Osteoporosis Flashcards

1
Q

What cells secrete parathyroid hormone? What does it do?

A

Chief cells of parathyroid gland.

Acts to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood

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2
Q

What is calcitonin and where is it produced?

A

Parafollicular C cells of the thyroid.
Prevents hypercalcaemia by directly inhibiting osteoclast activity, thereby reducing calcium mobilization and release from the skeleton.

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3
Q

Draw a diagram to explain the release of PTH and its interaction with calcium

A

See notes: Secretion of parathyroid hormone occurs in response to low serum calcium through negative feedback. Calcium-sensing receptors located on parathyroid cells are activated when calcium is low. Also stimulated by an increase in serum phosphate (increased phosphate causes formation of a complex with serum calcium, forming calcium phosphate, which reduces stimulation of calcium sensitive receptors, triggering release of PTH)

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4
Q

What effect does PTH have?

A

It activates 25-hydroxyvitamin D-1 alpha-hydroxylase, the enzyme that converts 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 to the active form of vitamin D (1,25(OH)2D3), resulting in a marked elevation of plasma levels of vitamin D (calcitriol).

PTH also stimulates the renal absorption of calcium and inhibits the reabsorption of phosphate, causing phosphate diuresis.

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5
Q

What effect does Vitamin D have?

A

1,25(OH)2D3 increases dietary calcium absorption in the small intestine and increases osteoblast activity, resulting in stimulation of osteoclast-mediated resorption.
Vit D plays an important role in differentiation of the promyelocyte to the osteoclast precursor to mature osteoclast, through osteoblast generated osteoclast differentiation factor.
These effects of vitamin D provide bone calcium for the plasma and also cause bone resorption coupled with formation as part of the bone remodeling process.
Thus, vitamin D strengthens bone and repairs microfractures that may have occurred during bone usage.
The result is calcium mobilization by the skeleton into the plasma compartment by the action of vitamin D hormone and PTH.

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6
Q

Where in the kidney do PTH and vit D work and what do they do?

A

In the distal renal tubule they act in concert to produce virtually complete reabsorption of the filtered load of calcium

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7
Q

Why is phosphorus important?

A

Phosphate accounts for more than 50% of bone mineral mass.
Osteoblasts are unique among all other cell types in that they create a mineral trap (calcium phosphate) in bone matrix after it has been deposited.
This trap depletes the ECF around the osteoblast of both calcium and phosphorus, and if the local concentration of phosphate is too low, osteoblasts become phosphorus starved.

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8
Q

How is phosphate homeostasis maintained?

A

Intestinal absorption, renal excretion, balance of phosphate exchange in and out of cells and hormonal regulation.

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9
Q

What effect does PT have on phosphate excretion?

A

It promotes it (through the inhibition of brush border membrane Na-Pi cotransport activity)

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10
Q

What effect does Vit D or Insulin have on phosphate excretion?

A

It is decreased. Phosphate is reabsorbed through stimulation of brush border membrane Na-Pi cotransport and inhibition of the phophaturic action of PTH.
Vit D also regulates intestinal absorption by stimulating the same transporter in the upper SI

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11
Q

What effect does Vit D deficiency have on Pi?

A

Increased Pi renal excretion and decreased intesting Pi and calcium absorption, resulting in a severe loss of both calcium and phosphate from bone because of enhanced PTH activty resuling in loss of bone mineral and osteomalacia
This is in contrast to osteoporosis by calcium defiency

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12
Q

What is the mechanism by which Vit D induces bone resorption?

A

There is a Vit D receptor expressed in osteoblasts and regulates the expression of several genes in the this cell. These genes include bone matrix proetins osteocalcin and osteopontin which are upregulated by vit d (in addition to type 1 collaagen which is repressed).

Vit D and PTH induce the expression of RANK on osteoclast proenitors and mature osteoclasts which promotes osteoclast differentiation and increases osteoclast activity

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13
Q

What is the role of Osteoblasts?

A

BLASTS BUILD
Synthesise and secrete the organic matrix.
Active osteoblasts are found on the surface of newly forming bone.
As osteoblast secretes matrix, which is then mineralized, the cell becomes an osteocyte

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14
Q

What is the role of Osteoclasts?

