OSB2&3 Flashcards

1
Q

Signs and symptoms of a zygomatic complex fracture

A

-loss of facial width and reduced projection of the zygomatic complex
-Subconjunctival haemorrhage without lateral border (sign of lateral orbital wall fracture)
-Eye bruising.
-Palpable bony steps of zygomatic arch and infra-orbital rim.
-Tenderness on zygomatic buttress.
-Limited Mouth opening with reduced mandibular excursion.
-Lacerations

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2
Q

Information to provide when referring (phone and email letter) a facial trauma patient to an OMFS

A

[Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation]

-referrer name, where calling from, reasons for calling
-Patient name, DOB, contacts, NHS no, MH, Allergies, SH,
-Patient history of complaint
-any loss of consciousness, vomiting, nausea, headaches (all signs of brain injury), other injuries sustained, visual changes, any blood, missing teeth, if able to open mouth
-examination findings
-their general compliance and state
- if police involved if domestic violence and where children are
-findings of any imaging and to send them across
-differential diagnosis
- send a copy of notes
- last time had food or drink.

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3
Q

Cranial nerve tests for a facial trauma patient (that you and a DCT can carry out)

A

-CNV sensation: compare one side to other. (ask if they feel the same on each side) Test at areas where they exit foramen (as weak spots), frontal bone, infra orbital region, zygoma, cheek, lower lip. Often present with numbness
-CNVII motor function – facial movement. Compare one side to another. Raise forehead, scrunch eyes and resist opening, puff out cheeks and resist pushing them, wide smile, grimace and tighten neck

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4
Q

Different eye tests for facial trauma patients when examined by a DCT

A

TestingCN2,3,4,6, brain injury, drug misuse
- pupil reaction – light shone in eye should cause rapid constriction
-Diplopia (double vision) – move a pen in their vision and ask if they can see 1
-Range of eye movement – move eyes in H pattern. Shows signs of muscular entrapment or herniation, CN damage, orbital floor fracture
-Position of the eye – any bulging
-Visual acuity – reads a schnellen chart, 1 eye at a time

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5
Q

What is a retrobulbar haemorrhages

A

-bleed behind globe increasing intraocular pressure
-can result in pain, proptosis, paralysis, pupil dilation, poor vision if not managed
-a result of acute trauma
-Emergency -lateral canthotomy to reduce pressure

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6
Q

What is a white eye orbital floor fracture

A

-common in children
-symptoms can include extreme pain in affected eye, double vision, intermittent vomiting, mild bradycardia (pressure on vagus nerve), normal visual acuity, numbness of left cheek.
-called this as no subconjunctival haemorrhage present and only mild swelling if any
-eye muscle entrapment

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7
Q

What is a blow out fracture. symptoms

A

-orbital floor injury where soft content pushed backwards without rupturing the globe
-tethered inferior rectus
-Absence of autonomic stimulation
-Do not need dealing with immediately. Repair should be done within 2 weeks
-Presenting ocular symptoms= diplopia, traumatic mydriasis, subconjunctival haemorrhage, pain on eye movement, enophthalmos
-Assessment=ocular motility, diplopia, any deviation, field of gaze

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8
Q

5 types of domestic abuse and what is it

A

-controlling and threatening behaviour, violence or abuse between people who are or previously in a relationship
-physical, sexual, financial, emotional, psychological

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9
Q

What to do if someone shares details of domestic abuse

A

-Listen carefully
-Let them know they’ve done the right thing by telling you
-Tell them it’s not their fault
-Say you will take them seriously
-Don’t confront the alleged abuser
-Explain what you will do next
-Never promise to keep it a secret
-document conversation

-Reporting
-notify supervisor/ line manager/ consultant.Contact trust safeguarding team
-call 999 if immediate danger

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10
Q

Signs and symptoms of mid-face fractures

A

*Facial swelling (edema, hematoma, emphysema
- deformity
*Subconjunctival bleeding
*Oronasal bleeding
*Palpable and crepitating dislocated bony contour in the periorbital region
*Displacement of the globe
*Displacement of the medial canthal tendon
*Compromised ocular motility
*Double vision
*Sensory deficit of trigmeinal nerve (hypoesthesia, anesthesia, paresthesia)
*Localized pain
*Occlusal disturbance
*CSF leakage (in case of anterior skull base involvement)

