Other MBE Flashcards

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1
Q

A scheduling Order may be modified with (2)

A

Good cause and judge’s consent

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2
Q

Appeal deadline?
A final judgment means___________

A

30D
A party may only appeal a final judgment, which is one that ends the lit on the merits, resolving all claims and leaving the ct nothing but to execute the judgment.

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3
Q

6 Exceptions to the final judgment rule

A

Exceptions =
1. multiple parties/claims where ct directs entry of only some claims & ct determined no just reason for delay
2. Dist cert + app agreement (10D deadline from entry) - ex. Controlling Q of L, sub difference of opinion, & immediate appeal will materially advance term of lit
3. Collateral order- separate from merits that’s unreviewable on app (DNI FS CL)
4. Mandamus
5. Inextricable intertwinement / nec to ensure meaningful review
6. Granting/denying class action cert (must file w/in 14D + app agreement)

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4
Q

Under the Doctrine of Comity, fed courts __________ give FF&C to foreign judgments

A

Courts MAY give FF&C to foreign judgments

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5
Q

conditions placed on the approval of permits do not constitute a 5th A taking as long as…. (2)

A
  1. There is an ESSENTIAL NEXUS btwn the state interest and the permit condition
  2. And govt determination that condition is roughly proportional to advancing that govt int
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6
Q

Fighting words are ____________ or ______________

A

Words that by their very utterance inflict injury or tend to incite immediate breach of the peace

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7
Q

For a govt employees speech to be con protected, an employee must have spoken __________ and ____________

A

As a citizen and on a matter of public concern

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8
Q

Quantum meriut is when _______
+ under what theory?

A

The breaching party may recover the rsb value of the benefit conferred to the other P
(Quasi-K theory)

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9
Q

Modification UCC vs CL

A

UCC - no consideration needed (only good faith)
CL- need consideration

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10
Q

Contracts entered into by a person who lacks capacity are _________ by ____________.

A

Voidable by the person who lacked capacity

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11
Q

Elements of mutual mistake (3)

A
  1. Both parties are mistaken as to a basic assumption on which K is made at the time it was made
  2. Mistake = material
  3. Person asserting the mistake did not assume the risk
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12
Q

Seller and buyer can agree to limit buyer’s remedies for breach of warranty as long as____________

A

Limitation is not unconscionable

Note: limiting remedy for PI consumer goods = presumed unconscionable

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13
Q

Remedy for contract issues pertaining to FORMATION

A

Rescission

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14
Q

Accomplice withdrawal only allowed if

A

Withdrawal occurs before the crime becomes unstoppable

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15
Q

To be valid, an inventory search must be both (2)

A

RSB and conducted pursuant to establish police procedures

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16
Q

Test for competency to start trial (2)

A
  1. Def has sufficient present ability to rsbly consult with aty (assist in prepping defense)
  2. And has a rat’l & factual understanding of proceedings against him
    *DP requirement burden on ct if issue
    *if incompetent, can’t be tried but may be reassessed if improved
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17
Q

Under the Blockburger Test, two distinct crimes do not constitute as the same offense for double jeopardy purposes if….

A

Each crime requires proof of a fact which the other does not

18
Q

2 ways to authenticate physical evi

A

Witness testimony or showing an unbroken chain of custody

19
Q

The 4 hearsay EXCEPTIONS

A
  1. Verbal independent legal sig
  2. Statements showing the effect on a listener
  3. Prior inconsistent to impeach
  4. State of mind
20
Q

The use of an out-of-court statement even if hearsay exception/exemption violates the Confrontation CL when…. (3 req.’s)
+ 2 exceptions

A

The statement is TESTIMONIAL, Declarant is unavailable at trial, and Def did not have an opportunity for cross
Exceptions = dying declarations or Def’s wrongdoing

21
Q

Which element is unnecessary to enforce an equitable servitude as opposed to a covenant?

A

PRIVITY

22
Q

2 Req.’s to enforce a Reciprocal Negative Servitude (common scheme or plan)

A
  1. Developer had the common scheme or plan that all parcels would be subject to the restriction AT THE TIME the parcel was sold
  2. And Def had notice (inquiry, constructive or actual)
23
Q

Unless terminated, a successor of a valid easement may use as long as

A

Remains rsb
*ways to terminate include written release, abandonment, merger of the parcels, AP

24
Q

5 req.’s for a VALID Land Sale K

A

IW, description, ID P’s, price, and signed by party to be enforced against

25
Q

Zoning ________________will make the title unmarketable but zoning ________________will not

A

Zoning VIOLATIONS will make the title unmarketable but zoning RESTRICTIONS will not

26
Q

2 situations in which deed intent will not be found

A

Reserving the right to revoke or giving instructions to only deliver the deed upon grantor’s death

27
Q

An application to a variance may be accepted if (2)

A

Property owner shows hardship due to zoning ordinance and the variance will not damage/harm public welfare

28
Q

Article 9 of the UCC (primary R)

A

Article 9 governs the transactions of security interests in personal property and fixtures, as well as their priority (personal property includes the sale of certain rights to payment such as chattel paper, promissory noes, accounts, and payment intangibles).
If there is any ambiguity to whether the substance of the transaction creates a SI, Art 9 will apply regardless of its form.

29
Q

2 elements of misappropriation of identity (tort)
+ primary defense?

A
  1. Def used Ptf’s name/likeness
  2. For commercial advantage

Defense = newsworthiness

30
Q

A public nuisance is (2)

A

An unrsb interference with the health, safety, or property rights of the community

31
Q

A manufacturing defect requires a showing that __________ and ______________

A

The product differs from the INTENDED DESIGN and is MORE DANGEROUS than if made rsb. Misuse will not qualify if the misuse was FSB

32
Q

Evidence of a FAILURE TO WARN defect requires that

A

The ptf was not warned of the risks regarding use of the product, which are not obvious to the ordinary user, but known to the manufacture

33
Q

A DESIGN defect exists if … (3)

A

There was a way to build the product that is safer, more practical and has a similar cost

34
Q

Under the K CL, ________________ unless______________ and _____________

A

A state law that substantially impairs an existing private K will be invalid unless the impairment is RSBly narrowly tailored and aims to achieve an important state interest

35
Q

To be liable for invasion of privacy…. (3)
+ primary defense

A
  1. Def must have intruded into the private facts of another
  2. Where the ptf would have a rsb expectation of privacy
  3. The intrusion is highly offensive to a rsb person
    *matter of public concern
36
Q

To be found liable for public disclosure of private facts… (3)
+ primary defense?

A
  1. The Def caused widespread dissemination
  2. Of truthful private info
  3. That would be highly offensive to a rsb person
    *newsworthiness (or sometimes privilege)
37
Q

Which two situations apply to the BER?

A

When the contents of the evi are at issue or the Witness is relying on the contents for testimony

38
Q

A principal in the first degree is ———— or —————

A

the person who actually commits the crime himself or causes an innocent person to commit the crime for him.

39
Q

Define ACP

A

Communication made for the purposes of obtaining legal assistance for the client intended to be confidential
***extends to respective agents (like if an aty hired an expert/consultant)

40
Q

A novation is….
An accord is…
And satisfaction is…

A

An agreement by the parties of a K that one (or both) may be replaced.
An agreement to accept a different performance than what was originally due under the K. Satisfaction is the performance of the accord agreement