A

CLASTS CLEAVE
Carry out resorption of bone.
RANK ligand is expressed on the surface of osteoblast progenitors. RANK ligand binds to the RANK receptor on osteoclast progenitors, stimulating osteoclast differentiation and activation.
Both PTH and vitamin D increase osteoclast number and activity, whereas oestrogen decreases osteoclast number and activity by this indirect mechanism.
Calcitonin, in contrast, binds to its receptor on the basal surface of osteoclasts and directly inhibits osteoclast function

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15
Q

Describe the basic model of bone remodeling

A

The cycle of bone remodeling is carried out by the basic multicellular unit (BMU), which consists of a group of osteoclasts and osteoblasts. In cortical bone, the BMUs tunnel through the tissue, whereas in cancellous bone, they move across the trabecular surface. The process of bone remodeling is initiated by contraction of the lining cells and the recruitment of osteoclast precursors. These precursors fuse to form multinucleated, active osteoclasts that mediate bone resorption. Osteoclasts adhere to bone and subsequently remove it by acidification and proteolytic digestion. As the BMU advances, osteoclasts leave the resorption site and osteoblasts move in to cover the excavated area and begin the process of new bone formation by secreting osteoid, which eventually is mineralized into new bone. After osteoid mineralization, osteoblasts flatten and form a layer of lining cells over new bone.

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16
Q

What are the 3 subdivisions of pain producing structures in the back?

A

Mechanical, systemic and referred with mechanical being the most common (97%)

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17
Q

What are mechanical causes of pain in the back?

A

Mechanical is pain that is elicited with spinal motion and decreases with rest
Lumbar strain (disruption of muscle fibres at various points in belly or musculotendinous junction)/sprain (stretch of >1 spinal ligaments
Degenerative disc (increases flexion) and/or facets (increases extension)
Herniated nucleus pulposus (radiation to leg greater than back)
Spinal stenosis
Spondyloslysis and/or spondyloisthesis (lower back with occasional radiation to post thigh
Compresion fracture (may occur without hx- evaluate for osteoporosis etc)

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18
Q

What are the sytemic causes of pain in the back?

A

Much less common than mechanical but these warrant work up and referrel
Infection
Malignancy
Inflammatory spondyloarthropathy (ie ankylosing spondylitis)
Connective tissue disorder

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19
Q

What are the referred causes of pain in the back?

A
Aortic aneurysm
Acute pancreatitis
Acute pyelonephritis
Renal colic
Peptic ulcer disease
UTI
Billiary colic disease (problems with gall bladder)
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20
Q

What are some red flags with regards to back pain?

A
Age > 50 years
History of cancer
Temperature > 37.8°C
Constant pain—day and night
Weight loss
Significant trauma
Features of spondyloarthropathy
Neurological deficit
Drug or alcohol abuse
Use of anticoagulants
Use of corticosteroids
No improvement over 1 month

Possible cauda-equina syndrome
• saddle anaesthesia
• recent onset bladder dysfunction

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21
Q

What does the nature of the pain indicate in back pain?

A

aching throbbing pain = inflammation, e.g. sacroiliitis
deep aching diffuse pain = referred pain, e.g. dysmenorrhoea
superficial steady diffuse pain = local pain, e.g. muscular strain
boring deep pain = bone disease, e.g. neoplasia, Paget’s disease
intense sharp or stabbing (superimposed on a dull ache) = radicular pain, e.g. sciatica

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22
Q

What functions does bone remodelling serve?

A
  1. To repair microdamage within the skeleton to maintain skeletal strength
  2. To supply calcium from the skeleton to maintain serum calcium
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23
Q

What are the acute demands for calcium?

What are the chronic demands for calcium?

A

Acute demands for calcium involve osteoclast-mediated resorption as well as calcium transport by osteocytes

Chronic demands for calcium result in secondary hyperparathyroidism, increased bone remodelling and overall loss of bone tissue.

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24
Q

What regulates bone remodelling?

A

Several circulating hormones including: oestrogens, androgens, Vit D and PTH and some locally produced growth factors (IGF-1, IGH2, TGF bea, interleukins)

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25
Q

What is the basic pathology of osteoporosis?

A

Throughout life, older bone is periodically resorbed by osteoclasts at discrete sites and replaced with new bone made by osteoblasts. This process is known as remodeling. Remodeling is orchestrated and targeted to a particular site that is in need for repair by osteocytes. An oversupply of osteoclasts relative to the need for remodeling or an undersupply of osteoblasts relative to the need for cavity repair are the seminal pathophysiological changes in osteoporosis.

26
Q

What is the definition of the dementia sydrome?

A

A syndrome with many causes but is defined as an acquired deterioration in cognitive abilities that impairs the successful performance of ADLs

27
Q

What is affected in dementia?

A

Depends on the type but memory is the most common cognitive ability lost with dementia. In addition to memory, other mental faculties may be affected, including language, visuospatial ability, calculation, judgement and problem solving.

28
Q

What are some neuropsychiatric and social deficits associated with dementia?

A

depression, apathy, hallucinations, delusions, agitation, insomnia and disinhibition

29
Q

What is the course of Alzheimers?

A

Begins in transtentorial region, spreads to the hippocampus and then moves lateral and posterior to temporal and parietal neocortex. This results in memory loss then aphasia and navigational problems

30
Q

What histologically is the problem in Alzheimers?

A

Neuritic plaques: APP is cleaved into alpha and beta secretase and then if B is acted up on by gamma it produces AB42 (toxic) or AB40 (non). If acts upon A produces P3 (non)
Neurofibrilliary tangles: cytoplasmic fibrils of abnormally phosphorylated tau proteins. Normally Tau binds to and stabilizes microtubules supporting axonal transport of organelles, glycoproteins etc but once hyperphosphorylated tau can no longer bind

31
Q

What is characteristic in Alzheimers?

A

Loss of synapses and neurons (ACh), intracellular abnormalities (tangles) and extracellular deposits (plaques)

32
Q

Is there a genetic component to Alzheimers?

A

YES!! Trisomy 21, PS-1, PS-2, A beta O E

33
Q

What is the course of vascular dementia?

A

It is associated with focal damage in a random patchwork of cortical and subcortical regions or white matter tracts that disconnect nodes within distributed networks

34
Q

What are the types of vascular dementia?

A
  1. Multiinfarct: Individuals with several strokes may have large or small infarcts that involve lots of different regions. Neuroimaging reveals infarct so hx and imaging distinguish from AD
  2. Diffuse white matter: Pts with bilateral abnormalities of subcortical white matter on MRI. Disorder appears to result from chronic ischemia due to occlusive diseases of small penetrating cerebral arteries and arterioles.
35
Q

What is the course of frontotemporal dementia?

A

Distinguishing anatomic hallmark is focal atrophy of frontal, insular and/or temporal cortex

36
Q

What abnormal proteins are associated with FTD?

A

The ACh system is relatively spared but Tau, TAR binding protein of 42kDa (TBP-43)

37
Q

Is there a genetic component of FTD?

A

Yes! Autosomal dominant in 10% (problems in MAPT create alternate splicing of Tau and GRN show a progranulin mutation)

38
Q

What are the types of FTD?

A

Pick’s disease (3R Tau, early, behavioural/personality changes), Progressive suprnuclear palsy (4R tau/NFT, truncal rigidity, disequilibrium, fatal in 5-7 years), Corticobasal degredation (extrapyramidal signs and sx) and FTDs without Tau pathology (ubiquitin containing inclusions found in superficial cortical layers in temporal and frontal lobes and in dentate gyrus)

39
Q

What is dementia with lewey bodies?

A

Lewey bodies in a wide range of cortical locations. Inclusions seem to contain alpha synuclein and when stained this shows the presence of abnormal neurites which contain aggregated protein.
MOA not clear.

40
Q

Why do dementia patients lose weight?

A

Early stage: (consider cancer, diabetes or thyroid disease) depression can cause anorexia, should still be able to describe problems but may forget to buy food and become frustrated

Middle: 1) Metabolic (burning by pacing)

2) Physical/mechanical ie can’t consume enough food (dentures begin to misfit)
3) psychiatric ie not interested in eating (can be delusional- food is poison, distracted during dinner hours, apraxia, change in tastes or drug SE(

End: feeding apraxia, lose desire to eat and recognition of food as sustinance

41
Q

Causes of hypocalcaemia?

A

Hypoalbminoema (can’t be carried), alkalosis (increase in basic level of blood), Vit D def, Chronic renal failure, pseudo/hypoparathyroidism, acute pancreatitis, hypomagnaesaemia

42
Q

What is “tetany”?

A

Profound hypocalcaemia produces tetany which is characterised by muscle spasms due to increased excitability of peripheral nerves

43
Q

What is the triad of symptoms of hypocalcaemia in children and sx in adults?

A

carpopedal spasm, stridor and convulsions

Adults get carpopedal spasm, tingling of hands, feet and around the mouth and stridor and fits are rare

44
Q

How do you elicit latent tetany?

