oto disorders of the middle ear Flashcards

1
Q

What antibiotic is considered first-line therapy for

an otherwise healthy child with acute otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin, 90 mg/kg daily, divided into two doses each day

for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What predisposing factors may put young children

at risk for recurrent otitis media?

A

● Second-hand smoke exposure, group day care, nasal
allergy, immunodeficiency, craniofacial abnormalities, adenoid hypertrophy, gastroesophageal reflux, vaccina-
tion status, supine bottle feeding, and pacifier use
● Breastfeeding in the first 6 months of life is likely
protective against recurrent acute otitis media.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What factors impact a child’s candidacy for

surgery to treat otitis media with effusion?

A

Hearing status, associated symptoms, duration of effusion
(> 4 months), structural damage to the TM or middle ear,
developmental delays or risk factors for delay (syndromic
children, autism-spectrum disorders, uncorrectable visual
impairment, etc.), craniofacial abnormalities/cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What condition must be excluded in all adult
patients with a unilateral persistent middle ear
effusion?

A

● Nasopharyngeal carcinoma should be ruled out by
nasopharyngoscopy.
● Examination of the oropharynx, hypopharynx, and larynx
should also be performed if otalgia is present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define atticotomy, and describe the typical indi-

cations of this approach in the context of chronic ear disease.

A

Atticotomy involves removal of a portion of the scutum
(lateral epitympanic wall) to visualize and access the
epitympanum. This technique is often used in patients with
limited cholesteatoma or retraction pockets and small
contracted mastoids and can be performed in conjuction
with tympanoplasty and ossicular chain reconstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define congenital cholesteatoma.

A

Caused by a persistent embryonic rest of epithelial tissue within the middle ear space. Patients should have a normal-
appearing pars tensa and pars flaccida, no history of prior otorrhea, and no prior otologic surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Differentiate primary acquired and secondary ac-

quired cholesteatoma.

A

Primary acquired cholesteatoma arises from a tympanic
membrane retraction pocket most commonly involving the
pars flaccida; secondary acquired cholesteatoma results

from an injury to the tympanic membrane (e.g., tympa-
nostomy tube, surgery, accidental trauma) with implanta-
tion of skin into the middle ear space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the invagination theory of primary

acquired cholesteatoma formation.

A

Infantile sterile otitis media develops shortly after birth.
Before resportion occurs, mucosal fibrosis occurs, resulting
in blocakage of the epitymanum and localized negative
pressure. This results in poor pneumatization of the
mastoid and retraction of the pars flaccida.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the metaplasia theory of acquired cholesteatoma formation.

A

Columnar epithelium of the middle ear space undergoes squamous metaplasia, resulting from inflammation associated with recurrent otitis media.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the proposed mechanisms of bony

erosion by cholesteatoma.

A

● Pressure erosion: Caused by mechanical pressure from
the growing cholesteatoma sac
● Biochemical erosion: Bacterial products, inflammation
from granulation tissue, and enzyme products of the
cholesteatoma itself
● Cellular-mediated erosion: Osteoclastic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define Prussak space.

A

Prussak space is a recess, bordered laterally by the pars
flaccida, superiorly by the scutum and lateral malleolar
ligament, inferiorly by the short process of the malleus, and
medially by the neck of the malleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the three most common sites of origin

for cholesteatoma.

A

Posterior and anterior epitympanum and the posterosupe-

rior mesotympanum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the anatomical limits of the sinus

tympani.

A

Ponticulus superiorly, subiculum inferiorly, the mastoid
segment of the facial nerve laterally, and the posterior
semicircular canal medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common site of labyrinthine

fistula formation secondary to chronic ear disease?

A

The horizontal semicircular canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the signs and symptoms of labyrinthine

fistula secondary to chronic otitis media.

A

Labyrinthine fistula most commonly involves the lateral
semicircular canal. Classically, patients show mixed hearing
loss, intermittent dizziness, and potentially sound-induced
vertigo (Tullio phenomenon), although in practice a large
number of patients may lack such findings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the likely mechanism of dizziness asso-

ciated pneumatic otoscopy in a patient with cholesteatoma.

A

Cholesteatoma eroding into the bony labyrinth has most likely led to an inner ear fistula. With the labyrinth exposed, increased middle ear pressure can be translated to perilymphatic fluid movement and subsequent vertigo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How should a lateral semicircular canal fistula

associated with chronic ear disease be managed?

A

In an “only hearing ear” or “better hearing ear,” a canal wall–down procedure is often recommended, with exteriorization of the matrix overlying the erosion. If the other ear has good hearing, same-surgery repair with fascia or a
second-look procedure with matrix removal may be considered if an intact canal wall is desired. Large or
complex fistulae have a high risk of SNHL and are generally best managed with a canal wall–down procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the difference between a radical and

modified radical mastoidectomy?

A

With a radical mastoidectomy, there is complete removal of
the malleus, incus, tympanic membrane, and middle ear
mucosa, and the cavity is left open.
With a modified radical mastoidectomy, the middle ear space
is reconstructed.
A Bondy modified radical mastoidectomy implies a canal wall–
down procedure where the middle ear space is not entered
or reconstructed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the Wullstein classification system for tympanoplasty.

A

● Type 1: All ossicles are present and mobile.
● Type 2: The tympanic membrane is grafted to an intact
incus and stapes.
● Type 3: The tympanic membrane is grafted to the stapes
superstructure.
● Type 4: The tympanic membrane is grafted to the stapes
footplate.
● Type 5: Semicircular canal fenestration procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are common indications for canal wall–down mastoidectomy?

A

Advanced cholesteatoma with significant canal wall erosion,

labyrinthine fistula, cholesteatoma in an only hearing ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the most common causes of persistent

otorrhea after a canal wall–down mastoidectomy?

A

Inadquate meatoplasty, failure to lower the facial ridge,

mucosalization, exposed eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the histologic appearance of cholestea-

toma.

A

A sac of keratinizing squamous epithelium with a central

core of keratinaceous debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In a healthy patient with cholesteatoma and no
history of other otologic procedures, what are the
primary indications for surgery?

A

There is no effective medical therapy for cholesteatoma;
surgical removal and exteriorization are the only effective
treatments. The primary goal of surgery is to create a safe
and dry ear. Surgery is almost universally recommended for
healthy patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of

lateral graft tympanoplasty?

A

The choice to use a lateral graft technique is based largely
on the surgeon’s preference. It is commonly used for total,
near-total or anterior perforations. The main disadvantages
are technical difficulty and the possibility of blunting (loss
of the acute anterior canal angle) and lateralization
(separation of the graft from the malleus).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why is the temporomandibular joint potentially at

risk for injury during lateral graft tympanoplasty?

A

Classically, lateral graft tympanoplasty involves temporary
removal of the anterior canal wall skin with canalplasty,
removing the bony overhang such that the entire drum can
be seen through the canal. Overly aggressive drilling risks
entry into the glenoid fossa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the mechanism of hearing loss in a

patient with a tympanic membrane perforation.

A

There is a decrease in the ratio of the tympanic membrane
to stapes footplate surface area (transformer ratio). In addition, sound striking the oval window and round window simultaneously (through the perforation) may result in phase cancellation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the rate of persistent tympanic membrane

perforation after tympanostomy tube placement?

A

Approximately 2 to 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the advantage of cartilage grafts when used in repair of tympanic membrane perfora-
tions.

A

Cartilage is more rigid than other graft materials, making it
more resistant to retraction and resorption. Long-term studies have demonstrated hearing results to be similar to
those obtained with fascia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the Sade grading system for tympanic

membrane retraction.

A

● Grade I: Simple, shallow, generally self-cleaning and
nonadherent
● Grade II: Contacting the incus or stapes
● Grade III: Contacting the promontory without adhesion
● Grade IV: Adhesion to promontory
● Grade V: Grade III or IV with perforation

30
Q

Why is the posterior superior quadrant of the pars tensa particularly susceptible to retraction?

A

This area is highly vascular, which may lead to increased
inflammation with infection resulting in thinning. The
middle fibrous layer in this area is also incomplete and often
absent and therefore has less support.

31
Q

What pathogens are most commonly cultured in chronic otitis media?

A

Polymicrobial, involving Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylo-

coccus aureus, Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp., and Proteus spp.

32
Q

In addition to antibiotics, what adjunctive treat-
ments should be considered for a pediatric patient
with facial paralysis in the setting of acute otitis
media?

A

● Wide myringotomy or myringotomy with tympanostomy
tube insertion is generally recommended.
● Adjunctive use of systemic corticosteroids is also advo-
cated by some.

33
Q

If appropriately treated, what is the prognosis for
facial nerve recovery in children with facial
paralysis secondary to acute otitis media?

