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Osteology > Osteo Final > Flashcards

Osteo Final Flashcards

1
Q

Name the two different type of bone growth.

A

Interstitial

Appositional

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2
Q

Growth in length is what type of bone growth?

A

Interstitial

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3
Q

How does appositional growth occur?

A

Growth in width, thickness or diameter

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4
Q

How is it that the shaft elongates in long bones?

A

Cartilage grows at the epiphyseal plate and is replaced by bone.

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5
Q

List the four zones of interstitial bone growth

A
  1. Zone of resting cartilage
  2. Zone of proliferating cartilage
  3. Zone of hypertrophic cartilage
  4. Zone of calcified cartilage
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6
Q

In what zone is the cartilage getting ready to die?

A

Zone of hypertrophic cartilage

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7
Q

What zone is nearest the epiphysis?

A

Zone of resting cartilage

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8
Q

What is the function of the zone of resting cartilage?

A

To anchor the epiphyseal plate to the bone in epiphysis.

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9
Q

T or F

In the zone of resting cartilage, chondrocytes are large and condensed

A

False! Small and scattered

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10
Q

What zone is highly mitotic to replace chondrocytes dying at the diaphyseal end?

A

Zone of Proliferating cartilage

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11
Q

What do the chondrocytes look like in the proliferating zone?

A

Large, arranged like stacks of coins.

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12
Q

What happens to the chondrocytes in the zone of hypertrophic cartilage?

A

Get large and burst. This will change the pH in order to trigger osteoblasts.

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13
Q

How are the chondrocytes arranged in the hypertrophic zone?

A

In columns

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14
Q

List some properties of the Zone of Calcified Cartilage

A
  • few cells thick
  • mostly dead chondrocytes from calcifying matrix
  • osteoclasts dissolve cartilage
  • osteoblasts and capillaries invade and lay down bony matrix
  • epiphyseal plate firmly cemented to bone of diaphysis
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15
Q

When does the bone stop growing?

A

When the multiplying cartilage stops.

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16
Q

T or F

For most of interstitial bone growth, the epiphyseal plate remains constant in size, but bone lengthens

A

Very true

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17
Q

What is the first bone to start ossification but the last to stop.

A

Clavicle - aprox 33 yoa

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18
Q

Most bones complete ossification at what age?

A

14-19 yoa

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19
Q

Cartilage is replaced on what side of the plate?

A

Diaphyseal

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20
Q

The presence of what structure means growth has stopped?

A

Epiphyseal line (bony structure)

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21
Q

What is the first step in appositional growth?

A

Osteoblasts form ridges around periosteal arteries
Secretion of matrix
Differentiation into osteocytes

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22
Q

In the second step of appositional growth what happens to the ridges formed in step one?

A

The ridges fuse together

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23
Q

What becomes the endosteum of canal around the artery?

A

periosteum

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24
Q

What do the osteoblasts build more of to form the osteon in step two of appositional growth?

A

layers of lamellae

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25
Q

What thickens the bone in appositional growth?

A

Osteoblasts producing circumferential lamellae

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26
Q

Osteoclasts are dissolving bone in the medullary cavity for what purpose?

A

To enlargen the medullary cavity as the shaft grows outward and to maintain proportions and increase marrow needs.

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27
Q

The law of bone transformation is what law of bone growth?

A

Wolff’s Law

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28
Q

Describe Wolff’s Law

A

Bone is laid down where needed to resist compressive and tensile forces and is removed where not needed in order to achieve the greatest economy of tissue

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29
Q

Is Wolff’s law used to explain everyday normal use?

A

No. Comes into play when the actions of the bones are traumatic ex) training for a marathon.

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30
Q

Heuter Volkmann Principle states that there is a direct relationship between what factor and the rate of growth of the epiphyseal cartilage?

A

Static compressive forces parallel to the longitudinal axis

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31
Q

What does Volkmann’s principal imply?

A

That compressive forces may be important factors regulating the growth of epiphyseal cartilage and even long bone lengths.

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32
Q

Vargus is a term describing what characteristic in the human skeleton

A

Bowleggedness

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33
Q

Knocked knees is also known as?

A

Valgus

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34
Q

What sex steroids will develop the secondary skeletal sexual characteristics?

A

Estrogens and androgens

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35
Q

What hormone is especially known to shut down growth plates?

A

Estrogen

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36
Q

List the three hormonal influences on bone growth

A

Insulin-like growth factor
Human Growth hormone
Sex steroids

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37
Q

What vitamin is important for the differentiation of osteoblasts into osteocytes?

A

Vit C

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38
Q

What vitamin will stimulate the activity of osteoblasts?

A

Vit A

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39
Q

The vitamins responsive for protein synthesis are?

A

Vit K & B

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40
Q

What happens to the bone when osteoblasts are overactive?

A

Abnormally thick and heavy bone - arthritic lipping, calcium spurs.

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41
Q

Weakened bone tissue is the result of…

A

hypoactive osteoblasts

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42
Q

What is a major cause of osteoporosis

A

Hyper activity of osteoclasts = weakened bone tissue

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43
Q

The condition resulting from the bone matrix calcification being incomplete or absent is known as?

A

Rickets

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44
Q

What is a telltale sign in young children with Rickets?

A

Bowing of femur

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45
Q

What are the two varieties of Rickets discussed in class?

A

Vit D deficiency - responds to supplementation

Vit D resistant - caused by errors in metabolic pathways of calcification. Does NOT respond to supplementation

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46
Q

What is often called the adult form of Rickets?

A

Osteomalacia

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47
Q

What is the etiology of Osteomalacia?

A

Osteoid not adequately mineralized

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48
Q

What are some causes of Osteomalacia?

A

Inadequate dietary calcium
Vitamin imbalances
Hormonal imbalances
Pregnancy and lactation

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49
Q

The condition in which the amount of actual bone matrix per volume is reduced is known as?

A

Osteoporosis

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50
Q

What is cortical involution?

A

Compact bone becomes thinner

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51
Q

Is Osteoporosis a single disease?

A

No!

  • postemenopausal: loss of anabolic hormones
  • senile: due to old age
  • disuse: due to lack of mechanical loads
  • idiopathic: no readily observed cause, can affect anyone at any age.
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52
Q

What is the “Marble bone disease”

A

Osteopetrosis

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53
Q

Describe Osteopetrosis

A
  • Abnormally large amounts of bone matrix and highly mineralized bone matrix
  • Very thick cortical bone
  • Dense network of cancellous bone
  • Large amounts of calcified cartilage
  • Bone is very brittle and easily fractured (high bone mineral to collagen fibre ratio)
  • Systemic
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54
Q

What disease is similar to osteoporosis but more localized?

A

Paget’s

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55
Q

What disease is characterized by soft brittle bones and is an inherited autosomal dominant trait?

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

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56
Q

Giantism is the result of what metabolic influence?

A

High hGH usually the result of pituitary disorders

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57
Q

Another name for open fracture is…

A

Compound

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58
Q

A simple fracture can also be called…

A

Closed fracture

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59
Q

What type of fracture is when the bone is shattered?

A

Comminuted

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60
Q

What type of fractures do we see in growing bones?

A

Greenstick

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61
Q

The fracture of the tib and fib is called…

A

Pott’s

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62
Q

Where does Colle’s fracture happen in the body?

A

Wrist

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63
Q

The type of fracture more commonly found on flat bones is called?

A

Depressed

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64
Q

The first step in healing fractures involves the formation of?

A

A fracture hematoma aka blood bandaid

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65
Q

What happens to the capillaries in the area of the fracture in the first step of healing?

A

Capillaries grow - bringing osteoclasts and phagocytes

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66
Q

T or F

In step one of fracture healing circulation continues to the site of injury keeping nearby bone alive.

A

False - circulation stops at site of injury and nearby bone cells die.

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67
Q

After the blood bandaid forms what forms next?

A

Fibrocartilagenous callus - turns blood bandaid into cartilage.

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68
Q

What is a pro callus?

A

Actively growing connective tissue

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69
Q

What cell will produce collagen to “glue” the fracture together?

A

Fibroblasts

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70
Q

The procallus will become what type of callus?

