Other bits and bobs Flashcards

1
Q

Hormone profile of Klinefelter’s

A

Low testosterone, high SHBG, high FSH and LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treatment for Actinomyces

A

Penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Stages of syphilis

A

Primary: chancre (indurated painless ulcer)
Secondary: fever, malaise, rash, mouth ulcers, condylomata lata
Latent: not sexually transmissible
Tertiary: Gumma, charcot’s joints
Quaternary: Neurosyphilis, cardiovascular complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antibody-antigen complexes activate which pathway of complement?

A

Classical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment for syphyilis

A

Penicillin G (IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Day of division for twins

A

DCDA = day 3 (morula)
MCDA = day 4-8 (blastocyst)
MCMA = day 9-12
Conjoint = 12+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Features of Conn’s syndrome

A

Hypernatraemia, hypokalaemia and alkalosis (increased aldosterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Blood gas findings in PE

A

Hypoxia, hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

DKA blood gas

A

Low pH, normal K+, low bicarbonate, increased anion gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cytokines associated with Th1 and Th2

A

Th1 produces cytokines TNF-alpha, IFN-y and IL-2
Th2 produce cytokines IL-4, IL-5, IL-9, IL-10 and IL-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3 types of professional APCs

A

Dendritic cells, macrophages and B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Liver and biliary system and differentiated through the invagination of which structure?

A

Septum transversum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Embryological origin of skeletal muscle (except skull)

A

Paraxial mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

JVP abnormality in AF

A

Absent A wave (A wave in JVP = P wave in ECG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

At what gestation are the fetal consequences of toxoplasmosis more severe?

A

<10 weeks (maternal-fetal transmission risk increases as the pregnancy progresses but the consequences become less severe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia?

A

Factor V leiden mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Difference between type I and type II coagulation disorders

A

Type I = deficient anticoagulation factors
Type II = excessive coagulation factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Features of mucinous cystadenomas

A

Usually large
Multilocular
Thin walled septa
Locules may vary in echogenecity due to variation in fluid content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Classic signs of Wolff Parkinson White syndrome on ECG

A

Short PR and delta waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which hormones stimulate ductal moprhogenesis during pregnancy?

A

Oestrogen and GH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which hormones stimulate alveolar morphogenesis during pregnancy?

A

Progesterone, prolactin and hPL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What molecules generate weak forces that can attract neutrophils to cell walls?

A

Selectins

23
Q

Target HbA1c (%) in pregnant women with diabetes

A

6.5%

24
Q

Where is the chloride shift phenomenon seen?

A

Red blood cells

25
Q

Major hydrogen ion buffer in the blood

A

Haemoglobin

26
Q

What is the action of cytochrome P450 enzymes?

A

Always catalyses hydroxylations

27
Q

What molecule do hepatocytes use to produce primary bile acids?

A

Cholesterol

28
Q

Most common cause of hyperprolactinaemia

A

Primary hypothyroidism

29
Q

Which hypothalamic hormone stimulates the release of prolactin?

A

TRH

30
Q

What enzyme converts androstenedione to estradiol?

A

CYP 19 aromatase

31
Q

Best study design for evaluating diagnostic test

A

Cross-sectional study

32
Q

Best study design for treatment

A

RCT

33
Q

Best study design for prognosis

A

Cohort study

34
Q

What is the UK definition of maternal mortality rate?

A

The number of maternal deaths per 100000 women whose pregnancy ended within 42 days of livebirth, stillbirth, miscarriage or abortion

35
Q

Most common gynaecological cancer in the UK

A

Endometrial

36
Q

Down syndrome screening results

A

Decreased alphafetoprotein, increased human chorionic gonadotrophin, decreased unconjugated estriol and increased inhibin

37
Q

Patau syndrome presentation

A

Renal abnormalities, omphalocele, holoprosencephaly and polydactyly

38
Q

What is the most common autosomal trisomy found in early pregnancy loss?

A

Trisomy 16

39
Q

Tuberous sclerosis mode of inheritance

A

Autosomal dominant

40
Q

Which subunits are found in fetal haemoglobin?

A

2 alpha and 2 gamma

41
Q

Which kind of diathermy can only coagulate

A

Bipolar

42
Q

Which way is the flow going with blue and red on colour Doppler

A

Blue = away from the colour box
Red = towards

43
Q

In which cells does CMV lie dormant?

A

Monocytes

44
Q

Rate limiting step of glycolysis

A

Phosphofructokinase

45
Q

Types of necrosis and location

A

Coagulative - heart, kidneys
Colliquative - brain
Caeseation - TB infection
Fat necrosis - breast and pancreas

46
Q

Gangrene is

A

Necrosis + bacterial infection
(colliquative forms wet gangrene, coagulative forms dry gangrene)

47
Q

Which ovarian neoplasm is characterized histologically by the presence of Call-Exner bodies?

A

Granulosa cell tumour

48
Q

Which amino acids characteristically potentiate glucose-stimulated insulin secretion?

A

Arginine and lysine

49
Q

Metabolic effects of insulin on liver

A

Increases glucokinase activity
Increases phosphofructokinase activity
Increases glycogen synthase
Inhibits phosphorylase
Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis
Stimulates fatty acid production from glucose

50
Q

Where is HCG produced?

A

Syncitiotrophoblast

51
Q

Where is calcidiol produced?

A

Liver

52
Q

Gestational age from CRL equation

A

Gestational age = 5.3 + (0.16 x CRL) - (0.0007 x CRL squared)

53
Q

Mechanism of action of antiemetics:
Cyclizine, promethazine, ondansetron, prochlorperazine

A

Cyclizine and promethazine = Histamine H1 receptor antagonist
Ondansetron = Serotonin 5HT3 receptor antagonist
Prochlorperazine = Dopamine D2

54
Q

Enzyme that converts androstenedione to testosterone

A

17 beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase