Osul 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Aphar scores are taken when

A

At 1 and 5 minutes after birth. Scores between 0-3 are extremely low and indicate a need for resuscitation

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2
Q

Exercise to rest ratio prescription in the inpatient rehab setting following MI? Outpatient ?

A

An exercise: rest ratio of 1:1 is appropriate for an initial prescription for inpatient setting, goal for OP is 2:1

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3
Q

Clubbing of finger nails caused by

A

Chronic hypoxia from heart disease or lung cancer and hepatic cirrhosis

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4
Q

Addison’s disease signs and symptoms

A

Asthenia*** (weakness), anorexia, weight loss, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, and syncope

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5
Q

What is the best initial exercise intensity prescription for an elderly pt with no history of CPD

A

60-90% of HRmax whip is equivalent to 50-85% of vo2 max and hhr

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6
Q

A progressive systemic disease of connective tissue causing fibrosis of skin, joints, blood vessels, and internal organs.

A

Scleroderma- initial intervention is to exercise in the pool since it will enhance the patient’s movements and decrease pain

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7
Q

A common finding with a pt c COPD stage III

A

Muscle wasting ( due to impaired functional abilities) and increase AP-to-lateral chest ratio

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8
Q

What dressing is used to prevent adherence to wound bed, keep wound moist, and protect granulation buds

A

Hydrogel dressing

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9
Q

Differentiate between carpal tunnel and promoter teres syndromes

A

Pronator teres syndrome produces similar problems to carpal tunnel but also with involvement of the flexors of the wrist and fingers

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10
Q

During valsalva maneuver what occurs

A

Inc intrathoracic pressure and causes HR to slow down, decreased return of the blood to the heart, and increased venous pressure. Upon relaxation, blood rushes to the heart and can overload the cardiac system, resulting in cardiac arrest

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11
Q

Standardized balance measure scores, signifying Fall risk. Tinetti POMA, tug, functional reach, and berg

A

Tinetti- 30 indicates an increased risk for falling

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12
Q

Murphys sign is indicative of

A

Acute cholecystitis

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13
Q

Supplemental oxygen is indicated when SpO2 and PaO2 drop below?

A

Spo2

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14
Q

What is inclusive on an incident report

A

Names of those involved, inclusive of witnesses, what occurred, when it occurred, and where it occurred

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15
Q

Initially, proper bandaging of lymphedema require what type of bandaging

A

Short term compression wrap- low resting and high working pressure. Means that it has enough pressure to enhance lymphatic return during rest, improve the activity of lyphangion, and facilitate increased return during muscle pumping activities

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16
Q

5 criteria for reducing exercise intensity or termination of session during cardiac rehab

A
  1. Onset of angina 2. Sbp > or equal to 240 dbp> or equal to 110 3. > 1 mm ST segment depression 4. Inc frequency of ventricular arrhythmias 5. Second or third degree AV block
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17
Q

Walking program parameters for a pt with claudication

A

2-3x/day, 3-5 days/week, the pt should be instructed to exercise to the point of claudication pain within 3-5 min, not beyond

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18
Q

A hemi or low-sear wheelchair has a seat height of?

A

17.5 inches and allows for propulsion

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19
Q

Emergency response for an unresponsive pt

A

Begin CPR and attach the AED as soon as it is available (1 breath every 8 seconds) with chest compressions (at least 100/minute)

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20
Q

Torque output of hamstring in a sitting position is inaccurate because

A

Higher due to gravity assistance in sitting position

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21
Q

What produces a unilateral sensorineural hearing loss along with vestibular symptoms

A

Acoustic neuroma

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22
Q

What causes a sensation of fullness in the ear

A

Ménière’s disease

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23
Q

Atropine is used for a pt c CAD. What are side effects of atropine ?

A

Anticholinergic agent- blocks the action of acetylcholine at parasympathetic sites in smooth muscle. Produces increased HR and contractility

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24
Q

What pathology is commonly associated with medial femoral torsion and toeing in

A

Hip anteversion angle >15 between femoral condyles and neck of the femur

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25
Q

The pupillary reflex (constriction of the pupil) is a function of

A

The efferent portion of the oculomotor nerve CNIII

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26
Q

Downward an lateral eye gaze

A

CN IV

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27
Q

An exercise tolerance test should be terminated if

A

Pt has an > 2 mm horizontal or down sloping ST segment depression, or >2 mm ST segment elevation, mod to severe angina, drop in sbp, serious arrhythmias, 260/115 or greater , severe sob, cns signs

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28
Q

Facilitate autolytic debridement and absorb mod-heavy amount of exudate

A

Calcium alginate

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29
Q

A pt is demonstrating multi focal PVCs. What should the PT do?