A

Troussea’s sign: inflate the cuff above systolic for 3 mins and you’ll get carpopedal spasm
Chrostek’s sign: tapping the branches of CN7 as they emerge from parotid gland and producing twitiching of facial muscles

45
Q

What other rarer sx are produced by hypocalcaemia?

A

Papillodema, prolongation of QT interval, calcification of basal ganglia/grand mal seizures/epilepsy/psychosis/cateracts

46
Q

What disease are caused by decreased calcium and phosphate?

A

Vitamin D deficiency causes this and this causes Rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults

47
Q

What is the emergency tx of tetany

A

10-20ml of 10% calcium gluconate IV over 10-20 minutes and monitor cardiac
If also has hypomagnesaemia as well give magnesium chloride over 24 hours

48
Q

What is the tx of hypoparathyroidism and pseudohypoparathyroidsim?

A

Oral calcium salts and Vit D analogues (either alfacalcidol or calcitriol) and this needs to be carefully monitored for risk of flipping

49
Q

What are the negative oral health trends in the elderly?

A

The elderly have greater rates of dental decay, gum disease, dry mouth and oral cancer than the general population.
The elderly have higher rates of edentulism (missing teeth), few sound teeth and more filled and decayed teeth than the general population

50
Q

what are some consequences of oral diseases in the elderly?

A

Pain, problems with speech, discomfort when eating certain foods and concerns about self appearance.

51
Q

What are the causes of hypercalcaemia when the PTH is normal or elevated?

A

Normal or elevated is not appropriate!

Primary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism, Lithium induced hyperparathyroidism and familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia

52
Q

What are the causes of hypercalcaemia when the PTH is low

A

Malignancy, increased 1,25 (OH)2 Vit D (vit d intoxication, sarcoidosis, HIV), thyrotoxicosis, pagent’s disease with immobilisation, milk-alki syndrome, thiazide diuretics, glucocorticoid deficeincy

53
Q

What kind of clinical signs would you expect in a patient with hypercalcaemia?

A

“Bones, stones and groans”

Polyuria and polydipsia, renal colic, lethargy, anorexia, nausea, dypepsia, peptic ulceration, constipation, depression, drowsiness, impaired cognition

54
Q

What kind of investigations would you do in a patient with hypercalcaemia?

A

PTH levels- Increased shows primary hyperparathyroidsim but if decreased then it shows malignancy without/with bony metastases (Can do a PTH related peptide specific assay because this is often the cause here)
Diagnosis of FHH by screening family for hypercalcaemia and/or mutation in the gene encoding the calcium sensing receptor

55
Q

What is the management of hypercalcaemia?

A

Measure serum albumin (especially in cancer decreased levels can give inaccurate readings)

1) IV saline (improve renal function and increase urinary excretion of Ca)
2) Biphophonates IV (inhibit bone resportion)- zoledronic acid or pamidronate or clodronate)
3) Calcitonin (IM) acts rapidly to increase Ca excretion and decrease bone resporption and can be combined with patients with life threatening for 24-48 hours

56
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria of osteoporosis?

A

Presence of risk factors and Back pain (vertebral fracture?), Kyphosis (vertebral fracture?), Impaired vision (may result in an increased risk of falling and thereby an increased risk of fracture), Impaired gate, imbalance and lower extremity weakness (as above), Vertebral tenderness (as above)

57
Q

What are the ddx of osteoporosis?

A

Multiple Myeloma: bone pain and symptoms of anaemia and renal failure (Urine electrophoresis)

58
Q

What tests should you order to diagnose osteoporosis?

A

DXA (T score of -2.5 combined with clinical picture), All the electrolytes (normalish), PTH, thryoid

59
Q

General treatment of osteoporosis?

A

General: Ca and Vit D, Exercise, smoking cessation, reduce falls

60
Q

What is the tx of non glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis in women?

A

Postmenopausal with fragility fracture or DXA T-score <2.5

a. Biphosphonates plus calcium and vitamin D supplementation
b. Raloxifene or denosumab and calcium and vitamin D supplementation
2. Biphosphonates and raloxifene not tolerated/contraindicated
a. Teriparatide plus Ca and Vit D
b. HRT or denosumab plus Ca and Vit D

61
Q

What is the tx of non glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis in men?

A

Fragility fracture or DXA T-score <2.5 and low testosterone

a. Testosterone added to oral bisphosphonates plus Ca and Vit D
3. Biphosphonates and testosterone not tolerated/contraindicated
a. Teriparatide plus Ca and Vit D

62
Q

What is the tx of glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis?

A

Biphosphonates plus Calcium and Vit D