Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A. PMF > Other ABs > Flashcards

Other ABs Flashcards

1
Q

Cefalexin class?

A

Cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Indication for cefalexin?

A

Staph or strep infections where the pt has a mild penicillin allergy
UTI Tx or prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cefalexin dose

A

250mg every 6 hours (up to 4g daily)
- higher doses can be used IV
- 250mg at night for UTI prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cefalexin MOA?

A

Same as penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dose reduction for cefalexin?

A

If CrCl is below 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Precaution with administering cefalexin IV?

A

Slow infusion to avoid neurotoxicity - could cause confusion, seizures, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name a macrolide

A

Clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Clarithromycin indications?

A

Helicobacter pylori eradication, LRTIs, used in penicillin / cephalosporin allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clarithromycin dose?

A

250-500mg bd, up to 1g bd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clarithromycin is effective against haemophilus influenziae and which other organisms?

A

Staph, strep, mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ADRs of clarithromycin

A

Taste disturbances, nausea, diarrhoea, abdominal pain, Prolonged QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dose reduction in clarithromycin?

A

If CrCl is below 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Counselling point for clarithromycin?

A

Interactions are common. Advice HPs that you are taking it before taking anything new

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Metronidazole dose?

A

200 - 400mg every 8-12 hours.
Max = 4g daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Metronidazole spectrum?

A

Anaerobic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Metronidazole ADRs?

A

N/V/D, metallic taste, CNS effects (dizziness, headache)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Reduce dose of metronidazole when?

A

Hepatic impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ciprofloxacin class?

A

Quinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ciprofloxacin indications?

A

Complicated UTIs, typhoid fever, prophylaxis for travellers

20
Q

Is pseudomonas aeruginosa sensitive to ciprofloxacin?

A

Yes

21
Q

Ciprofloxacin dose?

A

250-500mg bd. Max = 1.5g daily

22
Q

ADRs associated with ciprofloxacin?

A

Itchy skin, pain at injection site, N/V/D, headache, tingling

23
Q

Ciprofloxacin needs its dosed reduced in hepatic impairment. True or false?

A

False. In renal impairment.

Moa of drug= topoisomerase inhibitor

24
Q

Doxycycline dose?

A

100mg once or twice daily

25
Q

Indications for doxycycline?

A

Acne, CAP, malaria prophylaxis

26
Q

ADRs of doxycycline aside from nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea?

A

Tooth discolouration and photosensitivity

27
Q

Counselling points for doxycycline?

A

Take in the morning with food, avoid antacids and metal supplements within 2 hours

28
Q

Which ribosomal subunit does doxycycline bind to?

A

30S

29
Q

Name an infection that pseudomonas aeruginosa could cause?

A

Hospital acquired pneumonia, CF exacerbations

30
Q

Clarithromycin spectrum?

A

Broad - covers a range of G positive and negative
Step, staph, haemophillus influenzas (-)
+ mycoplasma pneumoniae

31
Q

Example of anaerobic bacteria?

A

Clostridium difficle

32
Q

Ciprofloxacin spectrum?

A

G positive (few), negative (most), and mycoplasma bacteria

33
Q

First line for s. Aureus?

A

Flucloxacillin if mild, vancomycin if severe or if MRSA

34
Q

Alternative for c. Diff if metronidazole is not effective

A

Vancomycin oral

35
Q

First line Tx for mild / moderate clostridium difficile infection?

A

Metronidazole (IV or oral)

If severe, oral vancomycin is used (IV is not effective)

36
Q

First line Tx for chlamydia?

A

Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days

37
Q

First line Tx for bacterial vaginosis and trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Metronidazole (400mg for 7 days)
Or 2g stat dose (less effective but better compliance)

Trichomonas vaginalis is protozoal STI

38
Q

Empirical Tx of uncomplicated UTIs?

A

Trimethoprim 300mg for 3 days (7 days if male)

Other option = nitrofurantoin 100mg q6h for 5 days

39
Q

Dose for first line uncomplicated UTI tx?

A

Women= 300mg Nocte for 3 days
Men = 300mg nocte for 7 days

40
Q

UTI prophylaxis dose?

A

150mg nocte

41
Q

Trimethoprim spectrum?

A

Narrow. Gram negative - e.g. escherichia coli

42
Q

ADRs unique to trimethoprim?
Aside from nausea and vomiting

A

Hyperkalaemia, anaemia, thrombocytopenia

43
Q

Dose reduction in trimethoprim?

A

If CrCl is below 30. Avoid if below 10.
Also avoid in pregnancy (especially the first trimester)

44
Q

Dose of trimethoprim - sulfamethoxazole?

A

1:5 ratio
Mild = 80 / 400
Severe = 160 / 800 (resprim forte)

45
Q

Monitoring required while on trimethoprim?

A

If on prolonged or high dose Tx, monitor folate synthesis and blood count
If more than 3 days, monitor potassium

A. PMF (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions