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PPE OSCE Questions > OSCE Conditions > Flashcards

OSCE Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

What is Crohn’s Disease?

A

Inflammation of the GI tract

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2
Q

What is UC?

A

Inflammation of the colon and rectum

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3
Q

Give some symptoms of IBD

A 
Diarrhoea- blood, mucous, pus
Abdo pain 
Increased frequency of bowel movements
Fatigue
Weight loss
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4
Q

Explain why patients with IBD feel tired

A

Inflammation of the bowel leads to blood loss which leads to anaemia which causes tiredness
They may also not be able to absorb nutrients in their gut as well as they used to leading to malnutrition and tiredness.

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5
Q

Give some causes of IBD

A

Genetics
Western diet and environment
Smoking
Autoimmune destruction of gut flora

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6
Q

How is IBD diagnosed?

A 
Blood tests- inflammation, anaemia, infections
Stool sample
Colonoscopy 
Barium enema
CT/MRI
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7
Q

Give 3 ways IBD can be treated

A

Surgery- remove section of inflamed bowel (ileostomy)
Corticosteroids- prednisalone
Immunosuppressants
Biological therapies - infliximab

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8
Q

Give some complications of Crohn’s disease

A 
Fistulas
Bowel strictures
Anaemia
Osteoporosis
Colorectal cancer
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9
Q

Give some complications of UC

A 
Osteoporosis
Poor growth 
Toxic megacolon 
Bowel cancer
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
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10
Q

Explain how bowel strictures can occur in IBD

A

Chronic inflammation results in deposition of scar tissue. This builds up and narrows the bowel lumen causing strictures

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11
Q

Through what structures do fistulas form in Crohn’s disease?

A

Bowel and vagina, bladder or skin

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12
Q

What is cerebrovascular disease?

A

Diseases caused by poor blood flow to the brain

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13
Q

What are the 3 most common cerebrovascular diseases

A

Stroke
TIA
Vascular dementia

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14
Q

What is an ischaemic stroke?

A

Blockage of blood flow to the brain by a clot causing brain damage due to hypoxia

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15
Q

What is a haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Leakage of blood into the brain tissue

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16
Q

Give 3 symptoms of a stroke

A

Slurred speech
Drooping face
Loss of sensations in the arms

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17
Q

What is vascular dementia?

A

Loss of mental ability due to lack of perfusion to the brain

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18
Q

What is a TIA?

A

A transient ischaemic attack

Temporary disruption to the blood flow to the brain. Very similar to a stroke but resolves within 24 hours

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19
Q

Give 5 risk factors for cerebrovascular disease

A 
Smoking
Obesity 
Stress
Atrial fibrillation 
Hypertension 
Poor diet 
Hypercholesteraemia 
Diabetes
Excess alcohol
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20
Q

What are gallstones?

A

Aggregations of cholesterol in the gallbladder

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21
Q

When do gallstones become a problem?

A

When they become lodged in a duct

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22
Q

Give the main symptom of uncomplicated gallstones

A

Biliary colic- abdo pain which cannot be relieved, usually lasts a few hours

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23
Q

Give 4 symptoms of complicated gallstones

A 
Biliary colic +
Tachycardia
Fever
Diarrhoea
Itchy skin 
Sweating
Jaundice
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24
Q

Give the 2 main causes of gallstone formation

A

Hypercholesteraemia

Hyperbilirubinaemia

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25
Q

Give 4 risk factors for gallstones

A 
Female 
Over 40 years old
Obese
IBS
Genetics
Taking ceftriaxone
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26
Q

What sign on examination would suggest gallstones?

A

Positive Murphy’s sign
Push on liver and ask patient to take deep breaths
If gallbladder is inflammed it will cause pain

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27
Q

What tests can be done to diagnose gallstones?

A 
USS
CT
MRI
Cholangiography 
Blood test- CRP, leukocytes
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28
Q

How are gallstones treated?

A

Painkillers
Control with low fat diet
Cholecystectomy

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29
Q

What can poorly managed gallstones lead to?

A 
Acute pancreatitis
Gallbladder cancer
Jaundice
Acute cholecystitis
Acute cholangitis
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30
Q

What is acute kidney injury?

A

Sudden onset of kidney damage

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31
Q

Give 2 causes for pre-renal AKI

A

Hypertension

Liver failure

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32
Q

Give 2 causes for ATN

A

Infection
Ischaemia
Iatrogenic

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33
Q

Give 2 causes for post-renal AKI

A

Urinary stones
Enlarged prostate
Tumour

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34
Q

Give 3 medications which may precede AKI

A

ACE inhibitors
NSAIDs
Diuretics

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35
Q

Give 4 symptoms of AKI

A 
Nausea
Vomiting
Abdo. pain 
Dehydration 
Confusion 
Increased blood pressure
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36
Q

Explain how an AKI can lead to increased blood pressure

A

An AKI will result in the kidney not functioning properly and therefore retaining electrolytes and water. This will increase the blood volume and therefore the blood pressure

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37
Q

How can an AKI be diagnosed?

A

eGFR
U+Es
Urine output
Blood creatinine

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38
Q

How can AKIs be treated?

A

Prevent dehydration
Find the underlying cause
Stop medications which may be causing kidney damage

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39
Q

What acid base balance change is likely to occur in AKI and why?

A

Metabolic acidosis- the kidney cannot excrete a range of acidic anions due to the lack of function leading to a decrease in pH in the blood

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40
Q

Why can AKI lead to pulmonary oedema?

A

Lack of water excretion by the kidney leads to an increased blood volume and blood pressure. The increased blood pressure from the body can put pressure on the left atrium. The blood backs up and it pushed out into the lungs to causes pulmonary oedema.

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41
Q

What is alcoholic liver disease?

A

Chronic liver damage due to excessive alcohol intake

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42
Q

What are the 3 severities of alcoholic liver disease?

A

Alcoholic fatty liver disease
Alcoholic hepatitis
Cirrhosis

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43
Q

Of the 3 stages of alcoholic liver disease, which are reversible?

A

Alcoholic fatty liver disease

Alcoholic hepatitis

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44
Q

Give 4 early symptoms of alcoholic liver disease

A 
Nausea
Vomiting
Fatigue
Abdo pain 
Loss of appetite
Diarrhoea
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45
Q

Give 4 advanced symptoms of alcoholic liver disease

A 
Ascites
Fever
Hair loss
Weight loss
Nosebleeds
Clubbing
Jaundice
Vomiting blood
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46
Q

Give the 2 causes of alcoholic liver disease

A

Frequent binge drinking

Long term excessive drinking

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47
Q

Give 3 factors which as well as excessive alcohol intake, put patients at a greater risk of alcoholic liver disease

A

Obesity
Female
Pre-existing liver disease
Family history

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48
Q

How is alcoholic liver disease diagnosed?

A 
LFTs
MRI
CT
X-ray
Liver biopsy
Endoscopy
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49
Q

What is the main treatment of alcoholic liver disease?

A

Stop drinking alcohol

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50
Q

Give an intervention questionnaire which can be used to assess alcohol intake

A

CAGE
Cut down?
Annoyed by people commenting on your drinking?
Guilty about volume of alcohol?
Eye-opener? (Do you need alcohol in the morning?)

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51
Q

Give a pharmacological treatment of alcoholic liver disease

A

Corticosteroids

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52
Q

Give 4 complications of alcoholic liver disease

A

Liver cancer
Ascites leading to peritonitis
Portal hypertension
Oesophageal varices –> bleeding –> anaemia

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53
Q

What is the definition of anaemia?

A

Lack of haemoglobin in the blood causing poor oxygen transport and therefore hypoxia

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54
Q

Give 5 symptoms of anaemia

A 
Pale
Fatigue
Feeling cold
Lightheadedness
Short of breath 
Palpatations
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55
Q

Give 3 causes of microcytic anaemia

A

Iron deficiency
Thalassaemias
Anaemia of chronic disease

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56
Q

Give 3 causes of normocytic anaemia

A

Sickle cell anaemia
Blood loss
Anaemia of chronic disease

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57
Q

Give 3 causes of macrocytic anaemia

A

Haemolytic anaemia
B12/folate deficiency
Bone marrow failure

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58
Q

Give 3 sources of iron in the diet

A 
Spinach- green, leafy vegetables
Fish 
Meat 
Lentils
Eggs
Nuts
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59
Q

How can anaemia be diagnosed?

A

Full blood count
Blood microscopy
Identify area of blood loss

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60
Q

Give 3 signs on examination of anaemia

A

Pale palmar creases
Pale conjunctiva
Angular stomatitis
Glossitis

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61
Q

How can anaemia be treated?

A

Treat underlying cause:

Eg. Prevent blood loss, Iron/B12 supplements

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62
Q

What is asthma?

A

Narrowing of the airways due to inflammation and excessive production of mucous

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63
Q

Give 4 triggers of an exacerbation of asthma

A 
Cold air
Chest infections
Exercise
Stress
Allergies
Night time
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64
Q

Why do asthmatics have worse symptoms at night?

A 
Less cortisol (due to circadian rhythm) which is an anti-inflammatory 
Exposure to dust mites in bed clothes
Lying flat- mucous drains along respiratory tract
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65
Q

Give 4 symptoms of asthma

A

Wheeze
Breathlessness
Tight chest
Coughing

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66
Q

What is the difference between a stridor and a wheeze?

A

A wheeze is heard on inspiration and a stridor is heard on expiration

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67
Q

What is an asthma attack?

A

A severe exacerbation of all the asthma symptoms plus tachycardia, confusion, drowsiness, central cyanosis, severe tight chest

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68
Q

Give 2 causes of asthma

A

Family history
Passive smoking as a child
Premature birth

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69
Q

How is asthma diagnosed?

A

Spirometry
Peak flow test
Allergy test

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70
Q

Which 2 conditions are strongly associated with asthma

A

Eczema

Hayfever

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71
Q

How can asthma be treated?

A

Step 1: Short-acting Beta-2 antagonist - Salbutamol
Step 2: Inhaled Corticosteroid
Step 3: Long-acting beta-2 antagonist- Salmeterol
Step 4: Inhaled corticosteroid and a long acting beta-2 antagonist
Step 5: Increase doses
Step 6: Add an oral corticosteroid

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72
Q

How do beta-2- antagonists work to treat asthma?

A

Bind to beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the airway to cause blocking of adrenaline which results in bronchodilation

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73
Q

What is atrial fibrillation?

A

The atria do not beat in a regular rhythm as they become independent of the pacemaker. The atria do not go into systole for long enough and therefore the heart fills less. The heart beats faster to compensate.

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74
Q

Give 3 cardiac causes of atrial fibrillation

A 
Hypertension 
Atherosclerosis
Mitral stenosis
Congenital HF
Pericarditis
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75
Q

Give 3 respiratory causes of atrial fibrillation

A 
COPD
Asthma 
CO poisoning 
Pneumonia 
PE
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76
Q

GIve 3 triggers for an exacerbation of atrial fibrillation

A 
Excess of alcohol 
Obesity 
Caffeine excess
Smoking 
Drugs
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77
Q

How is atrial fibrillation diagnosed?

A

ECG
Echocardiogram
Pulse rate
Blood test- anaemia/thyroid levels

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78
Q

What ECG changes would be seen on a patient with atrial fibrillation?

A

Absent P waves
Irregular R-R intervals
Irregular baseline

79
Q

What is the difference between atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter?

A

Atrial fibrillation is irregularly irregular

Atrial flutter is regularly irregular

80
Q

Give 2 complications of atrial fibrillation

A

Heart failure

Stroke

81
Q

Give 5 symptoms of atrial fibrillation

A 
Breathlessness
Palpitations 
Chest pain 
Dizzy 
Tired
82
Q

How can atrial fibrillation be treated pharmacologically?

A

Restore rhythm–> Amiodarone, Sotalol, Flecanide
Control rate –> Verapamil, Digoxin
Reduce stroke risk –> Warfarin, Edoxaban

83
Q

How can atrial fibrillation be treated non-pharmacologically?

A

Cardioversion- controlled electric shock
Catheter ablation- destroy diseases area of the heart
Pacemaker

84
Q

Define COPD

A

Respiratory condition resulting in obstruction of the airways. Chronic condition which cannot be cured

85
Q

Which 2 main conditions are encompassed by COPD

A

Emphysema

Chronic bronchitis

86
Q

Describe emphysema

A

Loss of the elastic recoil in the alveoli resulting in a loss of surface area in the alveoli so less gas exchange can occur. The volume of dead space is increased

87
Q

Describe bronchitis

A

Excessive mucous production in the airway

88
Q

Give 5 symptoms of COPD

A 
Breathlessness
Wheeze
Fatigue 
Cough- with sputum 
Tachycardia
Nausea
Chest infections
89
Q

Give 3 causes of COPD

A 
Smoking!
Genetics
Passive smoking
Air pollution
Occupational hazards- fumes/dust
90
Q

How is COPD diagnosed?

A 
O2 stats
Full blood count- anaemia
Peak flow 
Spirometry
Sputum culture
X-ray
Respiratory exam
91
Q

How can COPD be managed pharmacologically?

A

Inhalers
Steroids
Mucolytic agent
Antibiotics to treat infections

92
Q

How can COPD be managed non-pharmacologically?

A

Lung transplant
Nebuliser
Long-term O2 therapy
Stop smoking

93
Q

What is Type I diabetes?

A

Autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas resulting in a loss of insulin. This means patients will have an intolerance to glucose

94
Q

What is Type II diabetes?

A

Increased resistance to glucose by the cells so glucose cannot enter cells and remains in the blood. The beta cells which produce insulin are also damaged over time.

95
Q

Give 3 classic symptoms of diabetes

A 
Polyuria
Polydipsia
Weight loss
Increased appetite
Fatigue
96
Q

Give a complication that only occurs in Type I diabetics

A

Ketoacidosis leading to a diabetic coma

97
Q

Explain why Type I diabetics have a fruity breath

A

As glucose cannot enter the cells, the body breaks down fatty acids instead which have a side product of ketones. These ketones have a fruity smell

98
Q

Give 4 complications of uncontrolled Type II diabetes

A 
Heart disease
Stroke
Peripheral neuropathy 
Renal disease
Retinopathy 
Sexual dysfunction
99
Q

How is diabetes diagnosed?

A

HbA1c- glycosylated haemoglobin
Glucose fasting test
Urine dipstick
ABG- may show ketoacidosis

100
Q

How is Type I diabetes treated?

A

Varying, length-acting, synthetic insulins

Eg. rapid, short, intermediate, long, very-long

101
Q

How must insulin be administered?

A

Intramuscularly

102
Q

Why may some patients not like injecting insulin?

A

Stigma
Painful
Lipohypertrophy

103
Q

Give 3 symptoms of a hypoglycaemic attack

A 
Shaking 
Sweating 
Nausea 
Vomiting 
Hunger 
Weakness 
Confusion
104
Q

What is the first way of treating newly diagnosed Type II diabetes?

A

Diet and Exercise
Reduce alcohol
Stop smoking

105
Q

What is the gold standard drug for treating Type II diabetes?

A

Metformin- Biguanide

106
Q

Give the mechanism of action of metformin

A

Enters mitochondria to increase AMP levels
This increases AMPK levels to increase the sensitivity of the skeletal muscle and adipose tissue to insulin and reduce fatty acid synthesis

107
Q

Give an example of a sulphonylurea

A

Gliclaside

108
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Long-term condition causing excessive, synchronised firing of excitatory neurons in the brain. This results in a seizure.

109
Q

Explain the difference between a partial and generalised seizure

A

Partial- only affects 1 hemisphere of the brain

Generalised- affects both hemispheres of the brain

110
Q

What is primary epilepsy?

A

Epilepsy with an unknown cause

111
Q

What is secondary epilepsy?

A

Epilepsy which is secondary to a known cause such as a stroke or meningitis

112
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

A seizure for >30 minutes OR

Lots of small seizures without gaining consciousness in between

113
Q

What is the treatment for status epilepticus?

A

Diazepam

Midazolam

114
Q

Give 4 factors which can trigger a seizure in an epileptic

A 
Excess alcohol 
Flashing lights
Stress
Lack of sleep 
Menstruation
115
Q

Give 3 ways epilepsy can be diagnosed

A

Full history with eye-witness report of the seizure
MRI- look for underlying cause
EEG- looks at brain electrical activity

116
Q

Give an example of 3 anti-epileptic drugs

A

Sodium valproate
Carbamazepine
Ethosuximide
Lamotrigine

117
Q

Give 3 ADRs which are very common in anti-epileptic drugs

A 
Drowsiness
Headaches
Hair loss
Rashes
Agitation 
Tremor
118
Q

What is the definition of hypertension?

A

Pressure in the blood vessels is too high

Chronically over 140/90

119
Q

Give 5 modifiable risk factors for hypertension

A 
Obesity 
Smoking 
Lack of exercise
Lack of sleep 
Stress
High salt diet
120
Q

Give 3 non-modifiable risk factors for hypertension

A

Age
Genetic risk
Diseases- diabetes, ATN, acromegaly, lupus, cushings

121
Q

Give examples of 3 commonly prescribed drug types which may cause hypertension

A

NSAIDs
Steroids
Anti-depressants
Combined pill

122
Q

Give 4 complications of unmanaged hypertension

A 
Stroke 
MI
Aortic aneurysm 
Kidney disease
Oedema
Heart disease
123
Q

Give 4 lifestyle change treatments of hypertension

A 
Stop smoking 
Reduce alcohol 
Lose weight 
Healthy diet 
Stop caffeine
124
Q

How is a patient with hypertension under the age of 55 treated?

A

ACE inhibitor

125
Q

How is a patient with hypertension over the age of 55 or black treated?

A

Ca2+ channel blocker OR Thiazide diuretic

126
Q

Explain how hypertension can be treated with a diuretic

A

Pressure in the circulatory system can be relieved if the volume is reduced by losing the excess water. A diuretic causes more urine to be produced

127
Q

Where is aortic stenosis heard best?

A

Right carotid on inspiration

128
Q

In what part of the cardiac cycle is an aortic stenosis murmur heard?

A

Ejection systolic

129
Q

Where is aortic regurgitation heard best?

A

Patient sat forward on expiration

Left sternal edge, 4th intercostal space

130
Q

In what part of the cardiac cycle is an aortic regurgitation murmur heard?

A

Early diastolic

131
Q

Where is mitral stenosis heard best?

A

Mid-clavicular line, 5th intercostal space
Patient rolled to left- on expiration
Use bell

132
Q

In what part of the cardiac cycle is an mitral stenosis murmur heard?

A

Mid-diastolic

133
Q

Where is mitral regurgitation heard best?

A

Axilla, 5th intercostal space

134
Q

In what part of the cardiac cycle is an mitral regurgitation murmur heard?

A

Pan-systolic

135
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease?

A

Ulcers most commonly found in the stomach, lower oesophagus and small intestine

136
Q

Give 5 symptoms of peptic ulcer disease

A 
Nausea
Burning pain 
Indigestion 
Weight loss
Reduced appetite
Vomiting
137
Q

Give 2 symptoms of advanced peptic ulcer disease

A

Vomiting blood

Melaena

138
Q

Give 3 causes of peptic ulcer disease

A

Excess alcohol
H pylori infection
NSAIDs
Stress

139
Q

How is peptic ulcer disease diagnosed?

A

H. pylori confirmation- urea breath test, stool antigen test, blood test
Gastroscopy

140
Q

Give 3 complications of peptic ulcer disease

A

Internal bleeding
Perforation of the bowel
Gastric obstruction

141
Q

How can peptic ulcer disease be treated?

A

PPI
H2 antagonist
Antacids
Anti-biotic

142
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Pain in large joints due to a loss of cartilage

143
Q

Give 3 causes of osteoarthritis

A 
Joint injury 
Age 
Obesity 
Gout 
Rheumatoid arthritis
144
Q

Give 3 symptoms of osteoarthritis

A 
Pain 
Stiffness
Cracking of joints
Tenderness
Loss of function
145
Q

What is the main way of diagnosing osteoarthritis?

A

Taking a thorough history

146
Q

How is osteoarthritis treated?

A 
Painkiller
NSAID
Opioids
Joint replacement 
Corticosteroid injections
147
Q

Define heart failure

A

Heart cannot adequately pump blood around the body

148
Q

Give 4 symptoms of heart failure

A 
Shortness of breath 
Dizziness
Oedema
Tachycardia 
Chest pain 
Fatigue 
Exercise intolerance
149
Q

Give 4 causes of heart failure

A

Hypertension
Smoking
Diabetes
Congenital

150
Q

How is heart failure diagnosed?

A 
ECG
Echocardiogram 
FBC
Spirometry 
X-ray
151
Q

How is heart failure treated non-pharmacologically?

A 
Stop smoking 
Lose weight 
Good diet 
Exercise 
Reduce alcohol
152
Q

Describe the steps of treating heart failure

A

Step 1: ACE inhibitor and beta blocker
Step 2: add a ARB and an aldosterone antagonist
Step 3: add digoxin

153
Q

What complications can occur from heart failure?

A 
Oedema
MI 
Stroke 
Thromboembolism 
PND
154
Q

What is ischaemic heart disease?

A

Lack of blood flow to the coronary arteries causing damage to the heart muscles

155
Q

Give 2 differences between angina and an MI

A

Angina is reversible, MI is not

MI symptoms are more severe than angina

156
Q

Give 4 symptoms of ischaemic heart disease

A 
Chest pain 
Breathlessness
Palpitations
Exercise intolerance
Cough
157
Q

Give 4 symptoms of an MI

A 
Sweating 
Crushing chest pain 
Lightheadedness
Nausea
Breathless
158
Q

Give 5 causes of IHD

A 
Obesity 
Atherosclerosis
Thrombosis
Hypercholesterolaemia 
Diabetes 
Hypertension
159
Q

How is IHD diagnosed?

A 
Exercise stress test
Angiography 
ECG
Echocardiogram 
X-ray 
MRI
CT
160
Q

How is IHD treated pharmacologically?

A

Anti-platelet drug
Statin
Beta blocker
ACE inhibitor

161
Q

How can IHD be treated surgically?

A

Coronary angioplasty

Coronary artery bypass graft

162
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Long-term condition causing pain, swelling and stiffness in the joints, usually in the hands and feet

163
Q

Give 5 symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis

A 
Joint pain 
Weight loss
Tired
Warmth in the joints
Swelling 
Stiffness
Redness
Sweating
164
Q

What is the cause of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Autoimmune destruction of the joint lining leading to inflammed synovium. This causes bone, cartilage, tendon and ligament damage

165
Q

Give 3 risk factors of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Smoking
Hormones
Family history

166
Q

How is rheumatoid arthritis diagnosed?

A

Joint imaging- USS, X-rayk, MRI
History
Blood test- ESR, FBC, CRP

167
Q

Give an example of a DMARD

A

Methotrexate

168
Q

Give 3 ways rheumatoid arthritis can be treated

A 
DMARDs
Infliximab
NSAIDs
Painkillers
Corticosteroid injections
Physio
169
Q

Give 3 complications of chronic rheumatoid arthritis

A 
Carpal tunnel
Widespread inflammation 
Joint damage
Cervical myelopathy 
CV disease
170
Q

What is carpal tunnel disease?

A

Median nerve is compressed as it passes through the wrist causing severe pain, especially on flexion

171
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A

Excessive production of thyroid hormone

172
Q

Give 3 causes of hyperthyroidism

A

Autoimmune
Pituitary adenoma
Thyroid tumour
Amiodarone side effect

173
Q

Give 4 symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A 
Weight loss
Hot flushes
Palpitations
Mood swings
Muscle weakness
Hair loss
Anxiety
174
Q

What test diagnoses thyroid disease?

A

Levels of T3/T4 in the blood

175
Q

How is hyperthyroid disease treated?

A

Thionamines= carbimazole
Radioiodine treatment
Surgery- thyroidectomy

176
Q

What is a thyroid storm?

A

Exacerbation of hyperthyroidism

Tachycardia, fever, confusion, jaundice, loss of conciousness

177
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A

Underproduction of thyroid hormone

178
Q

Give 4 symptoms of hypothyroidism

A 
Weight gain 
Feeling cold
Muscle cramp 
Tired
Depression 
Constipation
179
Q

Give 4 causes of hypothyroidism

A 
Autoimmune destruction 
Gene mutation 
Congenital- malformation 
Lack of iodine
Previous thyroid treatment
180
Q

How is hypothyroidism treated?

A

Levothyroxine

181
Q

What is a goitre?

A

Lack swelling in the neck due to thyroid disease

182
Q

What is thrombo-embolic disease?

A

Formation of a clot in a blood vessel which can move to block a smaller vessel

183
Q

Give 4 conditions which are classes as thrombo-embolic diseases

A

Stroke
DVT
PE
MI

184
Q

Give 3 risk factors for thromboembolic disease

A 
COCP
Prolonged immobility 
Diabetes
Post-surgery
High cholesterol
185
Q

Give the 3 factors in Virchow’s triad

A

Damage to vessel lining
Change in blood constituents
Turbulent/stagnant flow

186
Q

How is thromboembolic disease treated?

A

Anticoagulants- warfarin, heparin, aspirin

187
Q

How can thromboembolic diseases be diagnosed?

A 
Imaging 
Blood tests
D Dimer
Physical examination 
History
188
Q

What is a vasovagal faint?

A

Sudden temporary loss of consciousness, usually resulting in a fall

189
Q

Give 4 warning symptoms that may be present before a vasovagal faint

A 
Nausea
Lightheadedness
Sweaty 
Yawning
Tachycardia
Confusion 
Blurred vision
190
Q

Describe how the patient may feel after a vasovagal faint

A

Weak, tired and have some memory loss of the event

191
Q

What is the pathological cause of a vasovagal faint?

A

Temporary reduction in blood flow to the brain

192
Q

Give some causes of vasovagal faints

A

Slow heart rate
Dehydration
Medication ADRs
Low blood pressure

193
Q

How are vasovagal faints treated?

A

Treat underlying cause
Warning signs –> lie down, head between legs, drink water
After faint –> recovery position

PPE OSCE Questions (3 decks)

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