A

Generally, outcomes are excellent; greater than 95% of
patients will have a full recovery. Treatment consists of systemic antibiotics with a low threshold for ventilation
tube placement. Coritcal mastoidectomy should be considered for coalescent mastoiditis; however, facial nerve decompression is not indicated.

34
Q

What are the three primary mechanisms of
developing intracranial infection from otitis
media?

A

● Direct extension after bone erosion or through existing
congenital of acquired defects
● Propagating thrombophlebitis of venous channels originating within the mastoid
● Hematogenous seeding

35
Q

What intracranial complication of otitis media is

associated with “picket fence” spiking fevers?

A

● Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
● Septic emboli from the thrombus are believed to cause
the spiking fevers associated with this entity.

36
Q

What is the Tobey-Ayer or Queckenstedt’s test?

A

To evaluate for lateral sinus thrombosis, the internal jugular
vein is compressed on one side while intracranial pressure is
being monitored. In the event of a positive test, compressing on the side ipsilateral to the thrombosis should result in no change, whereas compression on the contralateral side will cause a rapid rise in pressure.

37
Q

What is the most appropriate initial management of noncoalescent mastoiditis with an intact tym-
panic membrane?

A

Systemic antibiotics with myringotomy and tympanostomy

tube placement

38
Q

What is the most common complication of

pressure equalization tube placement

A

Post-tympanostomy tube otorrhea (up to ~ 75%)

39
Q

What lumbar puncture findings would you expect
in a patient with otitic hydrocephalus, presumably
a result of lateral sinus and possibly concomittant
superior saggital sinus thrombosis?

A

Elevated opening pressure, but otherwise normal CSF

composition

40
Q

What is Gradenigo syndrome?

A

Triad of otorrhea, retro-orbital pain from trigeminal nerve
irritation, and abducens nerve palsy from edema within the
Dorello canal. It is a classic presentation of petrous apicitis.

41
Q

Why is the abducens nerve the most commonly

affected cranial nerve in cases of petrous apicitis?

A

The adbucens nerve travels through the Dorello canal at the
petrous apex, rendering it susceptible to compression if
there is surrounding inflammation.

42
Q

How does a subperiosteal abscess of the mastoid

develop?

A

Acute coalescent mastoiditis leads to erosion of the mastoid
cortex, and pus can track into the subperiosteal plane,
presenting as an area of fluctuance.

43
Q

What is the Griesinger sign?

A

Postauricular edema and tenderness thought to result from septic thrombosis of the mastoid emissary vein

44
Q

What is the most common intracranial complication of acute otitis media?

A

● Meningitis is the most common complication, although
the incidence has declined significantly with advances in
antibiotics.
● Brain abscess is the most common lethal intracranial
complication of otitis media.

45
Q

What is the incidence of malleus fixation?

A

0.5 to 2%

46
Q

In reference to stapes surgery, what is a perilymph

gusher?

A

Excessive flow of perilymph encountered when opening the

vestibule during stapes surgery

47
Q

What conditions place a patient at high risk for
perilymph gusher at the time of stapedotomy or
cochlear implantation?

A

Patients with cochlear and labyrinthine malformations,
particularly enlarged vestibular aqueduct and Mondini
malformations, are at highest risk. A young male patient
with mixed hearing loss should raise concern for X-linked
stapes gusher syndrome.

48
Q

Review the differential diagnosis of otosclerosis.

A

Any disease process that can result in conductive hearing loss, including tympanosclerosis, malleus fixation, congenital stapes footplate fixation, osteogenesis imperfecta, tympanic membrane perforation, cholesteatoma, and
superior semicircular canal dehiscence, to name a few

49
Q

What genetic disorder of bone development can
cause a clinical presentation similar to that of
otosclerosis?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

50
Q

What findings are typically seen on immittance

audiometry for patients with otosclerosis?

A

It may not impact tympanometry, although a type A(s) tympanogram may be seen. Acoustic reflexes, however, will
most likely be abnormal, with absent responses in the affected ear when sound is presented on either side.

51
Q

What are the most common otoscopic findings

with otosclerosis?

A

Normal examination. The goal of the examination is to try
to exlcude other causes, including tympanosclerosis,
malleus fixation, cholesteatoma, perforation, and other
causes of conductive hearing loss.

52
Q

What is a Schwartze sign?

A

A rosy hue seen through a transparent tympanic membrane
resulting from increased blood around the promontory
during active otospongiosis

53
Q

Describe the pattern of hearing loss with otoscle-

rosis?

A

Initially, otosclerosis manifests with a low-frequency con-
ductive hearing loss and may progress to involve all frequencies. An artificial bone threshold shift is often seen
centered at 2 kHz (Carhart notch). Mixed hearing loss is less
common and may represent so-called retrofenestral or
cochlear otosclerosis.

54
Q

Describe the management of a prolapsed and

dehiscent facial nerve during stapedectomy?

A

Treatment depends on the experience and comfort level of
the performing surgeon. Poststapedectomy hearing results
are similar in patients with ~ 50% prolapse compared with those without prolapse, and there is not a statistically
increased risk of facial nerve weakness when performed by
an experieneced team. The safest option, however, is to discontinue surgery and provide a hearing aid.

55
Q

What is the Carhart notch?

A

The Carhart notch is an artificial depression in bone
conduction thresholds centered at 2 kHz that is thought to
result from disruption of ossicular resonance from stapes
ankylosis. It is not a true measure of cochlear reserve
because it usually reverses after stapedectomy. It is not specific to otosclerosis.

56
Q

With respect to stapedectomy, what is meant by

“overclosure” of the air-bone gap?

A

After stapedectomy with good result, artificially depressed
bone conduction will often resolve, potentially resulting in
air conduction that is better than the preoperative bone
conduction level.

57
Q

Is the Carhart notch specific to otosclerosis?

A

No. An identical 2-kHz notch can commonly be seen in
other conditions, such as incudostapedial joint erosion or
malleus and incus fixation. It can also be present with
tympanic membrane perforation and otitis media.

58
Q

Describe the phenomenon of paracusis of Willis.

A

In this condition, subjects with conductive hearing loss hear
better in noise. It is thought to result from the dampening
of background noise by a conductive hearing deficit and the
fact that people tend to speak louder and more directly
when competing with background noise.

59
Q

What preoperative conditions place a patient at

high risk for SNHL with stapedectomy?

A

Obliterative otosclerosis, otitis media, cochlear malformation, endolymphatic hydrops

60
Q

What is the primary advantage of small fenestra

stapedotomy versus stapedectomy?

A

Improved air-bone gap closure at higher frequencies (3 to

8 kHz)

61
Q

What is the overall incidence of signficant SNHL

after stapedectomy?

A

0.5 to 1%

62
Q

What is the sensitivity of high-resolution CT in

diagnosing otosclerosis?

A

~95%

63
Q

What is the most common cause of early stapedectomy failure?

A

Displacement or slippage of the prosthesis

64
Q

How is a depressed footplate (into the vestibule)

addressed during stapedectomy?

A

If the footplate is deeply depressed and/or no longer visible,
removal should not be attempted. If the footplate is readily
visible and accessible, a small hook may be used to deliver
the footplate from the stapedectomy. A vein or fascia graft
can then be used to seal the oval window, and a prosthesis
can be placed.

65
Q

Describe the timing and symptoms of reparative

granuloma after stapedectomy.

A

Most commonly, it occurs 1 to 2 weeks after surgery and

manifests with dizziness, SNHL, and tinnitus.

66
Q

What is the treatment of otosclerosis in a patient’s

only hearing ear?

A

Stapedotomy is generally contraindicated because of the
risk of severe SNHL in the patient’s dependent ear.
Amplification is first-line treatment.

67
Q

Why is appropriate sizing of a stapes prosthesis

important?

A

If it is too short, the prosthesis may become displaced or
not resolve the conductive hearing loss. An overly long
prosthesis may impinge on the membranous labyrinth,
causing vertigo or SNHL.

68
Q

If encountered during stapedectomy, how should

a persistent stapedial artery be managed?

A

A very fine persistent stapedial artery may be managed by
bipolar or laser coagulation. If the footplate is fixed and the
vessel occupies only a portion of the footplate, stapedectomy
can proceed if the visualized portion of the footplate is clearly
sufficient for fenestration. In cases of a larger-caliber vessel,
however, aborting the procedure may be prudent.

69
Q

What are the guidelines for skydiving and scuba

diving after stapedectomy?

A

There is no obvious risk to inner ear function provided the

patient has good eustachian tube function.

70
Q

What is the natural history of dysgeusia after
chorda tympani nerve injury resulting from
otologic surgery?

A

More than 90% of patients will have complete symptomatic

recovery by 1 year.