who suffers from Meniere Syndrome

48
Q

A single attack of vertigo occurring without impairment of auditory function and persisting for several days to a week before gradually clearing is most likely due to what form of Vertigo?

A

Vestibular Neuronitis

49
Q

An acute onset of continuous vertigo lasting several days to a week, accompanied with hearing loss and tinnitus (and a gradual improvement over several weeks) is most likely due to what form of vertigo?

A

Labrynthitis

50
Q

Episodic vertigo with spells lasting 20 minutes to several hours with fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and the sensation of unilateral aural pressure is most likely due to what form of vertigo?

A

Meniere Syndrome

51
Q

Recurrent spells of vertigo lasting under several minutes and associated with changes in head position is most likely associated with what form of vertigo?

A

Positioning vertigo

52
Q

What is the main difference between Vestibular Neuronitis and Labrynthitis?

A

Vestibular Neuronitis is WITHOUT impairment of auditory function and Labrynthitis is accompanied with hearing loss and tinnitus

53
Q

What are the components of the Samter’s triad?

A

Asthma
Polyps
Aspirin
(they don’t mix!)

54
Q

Persistence of cold symptoms beyond 10 days accompanied both by purulent green or yellow nasal secretions and unilateral facial or tooth pain is suggestive of what condition?

A

Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis (sinusitis)

55
Q

What are the typical pathogens of acute sinusitis?

A

Strep
H influenza
Staph Aureus (less common)

56
Q

Bacterial Rhinosinusitis can be differentiated from Viral Rhinitis by persistence of symptoms more than ________ days after onset or worsening of symptoms within _____ days of initial improvement

57
Q

Acute infections are defined as those lasting less than _____ weeks

58
Q

Subacute Infections are those lasting between _______ and _______ weeks

59
Q

Opthalmoplegia, Chemosis, and visual loss are signs of what sinus condition?

A

Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis

60
Q

Inflammation of the nasal vestibule may result from folliculitis of the hairs that line the nose is called __________ and can be caused by nasal manipulation and hair trimming

A

Nasal Vestibulitis

61
Q

The common pathogen causing Nasal Vestibulitis is

A

Staph Aureus

62
Q

Someone with symptoms similar to acute bacterial rhinosinusitis but with more severe facial pain and clear or straw colored nasal drainage is most likely to have?

A

Rhinocerebral mucormycosis (fungal infection of the nose) most likely to be seen in immunocompromised patients

63
Q

A black eschar on the middle turbinate is most likely caused by?

A

Rhinocerebral mucormycosis

64
Q

A nasal fracture may lead to what other complication of the nose?

A

Septal hematoma

65
Q

_________ which are yellowish boggy masses of hypertrophic mucosa are associated with long-standing allergic rhinitis

A

Nasal Polyps

66
Q

On physical examination, the turbinites of a person suspected of Allergic Rhinitis should look. . .

A

pale and boggy

67
Q

Clear rhinorrhea in response to multiple stimuli like light, hot and cold air, scents, stress, or alcohol use is most likely to be diagnosed as. . .

A

Vasomotor Rhinitis

68
Q

Symptoms of sinusitis persisting at least 8 weeks despite numerous treatment attempts is classified as…

A

Chronic Sinusitis

69
Q

JAMA’s Four Diagnostic Criteria points for Sinusitis

A
  1. Abnormal Transillumination
  2. Purulent Nasal Discharge
  3. Maxillary/toothache
  4. Poor Response to Decongestant
70
Q

A widening of the anterior septum following a trauma to the nose should be diagnostic of. .

A

Septal Hematoma

71
Q

The _________ bone is the most frequently fractured bone in the body.

72
Q

Septal Hematoma left untreated can result in what deformity?

A

Saddle Nose Deformity

73
Q

Anterior Epistaxis is considered a nose problem, whereas Posterior Epistaxis is considered a ___________ problem.

A

Cardiovascular

74
Q

Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis is a terrible complication of what more common condition?

A

Acute Bacterial Sinusitis

75
Q

A white lesion in the mouth that cannot be removed by rubbing the mucosal surface is called.. .

A

Leukoplakia

76
Q

A similar lesion to leukoplakia except that it has an erythematous comnponent is called:

A

Erythroplakia

77
Q

Lacy Leukoplakia that may be erosive (and usually requires a biopsy for definitive diagnosis) is called:

A

Oral Lichen Planus

78
Q

What type of leukoplakia is a common early finding in HIV infection?

A

Hairy Leukoplakia

79
Q

Creamy white “curd-like” patches in the mouth overlying erythematous mucosa is indicative of what oral condition?

A

Oral Candidiasis

PS - the white areas are easily rubbed off

80
Q

Patients with no known predisposing factor for Candida overgrowth should be tested for what possible underlying condition?

81
Q

A red, smooth surfaced tongue is a sign of what?

82
Q

What are several causes of glossitis?

A 
Deficiency (niacin, riboflavin, iron, or Vit E)
drug rxtn
dehydration
autoimmune reaction
psoriasi
83
Q

What is Glossodynia?

A

Burning and pain of the tongue

84
Q

Painful round ulcerations with yellow-gray fibrinoid centers surrounded by red halos and appear on freely moving non keratinized mucosa are usually diagnosed as. .

A

Aphthous Ulcer (Ulcerative Stomatitis, Canker Sore)

85
Q

Initial burning followed by small vesicles that rupture and form scabs found on the attached gingiva and mucocutaneous junction of the lip is a sign of what?

A

Herpetic Stomatitis

86
Q

A mouth condition commonly affecting young adults under stress is called:

A

Vincent’s Infection (necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis)

87
Q

Painful acute gingival inflammation and necrosis, often with bleeding, halitosis, fever and cervical lymphadenopathy is a sign of . . .

A

Vincent’s Infection (necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis)

88
Q

What are the pathogens causing herpangina and Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease?

A

Coxsackievirus and enterovirus

89
Q

Sudden onset fever as high as 40.6 C (sometimes with convulsions) accompanied with headache, myalgia, vomiting, and sore throat (due to petechiae or papules on soft palate that can ulcerate) is a sign of what?

A

Herpangina

90
Q

Mild URI with low grade temp followed by vesicles on hands, feet, mouth and buttocks area a sign of what?

A

Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease

91
Q

If the soft palate is swollen, and the uvula is displaced inferiorly and medially there is likely a. . .

A

Dental Abscess or Peritonsilar Abscess

92
Q

Edema and erythema of upper neck under chin and floor of mouth with tongue displaced upwards and back and puss on the floor on the mouth is a common presentation of what?

A

Ludwigs Angina

93
Q

A noncontagious acute fever marked by inflammation and pain in the joints is called

A

Rheumatic Fever

94
Q

Rheumatic Fever is caused by what pathogen?

A

Streptococcus

95
Q

Mass in the central/midline of the neck that moves when patient swallows is most likely a. . .

A

Thyroglossal Duct Cyst

96
Q

A soft, fluid filled cyst located on the lateral upper neck is most likely a what?

A

Branchial Cleft Cyst

97
Q

A Painless, enlarged node in the neck that is rubbery (or a stone hard tonsil) are signs of what?

OTOLARYNGOLOGY (1 decks)

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