A

Fibrocartilaginous

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71
Q

After the fibrocartilaginous callus is formed the next step is to form?

A

Bony callus

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72
Q

In fracture healing the trabeculae production will be important to join what tissues together?

A

Living to dead

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73
Q

Initially what type of bone is formed in the bony callus

A

Woven bone - embryonic bone

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74
Q

What is the final stage in healing a fracture?

A

Bone remodelling: dead portions of bone resorbed, compact bone replaces spongy bone, callus smoothed out and often barely detectable.

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75
Q

In the bone remodelling stage of fracture healing, compact bone replaces spongy bone where?

A

At periphery and where previously found callus.

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76
Q

In the fracture healing process, the hematoma lasts approx. how many days?

A

7 Days

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77
Q

What are the 2 main categories of joint classification?

A

Physiological

Anatomical

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78
Q

Structural or composition is a description of what classification?

A

Anatomical

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79
Q

What are the three types of anatomical classifications?

A

Fibrous, Cartilaginous, Synovial

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80
Q

Physiological classification of joints categorizes into two more properties what are they?

A

Function and degree of movement

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81
Q

Name the the sub types of the physiological category of joints.

A

Synarthrosis
Amphiarthrosis
Diarthrosis

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82
Q

A joint cavity filled with fluid would have what physiological and anatomical classification?

A

Diarthrosis and Synovial

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83
Q

What does amphiarthrosis mean? Give examples

A

A joint joined by either cartilage or cartilage and fibrous tissue. Ex: Primary epiphyseal plates of growing bones and secondary types like the intervertebral discs.

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84
Q

Gomphosis is an example of what physiological joint classification?

A

Synarthrosis

85
Q

A synarthrosis has what type of anatomical classification?

86
Q

What is the function of Synarthrosis joints? Give examples

A

Permit very little movement under normal conditions. Suture joints, Gomphosis (teeth sockets), interosseous membranes between tib and fib

87
Q

Where do we typically find symphyses? What type of joint are they?

A

Midline of the body

- Cartilaginous

88
Q

Name the two types of cartilaginous joints

A
  1. Synchondroses

2. Symphyses

89
Q

Synchondrosis can be categorized into…

A

Primary and Secondary

90
Q

What synhondrosis will become a synostoses?

A

Primary - epiphysis & diaphysis

91
Q

What will a secondary synochondrosis turn into?

A

Will remain a synchondros

92
Q

What kind of cartilage do we find in a cartilaginous joint?

A

Hyaline and Fibrocartilage

93
Q

What do we find within the synovial membrane?

A

Synovial fluid

94
Q

T or F

Arteries and veins often penetrate the capsule of a synovial joint?

95
Q

Hyaline cartilage is found in synovial joints where?

A

Articular cartilage

96
Q

What structures make up the articular capsule?

A

Fibrous capsule - on the outside

Synovial membrane

97
Q

There are how many different types of synovial joints?

98
Q

Name all the uniaxial synovial joints

A

Hinge, Pivot

99
Q

What is the only nonaxial synovial joint?

A

Planar (gliding)

100
Q

Name the multi axial/polyaxial synovial joint with examples.

A

Ball and Socket - hip and shoulder

101
Q

What is another name for ellipsoidal?

102
Q

What are the two biaxial joints?

A

Condyloid and Saddle

103
Q

List the different factors affecting ROM of a synovial joint.

A
  • Structure or shape of articulating bones & cartilage
  • Strenght & tension of the joint ligaments
  • Arrangement and tension of the muscles
  • Apposition of soft parts
  • Disuse
  • Aging
104
Q

List the different types of Angular Movements of synovial joints.

A
  • Flexion
  • Extension
  • Hyperextension
  • Abduction
  • Adduction
  • Circumduction
105
Q

Rotation includes what two directions of movement?

A
  • Medial (internal)

- Lateral (external)

106
Q

Give an example in the body of gliding

A

Ulnar deviation

Radial deviation

107
Q

How do radial and ulnar deviation differ?

A

Ulnar is medial and radial is lateral

108
Q

Opposite of supination?

109
Q

Opposite of elevation

A

Depression

110
Q

What movements can the ankle do?

A

Inversion, eversion

Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion

111
Q

Calvaria or calve means?

112
Q

How many bilateral fossa doe we have in the basicranium?

113
Q

The function of the basicranium is to?

A

Protect the brain

114
Q

How many bones make up the fascial skeleton?

115
Q

Aka for viscerocranium?

A

Fascial skeleton or splanchnocranium

116
Q

Function of the splanchnocranium

A

Form mouth and nose, contributes to eye orbits

117
Q

Name the flat cranial bones

A

Parietal, temporal, occipital and frontal

118
Q

Ethmoid and sphenoid are what type of cranial bones?

119
Q

Where does the dura mater attach to in the cranial bones?

A

The crista galli

120
Q

What is the one true flat bone of the cranium?

121
Q

What is the only movable bone of the skull?

122
Q

What is a unique feature of the mandible?

A

Started off as two bones and fused together to form 1

123
Q

What is the one primary synchondrosis in the skull?

A

Basilar suture- between occipital and sphenoid

124
Q

What joint in the skull is synovial?

A

Temporomandibular

125
Q

Cranial sutures are considered royalty. Name them.

A

Coronal, Sagittal, Squamosal, Lambdoidal

126
Q

What are the functions of the sinuses in the skull?

A

Lightening skull

Warming/moistening air

127
Q

T or F

If your nose is not wet you cannot smell anything

128
Q

What is not a paranasal sinus: Sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillary, frontal, mastoidal

129
Q

What sinus connects to the inner ear?

130
Q

Inflammation in the parotic sinus will have what effects on the body?

A

Affect balance more than hearing.

131
Q

Where do the paranasal sinuses drain?

A

Into the nose

132
Q

Turbinates are also called?

A

Nasal Conchae

133
Q

What bone are the superior & middle nasal conchae part of?

134
Q

Why is the inferior nasal conchae different from the superior and middle?

A

It is a bone all of it’s own

135
Q

The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid forms what septum?

136
Q

The inferior septum is formed by?

137
Q

The anterior plate of the nasal septum is made out of what type of connective tissue?

A

Septal Cartilage (hyaline)

138
Q

List the 7 bones that make up the orbit

A 
Frontal
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Maxillary
Zygomatic
Lacrimal
Palantine
139
Q

What runs within the lacrimal foramen to the inferior nasal meatus?

A

Nasolacrimal duct

140
Q

What is a Buttress?

A

Thickened area of bone formed to protect weaker regions.

141
Q

What is the name of the synovial gliding joint in the vertebral column?

A

Zygapophyses

142
Q

What forms the intervertebral foramen?

A

The superior and inferior notches

143
Q

What runs through the interverterbal foramen?

A

Spinal nerves

144
Q

What houses the spinal cord?

A

Vertebral foramen

145
Q

What are some defining characteristics of cervical vertebrae?

A

Small & thin
Transverse foramina
Bifid spinous processes
Uncinate process

146
Q

Why do we have bifid spinous processes in Cspine?

A

Greater ROM

147
Q

Name the 3 special cervicals

A

C1 - Atlas
C2 - Axis
C7 - Vertebral prominens

148
Q

What is so unique about the Atlas

A

No body: articular surface for dens of C2, articular facets for Occiput
No Spinous

149
Q

What is a unique feature of the Axis?

A

Odontoid process aka Dens

150
Q

The body of the thoracic vertebra has what shape?

A

Heart shaped

151
Q

What is unique about the spines of the Tspine?

A

Transition to point inferiorly

152
Q

What is another unique feature of the Tspine vertebra?

A

Rib facets

153
Q

What vertebra have the largest bodies?

154
Q

What processes do the lumbars have that the other vertebra do not?

A

Mamillary, and Accessory

155
Q

The cruciate ligaments of the vertebral column have three subtypes what are they?

A

Superior Longitudinal Band
Transverse Ligament of Atlas
Inferior longitudinal band

156
Q

What joint helps the head nod yes

A

Atlanto-occipital joint

157
Q

What type of join is the atlanto-axial joint? What movement of the head does it allow?

A

Synovial pivot and gliding

158
Q

What ligament in the neck will prevent anterior movement and helps keep disc where its supposed to be?

