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Bacte - Lect > Other gram (-) bacilli > Flashcards

Other gram (-) bacilli Flashcards

1
Q

common characteristics of vibrio

A

gram negative, facultatively anaerobic

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2
Q

vibrio require __ for growth and __ fermentation

A

sodium for growth and glucose fermentation

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3
Q

all vibrio spp., are motile, catalase and oxidase positive except __

A

V. metschnikovii

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4
Q

organism primarily live in brackish or marine water

A

vibrio

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5
Q

organism that reside in freshwater

A

Aeromonas spp..

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6
Q

organism usually found in soil or water

A

C. violaceum

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7
Q

Mode of transmission

A

ingestion of contaminated water, fresh produce, meat, dairy products, or seafood or by exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated water

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8
Q

agent of a diarrheal disease “Cholera”

A

V. cholerae

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9
Q

cholera is also known as

A

Asiatic cholera or epidemic cholera

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10
Q

in 2010 after a devastating earthquake in Haiti, more than 600,000 infection, and 7,000 deaths occurred as a result of ___ within a 24 month period.

A

Vibrio Cholerae O1 infections

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11
Q

during those outbreaks, v. cholerae was spread among people in?

A

fecal oral route due to poor sanitation

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12
Q

this bacillus has a dormant stage, that allows its long term survival in brackish water or salt water environments during interepidemic periods

A

Vibrio Cholerae

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13
Q

primary virulence factor of vibrio

A

cholera toxin or choleragen

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14
Q

how does the cholera toxin can be effectively release?

A

the organism must first infiltrate and distribute itself along the cells lining the mucosal surface of the gastrointestinal tract

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15
Q

for vibrio, ___ mediate the distribution of organisms and mucinase production allows penetration of the mucous layer.

A

motility and chemotaxis

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16
Q

this will provide the means by which bacilli attached to mucosal cells for the release of cholera toxin.

A

toxin coregulated pili

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17
Q

this toxin has been shown to disrupt the tight junctions of the intestinal cells effectively decreasing tissue resistance.

A

enterotoxin Zonula occludens (Zot) toxin

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18
Q

The action of cholera toxin is that it will trigger the ___, leading to production of profuse watery diarrhea, termed as ___

A
  • hypersecretion of water and electrolytes by mucosal cells
  • rice water stool or rice
    watery stool
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19
Q

hallmark of cholera toxin activity

A

rice watery stool

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20
Q

vibrio: production of this watery diarrhea can produce a __ to the patient leading to __ and if these fluids are not replaced, it can lead to death.

A
  • dramatic fluid loss
  • severe dehydration and hypotension
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21
Q

it is associated with the Vibrio cholera cell envelope are positive markers for strains capable of epidemic and pandemic spread of the disease

A

somatic antigen 01 and 0139

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22
Q

strains carrying these markers almost always produce cholera toxin.

A

somatic antigen 01 and 0139

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23
Q

the strains that do not produce the toxin and hint do not produce cholera which are associated with non-epidemic diarrhea and extraintestinal infections.

A

non-01 or non-0139

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24
Q

second most common vibrio species implicated in gastroenteritis

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

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25
Q

v. parahaemolyticus is associated with a condition known as __

A

summer diarrhea in Japan

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26
Q

this organism is known to cause infections is associated with consumption of raw, improperly cooked, or recontaminated seafood, particularly oysters.

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

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27
Q

serotype of Vibrio parahaemolyticus known to cause the infections

A

serotype 03:K6

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28
Q

v. parahaemolyticus strains produce a heat stable hemolysin named __

A

Kanagawa

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29
Q

this strain is able to lyse human erythrocytes in high special high salt mannitol medium

A

Kanagawa toxin-positive

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30
Q

the strain of v. parahaemolyticus is able to lyse human erythrocytes in what medium?

A

Wagatsuma agar

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31
Q

Vibrio vulnificus infection can be categorized into two which could be ___ or either through __

A

primary septicemia or wound infections

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32
Q

v. vulnificus can occur in gastrointestinal route through __

A

consumption of shellfish especially raw oysters

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33
Q

v. vulnificus: Patients with liver dysfunction and syndromes that result in increased serum level of iron such as in ___ are particularly predisposed to this scenario

A

hemochromatosis, cirrhosis, thalassemia major and hepatitis

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34
Q

the least pathogenic for humans that usually originates from extraintestinal sources

A

v. alginolyticus

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35
Q

a common occupational hazard for people in constant contact with sea water, such as fishermen or sailors

A

v. alginolyticus

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36
Q

accepted specimens for vibrio alginolyticus

A

body fluids, pus, or tissue

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37
Q

what specimen should be transported in an appropriate holding medium to prevent dessication?

A

swabs - Cary bair

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38
Q

why buffed glycerol saline is not recommended?

A

glycerol is toxic for vibrio

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39
Q

enumerate the direct detection methods for vibrio

A
  • Elisa latex agglutination test (ELISA)
  • rapid antigen test
  • immunochromatographic assays
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40
Q

specific method for testing Vibrio cholerae

A

immunochromatographic assays

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41
Q

gram morphology of vibrio

A

gram-negative, straight or slightly curved rod or comma-shaped

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42
Q

motility of vibrio spp.,

A

rapid darting or shooting star motility especially on your darkfield microscopy

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43
Q

culture media for vibrio

A

Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar

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44
Q

content of TCBS that inhibit the growth of gram + organisms

A

1% sodium chloride bile salts

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45
Q

content of TCBS agar for the differentiation of the various vibrio species

A

sucrose

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46
Q

pH indicators of TCBS

A

bromothymol blue and thymol blue

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47
Q

the high pH of the TCBS medium is ___ which inhibits the growth of other intestinal microbiota

A

8.6

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48
Q

in TCBS, the sucrose fermenters present as ___ colonies while the non-sucrose fermenters present as __

A

sucrose fermenters - yellow colonies
non-sucrose - green colonies

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49
Q

it has a pH of 8.4 thatmay be used as an enrichment broth for obtaining growth of vibrio from stool

A

Alkaline peptone water

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50
Q

vibrio: After inoculation, the broth is then incubated for ___ at ___ and is then subcultures to TCBS.

A

5 to 8 hours at 35 °C

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51
Q

t or f: Oxidase testing is reliable when perform on colonies grown on TCBS medium.

A

oxidase testing is unreliable

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52
Q

other media that can also be used for vibrio

A

MacConkey and Salmonella Shigella agar

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53
Q

vibrio spp., can also grow on this agar and present as ___ except for what organism?

A

MacConkey and Salmonella Shigella agar

except for V. vulnificus

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54
Q

Is it possible to use sheep blood agar for vibrio?

A

yes, but oxidase should be performed.

55
Q

why vibrio should be tested for oxidase if we use Sheep blood agar?

A

because lactose positive colonies from selective differential media such as MacConkey agar can give false positive oxidase reactions

56
Q

test to differentiate Vibrio from Aeromonas

A

string test

57
Q

string test uses __ in which there is cell lysis that will release your DNA which can be pulled up onto a string with an inoculating loop.

A

0.5% sodium deoxycholate

58
Q

vibrio and aeromonas string test result

A

vibrio - positive
aeromonas - negative

59
Q

a test that Vibrio are susceptible, and are oxidase-positive and glucose fermenters are resistant.

A

Vibrostatic Test (0129)

60
Q

test to distinguish the vibrio cholerae

A

Vibrostatic Test (0129)

61
Q

Vibrostatic Test (0129) result

A

v. cholerae 01 - susceptivle
v. cholerae non-01 - resistant

62
Q

oxidase, indole, sucrose result for V. cholerae

A
  • oxidase positive
  • indole positive
  • sucrose positive
63
Q

only positive vibrio for gas from glucose

A

V. furnissii

64
Q

vibrio spp., that ferment inositol

A
  • V. cincinnatiensis
  • V. metschnikovii
65
Q

all vibrio are oxidase positive except __

A

V. metschnikovii

66
Q

All vibrio spp., are halophilic or salt loving and require the addition of sodium for growth except for __.

A

Vibrio cholerae and Vibrio mimicus

67
Q

vibrio that ferments lactose

A

v. vulnificus

68
Q

the only vibrio that can growth in 0% NaCl

A

v. cholerae

69
Q

common characteristics of aeromonas

A
  • oxidase +
  • ferments glucose
  • gram negative
70
Q

organism isolated from retail produce sources and animal meat products

A

aeromonas

71
Q

Aeromonas typically grows at __

A

10-42 °C

72
Q

refers to the organisms that grows well at 37C

A

mesophilic

73
Q

mesophiles are all motile by the means of a __

A

single polar flagellum

74
Q

enumerate the mesophilic aeromonas

A

hydrophila, veronii, caviae

75
Q

organisms that grows optimally at 22C

A

psychrophilic

76
Q

A. salmonicida grows well at

A

22-25 °C

77
Q

this organism is a psychrophilic, non motile strains, and are not considered as human pathogens

A

A. salmonicida

78
Q

clinical manifestations of aeromonas

A

intestinal infections and extraintestinal infections

79
Q

aeromonas that can affect the neonate and pediatric populations

A

A. caviae

80
Q

aeromonas that can affect people that are those with Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome or kidney disease

A

A. hydrophila

81
Q

this organism can causes HUS and cholera-like disease

A

A. veronii biovar sobria

82
Q

aeromonas that can commonly cause extraintestinal infections like septicemia and wound infections

A

A. hydrophila subsp. Hydrophilia

83
Q

most common manifestations caused by A. hydrophila
subsp. Hydrophilia

A

cellulitis which occurs on the extremities

84
Q

one of the most invasive type of Aeromonas infection and similarly has strong association with the species A

A

A. sepsis

85
Q

aeromonas spp., which most likely affect to immunocompromised patients

A
  • A. veronii biovar sobria
  • A. jandaei
  • A. hydrophila
86
Q

aeromonas that is implicated in surgical wound infections involving the use of leeches for medicinal therapy after plastic surgery to relieve
venous congestion.

A

Aeromonas veronii biovar sobria

87
Q

enumerate the beta-hemolytic aeromonas

A

A. hydrophila, A. veronii biovar sobria, A. jandaei

88
Q

most common isolated specie of aeromonas

A

A. caviae

89
Q

All aeromonas ferments __ on __ agar

A

lactose on MAC

90
Q

why we must perform an oxidase test to Aeromonas which are taken from Sheep-blood?

A

to easily separate oxidase - and +

91
Q

why we must perform an oxidase test to aeromonas from CIN?

A

because they may resemble Y. enterocolitica

92
Q

t or f: vibrio cannot grow in 0% sodium chloride but thrive in 6% sodium chloride and even higher concentration

A

false, not all ky v. cholerae og mimicus can still grow w/out the presence of NaCl

93
Q

enumerate the non-halophilic vibrio spp.,

A

V. cholerae and V. mimucus

94
Q

this can be used for separating aeromonads from Plesiomonads

A

fermentation of inositol

95
Q

inositol positive sp.,

A

Plesiomonas and Aeromonas is negative

96
Q

The ability to ferment
__ with or without ___ distinguish Aeromonas from oxidase positive non-fermenting Pseudomonas isolates

A

ferment glucose with or without production of gas

97
Q

term refers to the campylobacters that does not utilize any sugar

A

assacharolytic

98
Q

common characteristics of camylobacter

A
  • microaerophilic
  • oxidase +
  • gram - curved shaped
  • assacharolytic
99
Q

These are strongly associated with gastric, peptic, and duodenal ulcers, as well as with gastrointestinal carcinoma

A

helicobacter pylori

100
Q

helicobacter pylori is the major cause of?

A

type B gastritis

101
Q

helicobacter that has been isolated from the blood of patients with bacteremia, and patients with HIV infections.

A

Helicobacter cinaedi

102
Q

they are known to cause abortion in domestic
animals, such as cattle, sheep, and swine and are primarily zoonotic organisms

A

campylobacter

103
Q

most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis worldwide

A

C. jejuni

104
Q

MOT of camylobacter

A
  • direct contact with animals and handling infected pets, such as dogs, cats, and birds
  • consumption of contaminated water and dairy products, and improperly cooked poultry
  • person to person transmission (sexually transmitted)
105
Q

this can cause an autoimmune disorder known as Guillain Barre syndrome

A

campylobacter

106
Q

Guillain Barre syndrome

A

an autoimmune disorder
characterized by acute paralysis, caused by damage of the peripheral nervous system

107
Q

preferred specimen for Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus

A

blood culture

108
Q

for stool specimens for campylobacter, we should use __ and avoid __

A

Cary-blair and avoid buffered glycerol saline

109
Q

specimen of choice for helicobacter pylori is __ that must be placed in __

A

gastric biopsy materials that must be placed in Stuart medium

110
Q

for tissue sample of helicobacter, it may also be placed in __ frozen at

A

cysteine-Brucella broth with 20% glycerol frozen at -70C

111
Q

media used for Campylobacter which is incubated at 37C

A

Campy Cefoperazone-vancomycin-amphotericin (CVA) medium

112
Q

The incubation at 37 °C allows the recovery of Campylobacter species that are inhibited at __

A

42 °C

113
Q

campylobacter spp., that can be isolated using routine culture media

A

c. fetus subsp. fetus, c. rectus, c. curvus

114
Q

a charcoal-based blood free media that can also be used for campylobacter

A

Charcoal Cefoperazone Deoxycholate agar (CCDA)

115
Q

medium used to recover helicobacter pylori

A

nonselective medium - CHOC agar or brucella agar with 5% horse red blood cells
selective medium - Skirrow’s agar

116
Q

t or f: for helicobacter, It is important that the inoculated medium must be fresh and moist and that the culture be incubated in a microaerophilic environment (5% oxygen) with increased
humidity

A

true

117
Q

t or f: for incubation of helicobacter, it must be aerobic.

A

false, microphilic and capnophilic

118
Q

what is the ideal atmospheric environment for incubation of helicobacter?

A

10% oxygen, 5-12% carbon dioxide

119
Q

what is the ideal atmospheric environment for incubation of campylobacter?

A

5% oxygen, 10% carbon dioxide, and 85%
nitrogen gas

120
Q

what is the ideal incubation temp for stool cultures to increase the recovery of c. jejuni

A

42 °C

121
Q

t or f: for recovery of Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus, they can grow at 42C for incubation

A

false, 37C

122
Q

recommended counterstain for campylobacter for gram staining

A

carbolfuchsin

123
Q

t or f: counter staining for campylobacter should be extended to 2-3 mins

A

true

124
Q

gram morphology of campylobacter

A
  • non-spore forming
    gram negative rods
  • long spirals or S-shaped
    seagull wing shapes
125
Q

motility of campylobacter

A

corkscrew motility

126
Q

specimen of choice for campylobacter

A

stool or rectal swabs

127
Q

what is the important characteristic for the identification of c. jejuni

A

positive hippurate hydrolysis test

128
Q

each species of campylobacter can also be differentiated whether they are susceptible or resistant to ___ and __

A

nalidixic acid and cephalothin

129
Q

the definitive identification of helicobacter pylori can be done through testing for?

A

rapid urease reaction on a gastric biopsy

130
Q

The collected tissue sample is placed onto a __ medium, and is incubated at __ for 2 hours – color change
suggests the presence of Helicobacter pylori.

A

Christensen Urea medium
37 °C for 2 hours

131
Q

A urease activity can also be detected by the __, which is reportedly sensitive and specific and is recommended for monitoring therapy.

A

urea breath test

132
Q

immunologic assays for campylobacter and helicobacter

A

latex agglutination test

133
Q

this testing is useful for epidemiologic studies for
campylobacter but is not recommended for routine diagnosis.

A

serologic testing

134
Q

t or f: Serological testing is an important screening method for the diagnosis for the diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori infections.

A

true

Bacte - Lect (2 decks)

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