Osteo Final Flashcards

1
Q

Name the two different type of bone growth.

A

Interstitial

Appositional

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2
Q

Growth in length is what type of bone growth?

A

Interstitial

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3
Q

How does appositional growth occur?

A

Growth in width, thickness or diameter

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4
Q

How is it that the shaft elongates in long bones?

A

Cartilage grows at the epiphyseal plate and is replaced by bone.

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5
Q

List the four zones of interstitial bone growth

A
  1. Zone of resting cartilage
  2. Zone of proliferating cartilage
  3. Zone of hypertrophic cartilage
  4. Zone of calcified cartilage
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6
Q

In what zone is the cartilage getting ready to die?

A

Zone of hypertrophic cartilage

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7
Q

What zone is nearest the epiphysis?

A

Zone of resting cartilage

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8
Q

What is the function of the zone of resting cartilage?

A

To anchor the epiphyseal plate to the bone in epiphysis.

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9
Q

T or F

In the zone of resting cartilage, chondrocytes are large and condensed

A

False! Small and scattered

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10
Q

What zone is highly mitotic to replace chondrocytes dying at the diaphyseal end?

A

Zone of Proliferating cartilage

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11
Q

What do the chondrocytes look like in the proliferating zone?

A

Large, arranged like stacks of coins.

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12
Q

What happens to the chondrocytes in the zone of hypertrophic cartilage?

A

Get large and burst. This will change the pH in order to trigger osteoblasts.

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13
Q

How are the chondrocytes arranged in the hypertrophic zone?

A

In columns

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14
Q

List some properties of the Zone of Calcified Cartilage

A
  • few cells thick
  • mostly dead chondrocytes from calcifying matrix
  • osteoclasts dissolve cartilage
  • osteoblasts and capillaries invade and lay down bony matrix
  • epiphyseal plate firmly cemented to bone of diaphysis
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15
Q

When does the bone stop growing?

A

When the multiplying cartilage stops.

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16
Q

T or F

For most of interstitial bone growth, the epiphyseal plate remains constant in size, but bone lengthens

A

Very true

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17
Q

What is the first bone to start ossification but the last to stop.

A

Clavicle - aprox 33 yoa

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18
Q

Most bones complete ossification at what age?

A

14-19 yoa

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19
Q

Cartilage is replaced on what side of the plate?

A

Diaphyseal

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20
Q

The presence of what structure means growth has stopped?

A

Epiphyseal line (bony structure)

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21
Q

What is the first step in appositional growth?

A

Osteoblasts form ridges around periosteal arteries
Secretion of matrix
Differentiation into osteocytes

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22
Q

In the second step of appositional growth what happens to the ridges formed in step one?

A

The ridges fuse together

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23
Q

What becomes the endosteum of canal around the artery?

A

periosteum

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24
Q

What do the osteoblasts build more of to form the osteon in step two of appositional growth?