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament

159
Q

Where is the posterior longitudinal ligament located?

A

Inside the vertebral canal

160
Q

What does the tectorial membrane cover?

A

Atlanto-axial joint & ligaments

161
Q

What type of joint are the vertebral bodies?

A

Cartilaginous - symphysis

162
Q

What ligament limits flexion of the vertebra?

163
Q

Hyperextension is limited by what ligament?

164
Q

The spine is originally has what type of curvature?

165
Q

What regions of the spine alter based on changes force in applied on them?

A

2 most mobile regions - cervical and thoracic

166
Q

Kyphosis is an exaggeration of primary or secondary curvature?

167
Q

What is the name of an exaggeration of secondary curvature?

168
Q

Any lateral curvature is called?

169
Q

What is the term that describes an abnormal condition of joints immobilized by bone production uniting the bones solidly to one another.

170
Q

What can cause Ankylosis?

A

Genetics, induced by trauma, disease, surgery

171
Q

What are the two primary parts to the rib cage?

A

Sternum and ribs

172
Q

Function of the rib cage?

A

Protection of viscera and assist in breathing

173
Q

What part of the rib cage contributes to the elasticity of the chest wall?

A

Costal cartilages - hyaline cartilage

174
Q

Ribs 1-7 are called?

175
Q

False ribs are…

176
Q

What ribs are floating?

177
Q

What joint in the thorax will become bone to assist with movement of the upper torso? What joint classification is it?

A

Xiphisternal - Primary cartilaginous joint

178
Q

Do the sternalcostal joints stay cartilage or become bone?

A

Stay cartilage

179
Q

What type of joint is the costovertebral joint?

180
Q

What ribs articulate with only 1 vertebra?

A

1, 10, 11, and 12

181
Q

The breathing movements of the ribs is often described like?

A

Bucket handle movement. Ribs elevate on inhale

182
Q

What is the movement of the diaphragm when breathing in?

A

Diaphragm contracts

183
Q

When the chest contracts and the diaphragm relaxes are we breathing in or out?

184
Q

The pump handle motion describes the movement of what structure in the thorax as we inhale?

185
Q

What bones make up the pectoral girdle?

A

Scapula and clavicle

186
Q

What is the role of the costoclavicular ligament?

A

Support = non moving joint

187
Q

Where do the rotator cuff muscles attach?

A

To joint capsule exterior

188
Q

What happens to the humerus during a dislocation?

A

Humerus drops out of glenoid cavity

189
Q

What is another name for adhesive capsulitis?

A

Frozen Shoulder

190
Q

Dislocation of what appendicular joint is common in children?

A

Dislocation of elbow

191
Q

Cubitis = ?

A

Elbow joint

192
Q

When the forearm is deviated medially we call this?

193
Q

Valgas is when the forearm deviates in what direction?

194
Q

The interphalangeal joints are ______ joints

195
Q

What bones make up the coxal?

A

Ilium, Ischium, Pubis

196
Q

An aka for Poupart’s ligament is?

A

Inguinal Ligament

197
Q

Gimbernat’s ligament can also be called

A

Lacunar ligament

198
Q

A female pelvis is more _____ shaped compared to a mans which is more ______ shaped.

A

Bowl, glass

199
Q

The sacroiliac joint is what type of joint?

200
Q

What joint is more stable, the shoulder or the hip?

A

Hip - acetabulum is more deep than glenoid cavity

201
Q

What does Q angle mean?

A

Angle of convergence of the femur

202
Q

Males or females have a larger Q angle?

203
Q

What is considered the largest and most complicated joint in the body?

204
Q

What are the extra capsular ligaments of the knee?

A

MCL and LCL

205
Q

The knee is a hinge joint with with what special features?

A

Has slight rotation and is biaxial

206
Q

What kind of joint are the intertarsals?

A

Gliding synovial.

207
Q

Name the three arches of the foot

A

Medial longitudinal arch
Transverse arch
Lateral longitudinal arch

208
Q

The interphalangeal joints are ________ joints

209
Q

The MT joints of the foot are _______ joints

A

Synovial condyloid

Osteology (1 decks)

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