A

Have the pt sit down, cont monitoring, and notify the physician immediately. The emergency medical response should not be activated since the pt has not arrested.

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30
Q

Pts taking antipsychotic or antidepressant meds should avoid

A

Overheating

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31
Q

Horner’s syndrome hallmark findings

A

Clinical triad of ptosis (droopy eyelid), miosis (pupillary constriction), and anhydrosis (lack of sweating) all of ththe are side of the face and ipsilateral to side of lesion. Results from a lesion that affects the sympathetic pathway to the head

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32
Q

How to expose the supraspinatus tendon for under the acromion to administer ultrasound

A

Slog abduction and internal rotation

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33
Q

A donated of >___ makes a necks atypical dysplastic nevus

A

6 mm or greater. Also variations in colors, irregular boarders, elevation, indicative of malignant melanoma

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34
Q

Left ventricular failure characteristics

A

Persistent spasmodic cough while lying supine, HR rapid (140), SLIGHT EDEMA in both ankles, s3, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, orthopnea, and signs or pulmonary edema ( dyspnea, pallor, cyanosis, tachypnea)

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35
Q

Right ventricular failure characteristics

A

DEPENDENT PITTING EDEMA!, weight gain, fatigue, ruq pain, anorexia, nausea, right sided s3 or s4, cyanosis of nail beds

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36
Q

Weakness, osteoporosis, fractures, and joint pain side effect of what drug

A

Corticosteroids

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37
Q

Child with supinated for optimal orthosis

A

Viscoelestic shoe insert with forefoot lateral wedge

38
Q

During initial healing of a posterior lateral THA, stand pivot transfer to what side?

A

Sound side

39
Q

A T11 Asia A pt bowel training should focus on a bowel methodology of ?

A

Digital stimulation of intact defecation reflexes, bowel and anal sphincters respond to rectal/anal stimulation

40
Q

Pts standing in excessive subtalar pronation, what obligatory motions occur ?

A

IR of the tibia, femur and pelvis

41
Q

Interstitial cystitis pelvic floor relationship

A

Pelvic floor dysfunction is related to muscles that are too tense or in spasm in response to pain and chronic inflammation of the bladder. Thus this is just the opposite of the too relaxed state that leads to incontinence. Thus kegal exercises shouldn’t be done

42
Q

Chronic constipation, incontinence, vaginal and uterine prolapse all benefit from

A

Kegel exercises

43
Q

For NMES, if the pt is complaining of discomfort how should you modify treatment

A

Decrease Pulse duration

44
Q

Which GI source can refer pain to the shoulder?

A

Spleen or diaphragm

45
Q

Esophagus can refer pain to

A

Midback, head or neck

46
Q

Colon or appendix can refer pain to

A

LB, pelvis, or sacrum

47
Q

Gallbladder can refer pain to the

A

mid back and scapular regions

48
Q

Lesion to what causes uncoordinated eye movements, profound gaits and trunk ataxia, balance deficits, and difficulty with postural orientation

A

Vestibulocerebellum

49
Q

Providing a posterior-directed resistance to the right ASIS during stance will?

A

Inc step length with r amputation

50
Q

Intractable constipation (obstruction) refer pain to ?

A

Anterior hip, groin, or thigh region

51
Q

When the occiput is sidebent in one direction, the C1 rotates into the _____ direction.

A

Opposite. Side bending and rotation occur to the same side from c2-c7 regardless if the spine is I’m flexion or extension

52
Q

Normal integration of the stepping reflex

A

2-3 months

53
Q

Avg mouth opening distance

54
Q

In the upper extremity the spastic muscle groups are?

A

Scapular retractors, shoulder adductors, depressors, and ir, elbow flexors and pronators, and wrist and finger flexors

55
Q

A cyclist pt post MI 8 weeks ago is presenting for cardiac rehab. Which exercise test would be most beneficial in order to assess aerobic capacity ?

A

Lower extremity ergometry

56
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia presentation

A

Sudden severe pain occurring in the maxillary or mandibular division on one side of the face

57
Q

Myalgia, weakness, decreased hr and co are signs of ?

A

Hypothyroidism

58
Q

The acl and pcl prevent medial or lateral Tibial rotation ?

59
Q

Pt s/p meniscus repair should remain non weight bearing for?

