Other topics Flashcards

1
Q

MC infective cause of lymphadenopathy

A

TB

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2
Q

What is the disease in association with thymoma?

A

Myasthenia gravis

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3
Q

Gene for achondroplasia

A

FGFR3

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4
Q

Diagnosis of osteoporosis

A

DEXA scan <-2.5

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5
Q

What is brown tumour?

A

a form of osteitis fibrosa cystica caused by hyperparathyroidism

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6
Q

3 pathological stages of pyogenic osteomyelitis

A

suppuration –> sequestrum –> involucrum

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7
Q

Name for TB spondylitis

A

Pott’s disease

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8
Q

What is Paget’s disease of bone?

A

chronic bone dystrophy –> deformity, pain, fracture, or arthritis

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9
Q

Radiological findings for osteoarthritis (5)

A

(R-LOSS)
Reduced joint space
Loose body
Osteophytes
Subchondral sclerosis
Subchondral cysts

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10
Q

Location of Bouchard nodes and Heberden nodes (what is the disease?)

A

Bouchard: PIPJ
Heberden: DIPJ
(osteoarthritis)

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11
Q

Pannus formation (synovial proliferation)

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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12
Q

baker cyst

A

[popliteal fossa]
rheumatoid arthritis

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13
Q

Which gene are seronegative spondyloarthropathies associated with?

A

HLA-B27 +ve

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14
Q

bamboo spine

A

ankylosing spondylitis

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15
Q

Reiter’s triad

A

[reactive arthritis / Reiter syndrome]
urethritis + reactive arthritis + conjunctivitis

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16
Q

Pencil-in-cup deformity in DPIJ

A

Psoriatic arthritis

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17
Q

Compare the crystals between gout and pseudo-gout

A

Gout: monosodium urate, needle-shaped, -ve birefringent
Pseudo-gout: calcium pyrophosphate, rhomboid-shaped, +ve birefringent

18
Q

All primary bone tumours are male predominant except…

A

Chondroma (M=F)
Giant cell tumour (F>M)

19
Q

Primary bone tumours by onset ages in ascending order

A

Ewing’s sarcoma (10~15)
< Osteosarcoma = Chondroblastoma (10~20)
< Osteoid osteoma = Osteoblastoma (10~30)
< Chondroma = Giant cell tumour (20~50)
< Chondrosarcoma (40~70)

20
Q

Malignant primary bone tumours (3)

A

Osteosarcoma (MC), Chondrosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma

21
Q

How to differentiate between osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma?

A

<2cm: osteoid osteoma
>=2cm: osteoblastoma

22
Q

Codman’s triangle

A

osteosarcoma X-ray feature

23
Q

MC benign bone tumour

A

osteochondroma

24
Q

Chicken-wire calcification

A

chondroblastoma

25
Q

Onion skin / sunburst periosteal reaction on X-ray

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

26
Q

Common sources of bone metastasis
a. which two are usually solitary?
b. which is sclerotic?

A

thyroid, breast, lungs, kidney, prostate
a. thyroid, kidney
b. prostate

27
Q

MC location of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma

A

lower lips

28
Q

What is the typical example of field cancerization?

A

head and neck SCC
(100x more likely to develop another primary tumour in the region)

29
Q

Virus associated with oropharyngeal SCC (what is the prognosis?)

A

HPV
(better prognosis)

30
Q

Virus associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

EBV

31
Q

Classification of nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

keratinising squamous
non-keratinising squamous (differentiated, undifferentiated)
basaloid squamous

32
Q

Risk factors of nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

genetics, environment (nitrosamines, smoking, chemical fumes)

33
Q

Pathology of MC type of nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

syncytial sheets of undifferentiated, non-keratinising cells
dense lymphocytic inflammatory infiltrate
EBV-encoded RNA +ve

34
Q

Autoimmune disease associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

dermatomyositis

35
Q

Virus for sialadenitis

A

mumps virus

36
Q

What is Sjogren syndrome?

A

autoimmune destruction of salivary, lacrimal, and conjuntival glands

37
Q

MC site of salivary gland neoplasm

A

parotid gland

38
Q

Where is ameloblastoma found?

A

teeth (origin: odontogenic epithelium) (benign)

39
Q

What is pathological fracture?

A

Bone fracture caused by a force that is disproportionally less than the extent of fracture because the bone structure is weakened by other underlying disease

40
Q

MC cause of osteonecrosis

A

corticosteorid