A

layers of lamellae

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25
What thickens the bone in appositional growth?
Osteoblasts producing circumferential lamellae
26
Osteoclasts are dissolving bone in the medullary cavity for what purpose?
To enlargen the medullary cavity as the shaft grows outward and to maintain proportions and increase marrow needs.
27
The law of bone transformation is what law of bone growth?
Wolff's Law
28
Describe Wolff's Law
Bone is laid down where needed to resist compressive and tensile forces and is removed where not needed in order to achieve the greatest economy of tissue
29
Is Wolff's law used to explain everyday normal use?
No. Comes into play when the actions of the bones are traumatic ex) training for a marathon.
30
Heuter Volkmann Principle states that there is a direct relationship between what factor and the rate of growth of the epiphyseal cartilage?
Static compressive forces parallel to the longitudinal axis
31
What does Volkmann's principal imply?
That compressive forces may be important factors regulating the growth of epiphyseal cartilage and even long bone lengths.
32
Vargus is a term describing what characteristic in the human skeleton
Bowleggedness
33
Knocked knees is also known as?
Valgus
34
What sex steroids will develop the secondary skeletal sexual characteristics?
Estrogens and androgens
35
What hormone is especially known to shut down growth plates?
Estrogen
36
List the three hormonal influences on bone growth
Insulin-like growth factor Human Growth hormone Sex steroids
37
What vitamin is important for the differentiation of osteoblasts into osteocytes?
Vit C
38
What vitamin will stimulate the activity of osteoblasts?
Vit A
39
The vitamins responsive for protein synthesis are?
Vit K & B
40
What happens to the bone when osteoblasts are overactive?
Abnormally thick and heavy bone - arthritic lipping, calcium spurs.
41
Weakened bone tissue is the result of...
hypoactive osteoblasts
42
What is a major cause of osteoporosis
Hyper activity of osteoclasts = weakened bone tissue
43
The condition resulting from the bone matrix calcification being incomplete or absent is known as?
Rickets
44
What is a telltale sign in young children with Rickets?
Bowing of femur
45
What are the two varieties of Rickets discussed in class?
Vit D deficiency - responds to supplementation | Vit D resistant - caused by errors in metabolic pathways of calcification. Does NOT respond to supplementation
46
What is often called the adult form of Rickets?
Osteomalacia
47
What is the etiology of Osteomalacia?
Osteoid not adequately mineralized
48
What are some causes of Osteomalacia?
Inadequate dietary calcium Vitamin imbalances Hormonal imbalances Pregnancy and lactation
49
The condition in which the amount of actual bone matrix per volume is reduced is known as?
Osteoporosis
50
What is cortical involution?
Compact bone becomes thinner
51
Is Osteoporosis a single disease?
No! - postemenopausal: loss of anabolic hormones - senile: due to old age - disuse: due to lack of mechanical loads - idiopathic: no readily observed cause, can affect anyone at any age.
52
What is the "Marble bone disease"
Osteopetrosis
53
Describe Osteopetrosis
- Abnormally large amounts of bone matrix and highly mineralized bone matrix - Very thick cortical bone - Dense network of cancellous bone - Large amounts of calcified cartilage - Bone is very brittle and easily fractured (high bone mineral to collagen fibre ratio) - Systemic
54
What disease is similar to osteoporosis but more localized?
Paget's
55
What disease is characterized by soft brittle bones and is an inherited autosomal dominant trait?
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
56
Giantism is the result of what metabolic influence?
High hGH usually the result of pituitary disorders
57
Another name for open fracture is...
Compound
58
A simple fracture can also be called...
Closed fracture
59
What type of fracture is when the bone is shattered?
Comminuted
60
What type of fractures do we see in growing bones?
Greenstick
61
The fracture of the tib and fib is called...
Pott's
62
Where does Colle's fracture happen in the body?
Wrist
63
The type of fracture more commonly found on flat bones is called?
Depressed
64
The first step in healing fractures involves the formation of?
A fracture hematoma aka blood bandaid
65
What happens to the capillaries in the area of the fracture in the first step of healing?
Capillaries grow - bringing osteoclasts and phagocytes
66
T or F | In step one of fracture healing circulation continues to the site of injury keeping nearby bone alive.
False - circulation stops at site of injury and nearby bone cells die.
67
After the blood bandaid forms what forms next?
Fibrocartilagenous callus - turns blood bandaid into cartilage.
68
What is a pro callus?
Actively growing connective tissue
69
What cell will produce collagen to "glue" the fracture together?
Fibroblasts
70
The procallus will become what type of callus?
Fibrocartilaginous
71
After the fibrocartilaginous callus is formed the next step is to form?
Bony callus
72
In fracture healing the trabeculae production will be important to join what tissues together?
Living to dead
73
Initially what type of bone is formed in the bony callus
Woven bone - embryonic bone
74
What is the final stage in healing a fracture?
Bone remodelling: dead portions of bone resorbed, compact bone replaces spongy bone, callus smoothed out and often barely detectable.
75
In the bone remodelling stage of fracture healing, compact bone replaces spongy bone where?