60
Q

The 5th rib is stuck in the position of maximal inspiration. What mob should PT do to improve rib mobility and assist it in returning to its resting position

A

Grade IV mob of the head of the rib at the costovertebral joint in the superior direction

61
Q

A swishing sound that occurs in the presence of narrowing of an artery. It is the characteristic finding of PVD present on auscultation

62
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis age range

A

10-6 years of age- pain worse with weight bearing, limited and painful hip ir, and weak hip abd

63
Q

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head with insidious onset between 3-12 year of age

A

Legg calve perthes disease

64
Q

A prosthetic knee set too far anterior to the trochanter-knee-ankle line is going to

A

Create a flexion torque at the knee, causing it to buckle easily

65
Q

A prosthetic knee set too far posterior to the trochanter-knee-ankle line is going to

A

Will cause genu recurvatum due to extension torque

66
Q

What is commonly seen on Childers who just begun to walk

A

Er of hip ie toe out gait for balance

67
Q

Pt s/p a stroke is ambulating and presents with a pelvis that is elevated and retracted. What manual therapeutic strategy should the therapist utilize

A

Light resistance to forward pelvic rotation, in order to engage those muscles to help inhibit the tight muscles

68
Q

Normal WBC ?

A

5000-10000 mm3

69
Q

Normal hematocrit in woman

70
Q

Cellulitis vs dermatitis

A

Cellulitis is an inflammatory condition of the dermis and subcutaneous tissues accompanied by infection and fever VS dermatitis with characterized by edema, in by skin, and pain

71
Q

Compensation for quad weakness during stance phase

A

Forward trunk lean vs BACKWARD lean is for glut max weakness

72
Q

Trendelenburg position in terms of CARDIOPULMONARY

A

Head lower than the legs

73
Q

Pt with large right sided bacterial pneumonia. Oxygen level dangerously low. What body position would best improve pt’s arterial oxygen pressure (pao2)

A

Perfusion and ventilation best matched if the pt assumes a l side lying position, c the unaffected side in a gravity dependent position

74
Q

When doing biofeedback for a weak muscle, in which there is decreased ability to recruit motor units or there is a decrease in the size of and number of motor units, the protocol should be?

A

Wider spacing and a high sensitivity would be used in order to create an adequate visible signal

75
Q

When the focus for biofeedback is non on a specific muscle but rather to encourage a general motion, then _____ spacing is used

76
Q

Pt s/p a CVA is having difficulty standing up, so the therapist wishes to do biofeedback in seated position for the quads

A

Low detection- This would decrease the amplitude of the signals generated by the hypertonic muscles. By initially placing the electrodes close together, the therapist decreases the likelihood of detecting undersized motor units for, adjacent muscles

77
Q

A negative Murphys sign (percussion in the costovertebral area)

A

Rules out likelihood of kidney symptoms

78
Q

A pt is reviewing X-rays from a trimalleolar fracture

A

Best radiographic view to visualize the bony anomaly is AP and lateral .. Will show the head of talus using the AP view

79
Q

If pt losses balance and falls with eyes closed on foam will likely demonstrate a

A

Vestibular deficiency

80
Q

Obese young individual initial training program

A

Two daily sessions of 30 mins at 45-70% vo2 max

81
Q

5 risk factors of metabolic syndrome

A
  1. Waist circumference >40 men; >35 women 2. Triglycerides level of 150 mg/dl or higher 3. HDLs 100 mg/dL
82
Q

Hypokalemia signs and symptoms

A

Decreased potassium in the blood- Cramps, hypotension, dizziness, depressed st segment, GI disturbances, confusion, respiratory distress

83
Q

Using FES on spastic muscle what should be the min ramp up time

84
Q

Post C section PT should include

A

Postoperative TENS, assisted breathing and coughin techniques, and gentle abdominal exercises with incisional support by a pillow, and pelvic floor exercises

85
Q

Disordered thinking, fragmented thoughts, errors of logic or abstract reasoning, delusions, poor judgement are signs of

A

Schizophrenia

86
Q

Sleep disturbances and flashbacks are signs of

87
Q

Proper high for toilet seat

A

17-19 inches

88
Q

Proper height for horizontal grab bars

A

33-36 inches

89
Q

An inverted T wave indicates?

A

Myocardial ischemia - symptom is angina

90
Q

Bell’s palsy PT interventions

A

Massage, stretching, and moist heat assist in maintaining pliable musculature and increasing comfort. For pts who can’t shut they’re eye it is especially important to provide protection

91
Q

After an ST elevated MI three days ago it is okay to administer an exercise test if

A

HR stays at or below 70% age predicted max