Osteoporosis Flashcards

1
Q

Characteristics of osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • Autosomal dominant inherited bone condition due to mutations in COL1A1 or COL1A2.
  • Mutation in type 1 collagen gene results in decreased production of type 1 collagen
  • Brittle bones prone to fracture, blue clera, progressing hearing loss due to abnormal ossicles
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2
Q

Mutations in COL1A1 and COL1A2 lead to what conditions?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteoporosis
Ehlers Danlos Syndrome

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3
Q

What happens in mutations for WNT1 and LRP5

A

WNT: signals OSTEOBLASTS TO MAKE MORE BONE!

Mutations in WNT1 impair bone formation

  • Heterozygous missense mutation in WNT1 = severe, early onset inherited osteoporosis
  • Homozygous nonsense mutation lead to severe form of osteogenesis imperfecta.

Note: LRP5 is a coreceptor of WNT so mutations in LRP5 also cause OP

  • Severe inactivating mutations: osteoporosis pseudoglioma
  • Mild inactivating mutations: osteopenia
  • Activating mutations: high bone mass
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4
Q

What are the stimulators and inhibitors of osteoclast generation.

A

Stimulators of osteoclast generation: calcitriol, PTH, TNF-a, prostaglandin E2, IL1, 6, 11, 17

Inhibitors of osteoclast generation: IL4,12,13,17
IFN gamma

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5
Q

What does RANKL activate?

A
  • Binds to RANK receptor on osteoclast precursor and mature osteoclast cells and activates osteoclasts
  • Production stimulated by PTH, Vitamin D
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6
Q

Effect of oestrogen and progesterone on bone?

A
  • In late puberty, estrogen inhibits bone resorption, promotes osteoclast apoptosis but prevents osteoblast apoptosis
  • Progesterone has an anabolic effect on bone, increasing osteoblastic activity and competing for osteoblastic receptors of the glucocorticoids
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7
Q

Which cytokines have osteoclastic activity vs osteoblastic activity

A

Osteoclastic activity

  • IL-1 stimulate osteoclast differentiation
  • Prostaglandin E2
  • IL6 - role in myeloma

Osteoblastic activity

  • TGFB
  • IL 10
  • insulin favours ostoeblastic activity
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8
Q

What are the causes of osteoporosis?

A

Primary OP (most common form)
- Type 1 post-menopausal as decreased estrogen leads to increased bone resoprtion
Type II senile OP, gradual loss of bone mass as patients age

Secondary OP

  • Drug induced: steroids, anticonvulsants (phenytoin, carbamazepine), thyroxine, PPI, aromatase inhibitors (letrzole), immunosuppressants (cyclosporin, tacrolimus)
  • MM
  • Excessive alcohol use
  • Immobilisation
  • Endocrine: hypercortislism, hypogonadism, hyperthyroid, hyperparathyroid, renal disease, addisons, diabetes
  • Lifestyle: smoking, alcohol. immobilisation
  • GI: ceoliac, malabsoprtion, IBD
  • Genetics: CF, osteogenesis imperfecta, Marfans, Ehler Danlos
  • Post transplant bone loss is the most rapid in 3-6 months after transplantation, medication induced
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9
Q

Clinical features of OP

A
  • Mostly asymptomatic
  • Fragility fracture
  • Common locations: vertebral > femoral neck > colles (distal radius) > long bones like humerus
  • > 25% loss of height = compression fracture
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10
Q

Investigations for OP

A
  • DEXA scan: measure lumbar spine and femoral neck.
    Non dominant radius of forearm if hyperparathyroidism, obese, spine (osteophytes, vascular calcifications) or hip cannot be measured
  • Women > 65, Men > 70
  • T score difference in SD between patient’s BD and BMD of a young adult reference mass for post menopausal women

OP: T score < 2.5SD
Osteopenia: T score between -1 and -2.5 SD
Normal: >-1 SD

OP is diagnosed if T score < -2.5SD OR fragility fracture present regardless of BMD OR osteopenia with high falls fractur risk

  • Z score: compares a person’s bone density to what is expected in someone of equivalent age, sex, and weight matched controls
  • Detects secondary causes of osteoporosis rather than occurring due to age, eg: steroids, malignancy, multiple myeloma
    Worsening z score also correlates with increased fracture risk
  • use for premenopausal women and younger men (<50yo)
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11
Q

What are the effects of weight on BMD

A
  • High BMI often associated with higher BMD
  • Lower BMI often associated with lower BMD - mechanical effects on weight bearing bone stimulating osteoblasts
  • Classically obesity suggested to be protective for fracture but some sites eg: upper arm increased+
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12
Q

In Australia, PBS subsidized meds available for OP if:

A
  • minimal trauma fracture regardless of BMD
  • 70 years or older with osteoporosis at hip or spine
  • T score < -1.5 on 7.5 mg prednisolone equivalent for 3 months
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13
Q

What z score do you need to start investigating and what investigations.

A
  • Determines need for investigations eg z < -2.0
  • Initial Investigations:
    FBE, U&Es, serum protein electrophoresis, serum free light chains/urine Bence Jones protein, LFTs, Ca, PO4, 25(0H) vitamin D, PTH, TSH, ESR/CRP and testosterone (in males only).
  • Further Investigations as needed:
    Coeliac screen, E2, LH and FSH in women if premature menopause is suspected, hypercortisolism screen, 24-hour urine calcium and creatinine excretion.
    ?Role of bone turnover markers eg: C-terminal telopeptide of type 1 collagen (CTx), CrosslapS
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14
Q

What calculator can be used to assess fracture risk?

A

Fracture risk calculator (FRAX): 10 year probability of hip fracture and major osteoporotic fracture (hip/clinical spine, proximal humerus, foream) for untreated patients between 40-90yo

  • Treatment should be considered if high 10 year risk of osteoporotic fracture is > 20% or hip fracture > 3%.
  • So improves fracture prediction but relies on FN BMD

Trabecular bone score

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15
Q

Characteristics of osteomalacia.

A

DEFICIENCY OF MINERALISED BONE

Chronically LOW VIT D and hypophosphatemia can cause osteomalacia in adults and rickets in children. 
CLINICAL FEATURES
- Bone pain
- Fractures (usually stress type)
- Proximal myopathy (→ waddling gait) 

Condition characterised by impaired mineralisation and disrupted microarchitecture at the growth place. Can be caused by vitamin D deficiency (most common), proximal tubular acidosis, hypophosphatemia and low calcium intake. Manifestations include bone pain, pathological fractures and myopathy

Rickets can present as widening of the wrist joints due to an excess of non-mineralized osteoid at the growth plate

Osteomalacia describes softening of the bones secondary to low vitamin D levels that in turn lead to decreased bone mineral content. If this occurs in growing children it is referred to as rickets, with the term osteomalacia preferred for adults.

Causes
vitamin D deficiency
malabsorption
lack of sunlight
diet
chronic kidney disease
drug induced e.g. anticonvulsants
inherited: hypophosphatemic rickets (previously called vitamin D-resistant rickets)
liver disease: e.g. cirrhosis
Features
bone pain
bone/muscle tenderness
fractures: especially femoral neck
proximal myopathy: may lead to a waddling gait
Investigation
bloods
low vitamin D levels
low calcium, phosphate (in around 30%)
HIGH ALP 
x-ray
translucent bands (Looser's zones or pseudofractures)

Treatment
vitamin D supplmentation
a loading dose is often needed initially
calcium supplementation if dietary calcium is inadequate

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16
Q

What vit D level do you aim for if on anti-resorptive therapy for OP

A

Vit D > 50

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17
Q

What is the role of PTH in bone

What is the role of calcitonin

A
  • If given intermittently: bone formation by inhibiting osteoblast apoptosis, also inhibits collagen synthesis at high concentrations
  • If given continuously: bone resorption
  • Stimulates osteoclastic gene expression and production if IL6, IGF1, prostaglandins

Calcitonin: transiently inhibits osteoclasts

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18
Q

What medications are used for OP?

A
  • Anti-resorptives: inhibit osteoclasts, reduce bone resorption and reduce born formation - reduce the remodelling rate and reduce osteoclast mediated resorption and thus reduced bone formation. Overall there is reduction in the amount of bone lost.
    Examples: bisphosphonate (inhibit osteoclast activity), denosumab (RANK ligand inhibitor, prevents differentiation, maturation and activity of osteoclasts), SERMS (eg: raloxifene) - used in post menopausal. HRT safe in women <60yo.

Anabolic Agents: promote osteoblasts to increase bone formation
Used where there is high fracture risk
- Recent clinical/verebtal fracture
- Multiple prior fractures
- Low bone mass
- Treatment failure
Teriparatide and romosozumab listed for patients meeting 3/2/1 rule.
- Teriparatide (PTH analogue): increase bone resorption + formation, subcut daily injection for 18 months, activates osteoblast and stimulate bone formation and because it affects bone remodelling it also affects bone resorption.
- Romosozumab (monoclonal antibody against sclerostin): reduced bone resorption, increased bone formation. Acts on bone modelling, no resorption phase and bone resorption is reduce and bone formation is increased

VIt D: increase absorption of calcium and phosphate from the gastrointestinal tract

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19
Q

MOA of bisphosphonates + SE

A
  • Bisphosphonates: e.g., alendronate, risedronate
  • Mechanism of action: inhibition of osteoclasts → reduced bone resorption

Side Effects
- Hypocalcemia - need to be vitamin D and calcium replete before starting
- Esophagitis, esophageal cancer
- Osteonecrosis of the jaw (zoledronic acid > pamidronate)
- AF, uveitis
- Atypical femoral fracture (rare)
-
Bisphosphonates should be taken in the morning and evening at least 30 minutes before meals, with plenty of water, and the patient should maintain an upright position for at least 30 minutes following intake to prevent esophagitis.
- Not recommended in severe kidney disease
- Slow bone loss, improve BMD and reduce fracture rates
- increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate
- acute phase response: fever, myalgia and arthralgia may occur following administration
- hypocalcaemia: due to reduced calcium efflux from bone. Usually clinically unimportant

  • Alendronate has been approved for treatment of men with osteoporosis as well as treatment of both women and men with glucocorticoid induced
    osteoporosis. Alendronate has been shown to reduce
    the incidence of spine and hip fractures by approximately SO%
    over 3 years in patients with previous fractures.
  • Risedronate reduces the incidence of vertebral fracture by approximately
    45% and nonvertebral fractures by one-third over 3 years.
  • Zoledronic acid has
    been approved for secondary prevention of fractures in
    patients who have had recent low-trauma hip fracture.
    Reduce vertebral fractures by 70%, hip fractures by 41%
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20
Q

What medications can be used if patients don’t respond to bisphosphonates?

A

Teriparatide: parathyroid hormone analog
- Mechanism of action: Stimulates bone formation by inhibiting osteoblast apoptosis (also inhibits collagen synthesis at high concentrations). Also increase bone resorption. Net result is increased bone mass
- Mainly used for the treatment of osteoporosis and as an alternative for severe osteoporosis (T-score ≤ -3.5) or for patients with contraindications to bisphosphonates [17]
- Administered in a pulsatile fashion
- Side Effects
Hypercalcemia (usually transitory)
Calciphylaxis
Increased risk of osteosarcoma in patients with: Paget disease of the bone (or an unexplained elevation of alkaline phosphatase) or prior cancers or radiation therapy
- Reduces risk of vertebral and other fractures, but not hip fractures.
Alendronate blunts teliparatide effect.

Raloxifene: (selective estrogen receptor modulator, SERM): used in post menopausal patients
MOA: Inhibits osteoclast bone resorption and promoting of osteoclast apoptosis
SE: hot flushes, VTE
Not given in pre-menopausal women due to risk of ovarian stimulation, not effective in males
Only reduces risk of vertebral fractures

Denosumab (monoclonal antibody against RANKL)
- Mechanism of action: prevents RANKL from activating osteoclasts via the RANK receptor.
- Indicated in patients with impaired renal function or in whom bisphosphonates therapy failed
- Adherence to 6-monthly dosing regimen is essential to prevent loss of bone mineral density between doses
- Therapy must be either indefinite, or replaced by a bisphosphonate if stopped
- Withdrawal or interruption of treatment (dose delayed by more than 4 weeks) is associated with an increased risk of multiple spontaneous vertebral fracture
- Can cause hypocalcaemia (particularly in patients with impaired kidney function [creatinine clearance 30 mL/min or less], vitamin D deficiency or a malabsorption disorder
- Administration of denosumab is safe provided that:
serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentration is greater than 50 nanomol/L
serum total calcium concentration corrected for albumin is in the normal range (2.10 to 2.60 mmol/L)
creatinine clearance is greater than 30 mL/min.

  • Calcitonin
    Rarely used today due to the availability of more effective alternatives
    Indicated in postmenopausal osteoporosis

Hormonal Therapy

  • Estrogen: for women with intolerance to first-line or second-line treatment options or with persistent menopausal symptoms
  • Usually in combination with progestin
  • Contraindications: breast cancer, coronary heart disease, deep vein thrombosis
  • Testosterone: for men with hypogonadism
  • Calcitonin inhibits osteoclast activity and reduces renal and gastrointestinal resorption of calcium.

Strontium: activates osteoblasts and stimulates osteoclasts to promote osteoprotegerin which inhibits RANK-RANKL binding

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21
Q

What is the function of sclerostin and what is the function of romosozumab?

A
  • Sclerostin is a negative regulator of bone formation. Inhibits WNT signalling (WNT signals osteoblasts to make more bone) and downregulate the stimulus for osteoblast development and function.
  • Romosozumab is a monoclonal antibody (IgG2) that inhibits sclerostin.
    Allows signalling down the WNT pathway leading to both bone formation and decrease in bone resorption (prevents osteoclast differentiation)
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22
Q

What are the effects of romosozumab?

A

In postmenopasual women with OP, Romo significantly increased BMD at the lumbar spine, hip and femoral neck. Reduces vertebral, hip and non vertebral fractures

Must be followed up by an antiresorptive where effects are reversible when ceased.

SE: increased risk of MI/stroke

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23
Q

What are the best medications for OP?

A

Least effective to most effective in improving BMD at lumbar and hip.

  • Aledronate
  • Zoledronic acid
  • Denosumab
  • Teriparatide
  • Denosumab + Teriparatide
  • Romosozumab and then alendronate
  • Romosozumab and then denosumab
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24
Q

Indication for romosozumab

A

Used in treatment failure
- T score < -3 SD
- > 2 minimal trauma fractures
> 1 symptomatic new fracture after 12 months of continuous therapy with antiresorptive

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25
Q

What are born turnover markers

A

Monitor response to therapy
P1NP: synthesised by osteoblasts when procollagen is cleated by type 1 collage

CTX: synthesised by osteoclasts when type 1 collage is cleaved during resoprtion.

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26
Q

Characteristics of paget disease

A

Associated with increased bone remodelling - increase in both osteoclast + osteoblast activity leading to formation of disorganised (woven) bone which is weak and replaces the normal lamellar bone. Resulting in overgrowth of bone at single (monostatic) or multiple (polostotic) sites.

The skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities are most commonly affected.

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27
Q

Where the paget disease normally affect and what are the clinical features?
Investigation findings

A

the stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised ALP

A condition where uncontrollable bone turnover occurs, most likely due to a disorder of the osteoclast.

Bones of the axial skeleton
are most frequently affected, namely the pelvis (70%),femur (55%), lumbar spine (53%), skull (42%), and tibia (30%).
The skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities are most commonly affected.

Bone pain
Pathological fractures - chalk stick fractures of long bone
Bone deformities, bowing of legs, saber shin
Skull enlargement - increasing hat size
Impaired hearing - due to ankylosis of the ossicles

High ALP, bone turnover markers
Normal CMP
Isolated ALP —> bone scan

  • other markers of bone turnover include: procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and serum and urinary hydroxyproline
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28
Q

Treatment of Paget disease

A

1st line: bisphosphonates as they suppress rapid born turnover
2nd line: calcitonin

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29
Q

Complications of paget’s

A

OA
Malignant degeneration into osteosarcoma (rare)
High output heart failure due to formation of ateriovenous shunts within the bone which leads to an increased overall blood flow

Complications
deafness (cranial nerve entrapment)
bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years)
fractures
skull thickening
high-output cardiac failure
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30
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Disorder of decreased mineralisation of newly formed osteoid at site of bone turnover, caused by hypocalcaemia and hypophosphataemia associated with Vitamin D deficiency.

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31
Q

What is fanconi syndrome

A

Fanconi syndrome: proximal tubular defects with impaired reabsorption of glucose, phosphate and amino acids as well as HCO3

  • Type 2 RTA
  • Hypophosphataemia, renal glucosuria (glucosuria with normal serum glucose), hypouricemia, aminoaciduria
  • Acidosis due to impaired resoprtion of HCO3
  • Usually cause by light chain deposition and toxicity in proximal tubules, eg: MM, amyloidosis
  • Also associtated with meds: acetazolamide, tenofovir, aminoglycosides.
32
Q

What are the different collagen types and what happens when they are deficient

A
  • Type 1: bone, osteogenesis imperfecta type 1
  • Type 2: cart2liage
  • Type 3: blood vessels (3 layers), vascular type of Ehler danlos
  • Type 4: floor (basement membrane), alport
    Syndrome
33
Q

What is the MOA and side effects associated with teriparitide?

A
  • Teriparatide: parathyroid hormone analog
  • Mechanism of action: increases osteoblastic activity → increased bone growth (increase osteoblast and increase bone resorption - net is bone formation)
  • Mainly used for the treatment of osteoporosis and as an alternative for severe osteoporosis (T-score ≤ -3.5) or for patients with contraindications to bisphosphonates
    ○ Administered in a pulsatile fashion
    ○ Side Effects
  • Hypercalcemia (usually transitory)
  • Calciphylaxis
  • Increased risk of osteosarcoma in patients with:
    Paget disease of the bone (or an unexplained elevation of alkaline phosphatase)
    Prior cancers or radiation therapy
34
Q

Synthesis of vit D

A

Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) is mainly synthesized in the body, but it can also be taken up with food and supplements.

Endogenous vitamin D synthesis involves a series of steps:

  1. provitamin D3 (7-dehydrocholesterol) is synthesized from cholesterol in the liver and the skin.
  2. provitamin D3 is converted in the skin with the help of UV radiation to vitamin D3.
  3. Vitamin D3 is hydroxylated to calcidiol (25-hydroxycholecalciferol) in the liver (by the enzyme 25-hydroxylase)
  4. Vitamin D3 is hydroxylated to calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3, which is biologically active) in the kidneys (by the enzyme 1α-hydroxylase). Parathyroid hormone and cAMP promote this last step by stimulating 1α-hydroxylase. Calcium, phosphate, and FGF-23 inhibit 1α-hydroxylase.

Function of Vit D

  • Absorption of calcium and phosphate in the intestine
  • Reabsorption of calcium in kidneys
  • Stimulation of bone mineralisation and remodelling.
35
Q

Characteristics of familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia

A

-Etiology: autosomal dominant inactivating mutation in the CaSr gene → decreased sensitivity of G coupled calcium sensing receptors in parathyroid glands and kidneys → higher levels of Ca2+ required to suppress PTH and higher reabsorption of Ca2+ in the kidney → hypocalciuria with mild hypercalcaemia and normal or increased PTH levels

Clinical Features:

  • Usually asymptomatic (incidental findings) when compared to primary hyperparathyroidism
  • Neonatal hypocalcemia in children of mothers of FHH (paraesthesia, muscle spasms, seizures).

Diagnosis
- Hypercalcaemia and inappropriately normal or increased PTH
- Hypocalciuria
↓ 24 hour urinary calcium excretion (<200mg/day)
↓ Urine Ca/Cr clearance ratio < 0.01
- Confirmatory genetic testing for CaSr gene mutations
- High Mg

Therapy

  • No treatment necessary, benign condition that does not require parathyroidectomy
  • Cinacalcet may be considered in patients with symptomatic FHH
36
Q

Hypocalcemia in patients with pancreatitis may suggest?

.

A

Pancreatic necrosis

37
Q

Charactersitics of milk alkali syndrome

A

Excessive consumption of calcium carbonate

Presents with hypercalcemia, metabolic alkalosis, AKI

38
Q

ECG changes of hypercalcaemia

A

QT shortening
J wave
Bradycarda

39
Q

MOA of cinacalcet

A

Calcimimetics, eg: cinacalcet function to increase the sensitivity of calcium receptors to available calcium, decreasing PTH secretion
Cinacalcet also shown to decrease the risk of death and major CV events in older but not younger patients

40
Q

Definitive treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroidectomy

41
Q

Mutations associated with parathyroid carcinoma

A

HRPT2 gene

Associated with familial hyperparathyroidism.

42
Q

Cause of primary, secondary and tertiary hyperparathyroidsm

A
  • Primary: high PTH, high Ca, low Phos - hypercalcaemia results from abnormally active PTH
    Parathyroid adenoma/hyperplasia
  • Secondary: high PTH, low Ca, high PO4 - Hypocalcaemia results in reactive overproduction of PTH, reactive hyperplasia of the parathyroid gland
    Vit D deficiency
    CKD
    Renal osteodystrophy
  • Tertiary: high PTH, high Ca, high PO4 - results from untreated sHPT with continously elevated PTH

result of the prolonged PTH stimulation needed to maintain normocalcemia resulting from decreased 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D levels from kidney impairment. This prolonged stimulation results in increased calcium levels and severe hyperparathyroid hyperplasia and elevated PTH levels that do not respond to phosphate binders and calcitriol therapy. Severe bone loss and other symptoms make surgical resection the treatment of choice.

43
Q

If hypoparathyroidism is the cause of hypocalcemia, what needs to be corrected?

A

Coexisting low Mg
Low levels of magnesium
(due to alcohol abuse or malnutrition) activate
G-proteins that stimulate calcium-sensing receptors and decrease PTH secretion

44
Q

Clinical features of hypocalcaemia

A
  • Tetany: parathesia, spasm, stiffness
  • Chvostek: twitching of facial muscles elicited by tapping the facial nerve below and in front of ear
  • Trousseau sign: ipsilateral carpopedal spasm occurring several minutes after inflation of blood pressure cuff to pressures above systolic BP
  • Seizure

Cardio

  • Congestive heart failure
  • Hypotension
  • Cardiac arrhthmias
45
Q

Typical lab finding of vit d deficiency

A

low calcium
low/normal phosphate
high pth

46
Q

ECG for hypocalcaemia

A

prolonged qt

ventricular arrhthmias

47
Q

Medications that cause osteoporosis

A
Glucocorticoids 
Immunosuppressants (cyclosporine)
Anti seizure medications, eg: phenytoin 
Aromatise inhibitors eg: letrozole
Gnrh agonists and antagonists 
Heparin 
Cancer chemotherapy
PPI: affects vitamin d absorption
48
Q

Endocrine causes of osteoporosis

A
Acromegaly 
Adrenal insufficiency 
Cushing 
Endometriosis 
Hyperparathyroidism 
Hyperprolactinemja 
Hyperthyroidism 
Hypogonadism
Diabetes

Also think about bariatric surgery

49
Q

When should patients be started on OP treatment for steroid induced osteoporosis?

A
  • > 50yo on steroid therapy of 7.5mg per day for at least 3 months with a T score < -1.5
50
Q

Features of raloxifene

A

Raloxifene

  • selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) has been shown to prevent bone loss and to reduce the risk of vertebral fractures, but has not yet been shown to reduce the risk of non-vertebral fractures has been shown to increase bone density in the spine and proximal femur
  • may worsen menopausal symptoms
  • increased risk of thromboembolic events
  • may decrease risk of breast cancer
51
Q

Avascular necrosis features

A

Avascular necrosis (AVN) may be defined as death of bone tissue secondary to loss of the blood supply. This leads to bone destruction and loss of joint function. It most commonly affects the epiphysis of long bones such as the femur.

Causes
long-term steroid use
chemotherapy
alcohol excess
trauma

Features
initially asymptomatic
pain in the affected joint

Investigation
plain x-ray findings may be normal initially. Osteopenia and microfractures may be seen early on. Collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign
MRI is the investigation of choice. It is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning

Management
joint replacement may be necessary

52
Q

Characteristics of osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • Autosomal dominant inherited bone condition due to mutations in COL1A1 or COL1A2.
  • Mutation in type 1 collagen gene results in decreased production of type 1 collagen
  • Brittle bones prone to fracture, blue clera, progressing hearing loss due to abnormal ossicles
53
Q

Osteopetrosis

A

Overview

  • also known as marble bone disease
  • rare disorder of defective OSTEOCLAST function resulting in failure of normal bone resorption
  • results in dense, thick bones that are prone to fracture
  • bone pains and neuropathies are common.
  • calcium, phosphate and ALP are normal
  • stem cell transplant and interferon-gamma have been used for treatment
54
Q

What causes a rugger jersey spine?

A

Hyperparathyroidism

Rugger jersey spine describes the prominent endplate densities at multiple contiguous vertebral levels to produce an alternating sclerotic-lucent-sclerotic appearance. This mimics the horizontal stripes of a rugby jersey. This term and pattern are distinctive for hyperparathyroidism.

55
Q

Compare pagets disease and osteomalacia

A

PAGET’S - OSTEOCLAST

  • Normally old man with bone pain and ISOLATED elevated ALP
  • Osteoclast activity is greatly increased, new bone formation from osteoblast is increased, new bone is ABNORMAL
  • Associated with increased bone remodelling - increase in both osteoclast + osteoblast activity leading to formation of disorganised (woven) bone which is weak and replaces the normal lamellar bone.
  • Pathological fractures, bone deformities, skull enlargement, impaired hearing
  • ISOLATED high ALP
    NORMAL CMP
    Markers of bone turnover:
    (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and serum and urinary hydroxyproline
    TX:
    Bisphonates
    Calcitonin

OSTEOMALACIA - DEFICIENCY OF MINERALISED BONE

  • Osteomalacia describes softening of the bones secondary to low vitamin D levels that in turn lead to decreased bone mineral content. If this occurs in growing children it is referred to as rickets
  • Low phosphate, low calcium, low vitamin D
  • High ALP
  • bone pain, fractures, proximal myopathy leading to waddling gait
56
Q

Features of pseudohypothyroidism

A
  • Pseudohypoparathyroidism
    target cells being insensitive to PTH
    due to abnormality in a G protein
    associated with low IQ, short stature, shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals
  • low calcium, high phosphate, high PTH
  • diagnosis is made by measuring urinary cAMP and phosphate levels following an infusion of PTH. In hypoparathyroidism this will cause an increase in both cAMP and phosphate levels.
  • In pseudohypoparathyroidism type I neither cAMP nor phosphate levels are increased whilst in pseudohypoparathyroidism type II only cAMP rises.
57
Q

Who do you treat for osteoporosis?

A
  • Existing fracture in post-menopausal woman (or man >50yo) = TREAT
  • “Asymptomatic” vertebral fracture = TREAT
  • No existing fracture: treat on basis of RISK
    Prior fracture - treat
    Age
    BMD
58
Q

What are osteoclasts and osteoblasts derived from?

A

Osteoclast: mononuclear cell
Bone resorption

Osteoblast: mesenchymal stem cell
Makes new bone

Osteocyte: Secretion of FGF23 and sclerostin

59
Q

Cortical vs trabecular bone

A

Cortical Bone

  • Dense outer shell of compact bone
  • 80% of skeletal mass
  • Turnover rate 2-3% per year

Trabecular Bone

  • Sponge like network of delicate plates of bone
  • 20% of skeletal mass
  • Higher turnover rate compared to cortical bone
  • Excessive remodelling leads to OP
60
Q

What does osteoprotegerin do?

A
  • OPG Is released by the osteoblasts

- Prevent RANK ligand binding to RANK - inhibits osteoclasts

61
Q

What is an osteoporotic fracture

A

Any fragility fracture >50yo except those of skull, face, fingers and toes

62
Q

Severity of vertebral fractures

A

Mild: 20-25%
Moderate: 25-40%
Severe: >40%

63
Q

What are high risk groups for vit D deficiency?

A
  • High latitude in winter
  • Elderly particularly residential care
  • Dark skin
  • Malabsorption
  • Biliary cirrhosis
  • Anti epileptics
64
Q
25yo woman presents for investigation of infertility and a karyotype reported as 45XO (turner). Which condition associated with turner warrants commencement of regular screening?
A. Aortic regurg
B. Breast cancer 
C. Macular degeneration 
D. Myelodysplasia 
E. Uterine fibroids
A

A. Aortic regurg

65
Q

A 45-year-old woman presents with an acute onset of left hemiparesis. Her past medical history includes sensorineural hearing loss diagnosed at age 23, and insulin dependent diabetes diagnosed at
age 30. Her brother has diabetes, and her mother has diabetes and
hearing loss.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis in this family?
A. Cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical
infarcts and leukoencephalopathy (CADASIL).
B. Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia.
C. Maturity onset diabetes in the young (MODY).
D. Mitochondrial encephalopathy, lactic acidosis and stroke-like
episodes (MELAS).
E. Wolfram syndrome.

A

D. Mitochondrial encephalopathy, lactic acidosis and stroke-like
episodes (MELAS).

66
Q

An 86-year-old lady with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoporosis is found to have mild primary hyperparathyroidism. Her usual medications are metformin,
quinapril, hydrochlorothiazide, cholecalciferol and
alendronate.
In light of the new diagnosis, which of her medications should be discontinued?
A. Alendronate.
B. Cholecalciferol.
C. Hydrochlorothiazide.
D. Metformin.
E. Quinapril.

A

C. Hydrochlorothiazide.

Affects calcium

67
Q
75yo lady with OP. 
Had 2x fractures on Risedronate. 
Recent TIA
Renal function eGFR now 30. 
Worsening dexa. 
What of the following would be appropriate to commence? 
A. Denosumab 
B. Romosozuab 
C. Teriparatide 
D. IV zoledronic acid 
E. Cyclical zoledronic acid
A

C. Teriparatide

  • 2 fractures on the bisphosphonate (anti-resorptive agent) so you want them to qualify for an anabolic medication.
  • Because of the previous TIA, you wouldn’t give romosozumab
    Romosozumab: has antiresorptive and anabolic effects, no renal adjustment required, if on dialysis higher risk of hypocalcaemia
67
Q
75yo lady with OP. 
Had 2x fractures on Risedronate. 
Recent TIA
Renal function eGFR now 30. 
Worsening dexa. 
What of the following would be appropriate to commence? 
A. Denosumab 
B. Romosozuab 
C. Teriparatide 
D. IV zoledronic acid 
E. Cyclical zoledronic acid
A

C. Teriparatide

  • 2 fractures on the bisphosphonate (anti-resorptive agent) so you want them to qualify for an anabolic medication.
  • Because of the previous TIA, you wouldn’t give romosozumab
    Romosozumab: has antiresorptive and anabolic effects, no renal adjustment required, if on dialysis higher risk of hypocalcaemia
68
Q
75yo lady with OP. 
Had 2x fractures on Risedronate. 
Recent TIA
Renal function eGFR now 30. 
Worsening dexa. 
What of the following would be appropriate to commence? 
A. Denosumab 
B. Romosozuab 
C. Teriparatide 
D. IV zoledronic acid 
E. Cyclical zoledronic acid
A

C. Teriparatide

- 2 fractures on the bisphosphonate (anti-resorptive agent) so you want them to qualify for an anabolic medication.
- Because of the previous TIA, you wouldn't give romosozumab Romosozumab: has antiresorptive and anabolic effects, no renal adjustment required, if on dialysis higher risk of hypocalcaemia
69
Q

Primary mechanisms of glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis

A

Suppression of osteoblast proliferation and differentiation

70
Q

What promotes the secretion of RANK-ligand by osteoblasts?

A
  • PTH - increase RANK-L but decreases OPG
  • PGE2
  • TNFa
  • IL1
  • 1,25 dihydroxy vit D
71
Q

Which of the following treatments do not inhibit osteoclast bone resorption?

a) Alendronate
b) Teriparatide (PTH 1-32)
c) Zoledronate
d) Raloxifene

A

b) Teriparatide (PTH 1-32)

72
Q

Regarding bone biology:

a) RANK is expressed on osteoblasts
b) PTH binds to a receptor on osteoclasts
c) OPG (osteoprotogerin) binds to RANK ligand as a decoy receptor
d) An activating mutation in the LRP5 gene is associated with osteoporosis

A

c) OPG (osteoprotogerin) binds to RANK ligand as a decoy receptor

RANK ligand: osteoblast
RANK: osteoclast

73
Q
36 yo woman presents with pain in both feet. Her serum phosphate is noted to be 0.49 mmol/L. There is no clinical evidence of myopathy. Her serum calcium is 2.35 mmol/L, PTH is 4.5 pmol/L and 25OHD 51 nmol/L. She has a sister with the same disorder. Next best test:
a) Bone biopsy
b) Bone scan
c) IFE EPG
d) Urine phosphate corrected for
GFR (TmP/GFR)
e) A genetic test
A

d) Urine phosphate corrected for
GFR (TmP/GFR)

Need to prove phosphate wasting
X linked hypophosphataemic ricket syndromes

74
Q

Causes of hypercalcaemia

A

PTH Dependent

  • Primary Hyperparathyroidism normally secondary to a parathyroid adenoma
  • Secondary Hyperparathyroidism: normally due to hypocalcaemia or vit D deficiency
  • Tertiary Hyperparathyroidism: renal failure –> chronic secondary hyperparathyroidism –> autonomous activation of one or more parathyroid gland
  • Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FFH )

PTH Independent

  • Malignancy, eg: MM
  • Excess calcitriol (sarcoidosis, other granulomatous disease)
  • Excess gastrointestinal calcium absorption - milk alkali syndrome (excess calcium intake)
  • Endocrine: thyrotoxicosis, pheochromocytoma, cortisol deficiency, VIPoma
  • Immoblisation

Medications:

  • Thiazides - reduce renal calcium excretion
  • Lithium
  • Calcitriol
  • Calcium carbonate and antacids
75
Q

24 year-old woman referred for serum calcium 2.95 mmol/L
- Lassitude, nocturia
- Amenorrhoeic x 6 months
- PTH 150 ng/L
Father had “neck surgery for calcium problems

What is not indicated?
A. Parathyroid sestamibi
B. Urinary calcium
C. Serum calcitonin
D. Pregnancy test
E. Screening for MEN1
A

C. Serum calcitonin

Think genetic cause

76
Q

67 year-old man presents with low grade fever, night sweats, weight loss

  • S Ca 2.96 mmol/L
  • PTH <3 ng/L
  • Hb 106 g/L
What test is not indicated?
A. Urinary calcium
B. CTchest/abdomen/pelvis
C. TSH
D. IFE, EPG
E. PTHrP
A

A. Urinary calcium

Think cancer