At periphery and where previously found callus.
76
In the fracture healing process, the hematoma lasts approx. how many days?
7 Days
77
What are the 2 main categories of joint classification?
Physiological | Anatomical
78
Structural or composition is a description of what classification?
Anatomical
79
What are the three types of anatomical classifications?
Fibrous, Cartilaginous, Synovial
80
Physiological classification of joints categorizes into two more properties what are they?
Function and degree of movement
81
Name the the sub types of the physiological category of joints.
Synarthrosis Amphiarthrosis Diarthrosis
82
A joint cavity filled with fluid would have what physiological and anatomical classification?
Diarthrosis and Synovial
83
What does amphiarthrosis mean? Give examples
A joint joined by either cartilage or cartilage and fibrous tissue. Ex: Primary epiphyseal plates of growing bones and secondary types like the intervertebral discs.
84
Gomphosis is an example of what physiological joint classification?
Synarthrosis
85
A synarthrosis has what type of anatomical classification?
Fibrous
86
What is the function of Synarthrosis joints? Give examples
Permit very little movement under normal conditions. Suture joints, Gomphosis (teeth sockets), interosseous membranes between tib and fib
87
Where do we typically find symphyses? What type of joint are they?
Midline of the body | - Cartilaginous
88
Name the two types of cartilaginous joints
1. Synchondroses | 2. Symphyses
89
Synchondrosis can be categorized into...
Primary and Secondary
90
What synhondrosis will become a synostoses?
Primary - epiphysis & diaphysis
91
What will a secondary synochondrosis turn into?
Will remain a synchondros
92
What kind of cartilage do we find in a cartilaginous joint?
Hyaline and Fibrocartilage
93
What do we find within the synovial membrane?
Synovial fluid
94
T or F | Arteries and veins often penetrate the capsule of a synovial joint?
True
95
Hyaline cartilage is found in synovial joints where?
Articular cartilage
96
What structures make up the articular capsule?
Fibrous capsule - on the outside | Synovial membrane
97
There are how many different types of synovial joints?
6
98
Name all the uniaxial synovial joints
Hinge, Pivot
99
What is the only nonaxial synovial joint?
Planar (gliding)
100
Name the multi axial/polyaxial synovial joint with examples.
Ball and Socket - hip and shoulder
101
What is another name for ellipsoidal?
Condyloid
102
What are the two biaxial joints?
Condyloid and Saddle
103
List the different factors affecting ROM of a synovial joint.
- Structure or shape of articulating bones & cartilage - Strenght & tension of the joint ligaments - Arrangement and tension of the muscles - Apposition of soft parts - Disuse - Aging
104
List the different types of Angular Movements of synovial joints.
- Flexion - Extension - Hyperextension - Abduction - Adduction - Circumduction
105
Rotation includes what two directions of movement?
- Medial (internal) | - Lateral (external)
106
Give an example in the body of gliding
Ulnar deviation | Radial deviation
107
How do radial and ulnar deviation differ?
Ulnar is medial and radial is lateral
108
Opposite of supination?
Pronation
109
Opposite of elevation
Depression
110
What movements can the ankle do?
Inversion, eversion | Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion
111
Calvaria or calve means?
Skullcap
112
How many bilateral fossa doe we have in the basicranium?
3
113
The function of the basicranium is to?
Protect the brain
114
How many bones make up the fascial skeleton?
14
115
Aka for viscerocranium?
Fascial skeleton or splanchnocranium
116
Function of the splanchnocranium
Form mouth and nose, contributes to eye orbits
117
Name the flat cranial bones
Parietal, temporal, occipital and frontal
118
Ethmoid and sphenoid are what type of cranial bones?
Irregular
119
Where does the dura mater attach to in the cranial bones?
The crista galli
120
What is the one true flat bone of the cranium?
Parietal
121
What is the only movable bone of the skull?
Mandible
122
What is a unique feature of the mandible?
Started off as two bones and fused together to form 1
123
What is the one primary synchondrosis in the skull?
Basilar suture- between occipital and sphenoid
124
What joint in the skull is synovial?
Temporomandibular
125
Cranial sutures are considered royalty. Name them.
Coronal, Sagittal, Squamosal, Lambdoidal
126
What are the functions of the sinuses in the skull?
Lightening skull | Warming/moistening air
127
T or F | If your nose is not wet you cannot smell anything
True
128
What is not a paranasal sinus: Sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillary, frontal, mastoidal
Mastoidal
129
What sinus connects to the inner ear?
Mastoid
130
Inflammation in the parotic sinus will have what effects on the body?
Affect balance more than hearing.
131
Where do the paranasal sinuses drain?
Into the nose
132
Turbinates are also called?
Nasal Conchae
133
What bone are the superior & middle nasal conchae part of?
Ethmoid
134
Why is the inferior nasal conchae different from the superior and middle?
It is a bone all of it's own
135
The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid forms what septum?
Superior
136
The inferior septum is formed by?
Vomer
137
The anterior plate of the nasal septum is made out of what type of connective tissue?
Septal Cartilage (hyaline)
138
List the 7 bones that make up the orbit
``` Frontal Ethmoid Sphenoid Maxillary Zygomatic Lacrimal Palantine ```
139