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11
Q

Risks of GA

A

-feeling sick, sore throat, shivering, confusion following surgery.
- Damage to teeth, lips, tongue, eye.
-Postop chest infection due to less phlegm.
-Accidental awareness during GA.
-allergy -Anaphylaxis.
-Nerve damage.
-Equipment failure.
-Death or brain damage

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12
Q

Role of a scrub nurse

A

-keeping track of instruments
-adding additional instruments
-pass instruments to surgeon

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13
Q

What is oral epithelial dysplasia

A

-harmful changes in the cells, have a high risk of malignant potential
-it is not cancer
-usually seen on oral mucosa as a white, red of mixed lesion.
-Early identification of this and management may prevent transformation into oral cancer

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14
Q

When a lesion is a 2 week wait referral or an urgent referral

A

-2WW= if cancer suspected (risk factors, smoking, alcohol, FOM/tongue, ulceration, erythroleukoplakia) Letter sent via email to OMFS
-Urgent= if you do not suspect cancer. Any red/white or speckled patches (premalignacies)

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15
Q

Explain excisional and incisional biopsies. Indications for both

A
  1. Incisional -a small part of the lesion is removed. Indicated if suspected malignancy and would subsequently need further treatment planning (a full excision with clear margins). Also indicated if the lesion is widespread but is likely to be benign so does not need full removal
    -Ideally sample should be an ellipse shape and should include an area of normal adjacent tissue (clear margin) to allow examination of the full extent of the lesion, i.e has it ‘spread’ beyond the margins which can be seen clinically.
  2. Excisional
    -remove the whole of a lesion. Used when lesion is localised, smaller, and the differential diagnosis does not involve a cancer.
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16
Q

What is a punch and core biopsy

A

1-punch -quick way to obtain a sample. Like an apple corer and cuts a circle of tissue. may be an issue in areas such as the lip.
2-core- takes a similar idea to the punch biopsy but allows sampling of a lesion which is deeper in the tissue.

17
Q

Factors that increase risk of malignant change of a pre malignancy

A

-high risk anatomical location (eg. FOM)
-leukoplakia and erythoplakia not healing in 2 weeks
-proliferative verrucous appearance
-presence of multiple lesions
-A non-smoking history (Dysplasias in non-smokers are more likely to have malignant change as the genetic mutations are more significant when there has not been an external carcinogen)

18
Q

Safety precautions when using a laser for lesion removal

A

-Black out windows to prevent scattering affecting people walking by. Doors locked. Warning signs outside. Operators wear special protective glasses. Patient protected with gowns, goggles and isolate mouth using damp gauze. Vacuum device to eliminate any laser vapour produced

19
Q

Role of a GDP in premalignant lesions

A

-giving patients biopsy results
-removing potential traumatic causes
-referring suspicious lesions to specialists for diagnosing and treatment planning
-warning patients of risks of smoking and alcohol
-smoking cessation
-screening for premalignancies

20
Q

What is arthocentesis

A

-surgical management of TMD
-involves ‘washing out’ the TMJ space with saline and sometimes uses adjuvants such as steroids for their anti-inflammatory properties.
-Used for helping mouth opening, breaking up adhesions in the joint space and even reducing the TM disc to its original position

21
Q

How to describe a lesion

A

-Location: area of mouth and use fixed point to describe in more detail
-Distribution and definition: localised/generalised, how the edges look (well-defined. /circumscribed /poorly-defined/regular/irregular borders), how many lesions (multiple/single)
-Size: measure the dimensions
-Shape
-Colour: compared to surrounding tissues. Red/purple suggests vascular lesion. Pigmented (freckle or amalgam tattoo) Single or mixed colour. Mottled. Patchy
-Consistency: Firm, soft, bony, hard, fluctuant (fluid filled)
-Texture: Smooth, rough, papillary (finger-like), corrugated (rippled, fissured (deep crevices), crusted (covered by scab)
-Mobility: does it move freely in the tissues (non-tethered), or is attached to the surrounding tissues (tethered).
-Other features: how long it has been present, tender/non-tender, constantly painful or with pressure, tingling, numbness

22
Q

Explain these shapes when describing a lesion: macule, vesicle, pustular, papule, nodular, plaque, sessile, pedunulated, ulcer

A

Macule — flat lesion
Vesicle — elevated lesion filled with fluid
Pustular -filled with pus
Papule — < 5 mm in diameter, raised with no fluid
Nodular —< 2 cm in diameter, raised with no fluid
Plaque — broad, slightly raised lesion
Sessile-based — broad attachment
Pedunculated — stalk-like attachment
Ulcers or erosions — depressed lesions

23
Q

The differential diagnosis for a parotid swelling

A

1.Infective – mumps, HIV, herpes, influenza, Bacterial Sialadenitis ( Staph aureus infection)
2.Neoplastic – pleomorphic adenoma which are benign but can undergo carcinogenic changes. Monomorphic adenoma, Warthin’s tumour, adenocarcinomas etc.
3.Vascular – usually congenital. Haemangiomas, vascular malformations
4. Inflammatory/autoimmune – Sjogren’s syndrome. Sarcoidosis (granulomas, clumps of inflammatory cells often triggered by virus/bacteria/chemical)
5.Trauma- facial fractures can cause rupture or damage to glands which cause poor drainage and swellings and increased risk of infection. Lacerations. Chronic trauma due to radiotherapy
6.Endocrine – thyroid disease
7.Degenerative – idiopathic sialolithiasis (calcified sialolith blocks the duct)
8.Metabolic – disorders can affect calcium levels increasing sialoliths, blockage, infection and swelling. Sialosis
9.Drugs - Antidepressants, antihistamines, antipsychotics, anti-Parkinson drugs, sedatives, methyldopa, diuretics, and methamphetamines
10. Congenital – rare. Aplasia, atresia, ectopic salivary gland tissue

24
Q

Symptoms of staph aureus parotid infection. And mumps

A

-due to salivary calculus blocking the duct.
-swelling worse before and during eating and likely unilateral
-Viral (eg. mumps) likely to be bilateral and constant and accompanied by fever.

25
Q

Risks of a parotidectomy. What is Frey syndrome

A

-altered sensation to ear lobe
-facial weakness (permanent or temporary)
-pain, bleeding, bruising, swelling, infection
-Frey’s syndrome - sweating while eating and facial flushing. Due to injury of auriculotemporal nerve during surgery

26
Q

Signs and symptoms of sepsis

A

[life-threatening reaction to an infection when body’s immune system begins to damage its own tissue and organs]

-current/ previous infection
-hypotensive (BP<90)
-tachcardic (HR >130)
-pyrexic
-RR >25
-purpuric rash
-lactate >2
-not peeing

27
Q

The tests needed to investigate if patient has sepsis

A

-Lactate (<2)
-FBC: white cell count and neutrophils infection markers
-Urea and electrolyte – monitoring general health
-Coagulation screen – sepsis increases coagulation factors
-Blood cultures- assess infection in blood
-Urine output

28
Q

Management of sepsis

A

-Fluids to combat hypotension and tachycardia
-Oxygen
-IV Antibiotics (co-amoxiclav 1.2g for orofacial infection)
-Close observation

29
Q

what space will be affected if an infection perforated bone lingually from a lower molar below the mylohyoid muscle. What about above

A

-submandibular space
-sublingual space

30
Q

Which spaces are affected in Ludwig’s angina

A
  • swelling of bilateral submandibular, sublingual and submental spaces
  • an airway emergency. Can still be an airway emergency if only unilateral swelling if it is significant enough.
  • A classic symptom of a swelling beneath the tongue is a “hot potato voice” -sound as though they have scolding hot food in their mouth
31
Q

Ways in which anaesthetists secure an airway

A

-tracheal intubation
-if access is difficult due to having a shared airway with OMFS or if trismus then nasal tube is an option
-if Infection or distortion of airway has compromise access to airway, Way of bypassing nose and mouth is a tracheostomy

32
Q

Wilson’s score assess how intubation will be for an anaesthetist. What increases difficulty of intubation

A

-facial swellings, abscess
-poor neck movement, arthritis, fracture
-patient cannot open mouth, trismus
-unstable neck
-Weight – fat people saturate more easily. Less able to open mouth.
-Receding mandible, Prominent incisor, Dislocating jaw

33
Q

What SBAR stands for for conveying info when referring a pt

A

‘Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation’

34
Q

What bones are detached in le fort I fracture

A

maxilla and skull

35
Q

A&E timeframe goal for patient to be assessed, treated and admitted/discharged

A

4 hour target in which patients attending A&E need to have been assessed, treated and admitted/discharged