What runs within the lacrimal foramen to the inferior nasal meatus?
Nasolacrimal duct
140
What is a Buttress?
Thickened area of bone formed to protect weaker regions.
141
What is the name of the synovial gliding joint in the vertebral column?
Zygapophyses
142
What forms the intervertebral foramen?
The superior and inferior notches
143
What runs through the interverterbal foramen?
Spinal nerves
144
What houses the spinal cord?
Vertebral foramen
145
What are some defining characteristics of cervical vertebrae?
Small & thin Transverse foramina Bifid spinous processes Uncinate process
146
Why do we have bifid spinous processes in Cspine?
Greater ROM
147
Name the 3 special cervicals
C1 - Atlas C2 - Axis C7 - Vertebral prominens
148
What is so unique about the Atlas
No body: articular surface for dens of C2, articular facets for Occiput No Spinous
149
What is a unique feature of the Axis?
Odontoid process aka Dens
150
The body of the thoracic vertebra has what shape?
Heart shaped
151
What is unique about the spines of the Tspine?
Transition to point inferiorly
152
What is another unique feature of the Tspine vertebra?
Rib facets
153
What vertebra have the largest bodies?
Lumbar
154
What processes do the lumbars have that the other vertebra do not?
Mamillary, and Accessory
155
The cruciate ligaments of the vertebral column have three subtypes what are they?
Superior Longitudinal Band Transverse Ligament of Atlas Inferior longitudinal band
156
What joint helps the head nod yes
Atlanto-occipital joint
157
What type of join is the atlanto-axial joint? What movement of the head does it allow?
Synovial pivot and gliding
158
What ligament in the neck will prevent anterior movement and helps keep disc where its supposed to be?
Anterior longitudinal ligament
159
Where is the posterior longitudinal ligament located?
Inside the vertebral canal
160
What does the tectorial membrane cover?
Atlanto-axial joint & ligaments
161
What type of joint are the vertebral bodies?
Cartilaginous - symphysis
162
What ligament limits flexion of the vertebra?
PLL
163
Hyperextension is limited by what ligament?
ALL
164
The spine is originally has what type of curvature?
Concave
165
What regions of the spine alter based on changes force in applied on them?
2 most mobile regions - cervical and thoracic
166
Kyphosis is an exaggeration of primary or secondary curvature?
Primary
167
What is the name of an exaggeration of secondary curvature?
Lordosis
168
Any lateral curvature is called?
Scoliosis
169
What is the term that describes an abnormal condition of joints immobilized by bone production uniting the bones solidly to one another.
Ankylosis
170
What can cause Ankylosis?
Genetics, induced by trauma, disease, surgery
171
What are the two primary parts to the rib cage?
Sternum and ribs
172
Function of the rib cage?
Protection of viscera and assist in breathing
173
What part of the rib cage contributes to the elasticity of the chest wall?
Costal cartilages - hyaline cartilage
174
Ribs 1-7 are called?
True ribs
175
False ribs are...
8-12
176
What ribs are floating?
11-12
177
What joint in the thorax will become bone to assist with movement of the upper torso? What joint classification is it?
Xiphisternal - Primary cartilaginous joint
178
Do the sternalcostal joints stay cartilage or become bone?
Stay cartilage
179
What type of joint is the costovertebral joint?
Synovial
180
What ribs articulate with only 1 vertebra?
1, 10, 11, and 12
181
The breathing movements of the ribs is often described like?
Bucket handle movement. Ribs elevate on inhale
182
What is the movement of the diaphragm when breathing in?
Diaphragm contracts
183
When the chest contracts and the diaphragm relaxes are we breathing in or out?
Out
184
The pump handle motion describes the movement of what structure in the thorax as we inhale?
Sternum
185
What bones make up the pectoral girdle?
Scapula and clavicle
186
What is the role of the costoclavicular ligament?
Support = non moving joint
187
Where do the rotator cuff muscles attach?
To joint capsule exterior
188
What happens to the humerus during a dislocation?
Humerus drops out of glenoid cavity
189
What is another name for adhesive capsulitis?
Frozen Shoulder
190
Dislocation of what appendicular joint is common in children?
Dislocation of elbow
191
Cubitis = ?
Elbow joint
192
When the forearm is deviated medially we call this?
Varus
193
Valgas is when the forearm deviates in what direction?
Laterally
194
The interphalangeal joints are ______ joints
hinge
195
What bones make up the coxal?
Ilium, Ischium, Pubis
196
An aka for Poupart's ligament is?
Inguinal Ligament
197
Gimbernat's ligament can also be called
Lacunar ligament
198
A female pelvis is more _____ shaped compared to a mans which is more ______ shaped.
Bowl, glass
199
The sacroiliac joint is what type of joint?
Synovial
200
What joint is more stable, the shoulder or the hip?
Hip - acetabulum is more deep than glenoid cavity
201
What does Q angle mean?
Angle of convergence of the femur
202
Males or females have a larger Q angle?
Females
203
What is considered the largest and most complicated joint in the body?
The Knee
204
What are the extra capsular ligaments of the knee?
MCL and LCL
205
The knee is a hinge joint with with what special features?
Has slight rotation and is biaxial
206
What kind of joint are the intertarsals?
Gliding synovial.
207
Name the three arches of the foot
Medial longitudinal arch Transverse arch Lateral longitudinal arch
208
The interphalangeal joints are ________ joints
hinge
209
The MT joints of the foot are _______ joints
Synovial condyloid